Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

~RADT 132 > Mobile/Trauma Radiography > Flashcards

Mobile/Trauma Radiography Flashcards

1
Q

CR centering/angle for supine mobile chest

A

3-5 degrees caudad at T-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CR centering/angle for semi-erect mobile chest

A

CR perpendicular to plane of IR at T-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SID for mobile chest radiographs

A

40 inches minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

CR for AP mobile abdomen

A

Level of the iliac crest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CR for left lateral decubitus abdomen

A

Level 1-2” above the iliac crest (diaphragm included)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A ____ can be taken to show a possible AAA or as a substitute for a lateral decubitus if the patient can not move

A

lateral dorsal decubitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Often inserted under C-arm guidance or in an interventional suite

A

Pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

displacement of a bone that is no longer in contact with its normal articulation

A

Dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

occurs when a bone is partially pulled or pushed out of place in relation to its normal alignment

A

Subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a wrenching or twisting of a joint resulting in a tearing or rupturing of associated soft tissues without dislocation

A

Sprain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

a bruise type of injury. Can sometimes be associated with a bony injury

A

Contusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a disruption of bone caused by a force applied either directly to the bone, or transmitted along the shaft of the bone.

A

Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how the fragmented ends of the bone make contact with each other

A

Apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the fractured ends of the bone align anatomically making contact with each other

A

Anatomic apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the ends of the fragmented bone are aligned, but pulled apart with a gap between them

A

Lack of apposition (distraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the bone fragments are displaced and overlapping each other so that the shafts of the bone are in contact with each other

A

Bayonet apposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describes the loss of alignment of the fracture and the direction caused by this misalignment

A

angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The ____ of the angulation is opposite in relation to the distal ends of the fractured bone

A

apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describes the angle or direction of the fragment such as a medial or lateral apex in which the point of the angle points medially or laterally

A

Apex angulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Apex is pointing away from the midline of the body and the distal ends of the fractured bone are angled towards the midline of the body

A

Varus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

apex is pointing to the midline of the body and the distal ends of the fractured bone are angled away from the midline

A

Valgus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

fracture in which the bone does not break through the skin

A

Simple fracture (closed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a fracture in which a portion of the bone breaks through the skin. This is typically the fragmented end

A

Compound fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

fracture does no completely transverse the bone. More common in pediatric patients who still have more flexible bone tissue

A

Incomplete fracture (partial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

a buckle of the outer portion of the bone (the cortex) with localized expansion of the cortex with little to no displacement or complete break in the cortex

A

Torus/”Buckle” fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

this fracture is on one side of the bone only with the cortex of the affected side of the bone broken and the cortex on the other side bent

A

Greenstick fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the bone is broken into two separate pieces.

A

Complete fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the fracture is nearly at a right angle to the long axis of the bone

A

transverse fracture

29
Q

the fracture crosses the long axis of the bone at an oblique angle

A

Oblique fracture

30
Q

the bone has been twisted and the fracture spirals around the long axis of the bone

A

Spiral fracture

31
Q

the bone is splintered and/or crushed at the site of the fracture resulting in two or more pieces.

A

Comminuted fracture

32
Q

three basic types of comminuted fracture that have direct implications regarding treatment and prognosis primarily due to the impact on blood supply

A

Segmental, butterfly, splintered

33
Q

3 basic types of complete fractures

A

Transverse, oblique, spiral

34
Q

Two main types of incomplete fractures

A

Torus/”Buckle”, greenstick

35
Q

Three terms to describe angulation of fracture

A

apex, varus, valgus

36
Q

three terms to describe apposition

A

anatomic, lack of (distraction), bayonet

37
Q

two fracture lines that create three distinct sections of bone with the middle section being fractured at both ends

A

segmental fracture

38
Q

a fracture with two pieces on each side of a main wedge-shaped piece

A

Butterfly fracture

39
Q

can be caused by direct trauma in which a fracture is created with thin sharp fragments

A

Splintered fracture

40
Q

severe stress to a tendon or ligament which causes it to pull away a section of bone

A

Avulsion fracture

41
Q

caused by blunt trauma to the orbit, maxilla, or zygoma which causes fracturing to the orbital floor and lateral orbital margins

A

Blowout fracture

42
Q

a compression type injury in which a vertebral body collapses or is compressed. Typically seen radiographically in the anterior aspect of the vertebral bodies forming a wedge-like appearance

A

Compression fracture

43
Q

most common in pediatric patients. It’s a fracture at the growth plate of a bone. One of the most common fracture sites in children

A

Epiphyseal fracture

44
Q

fracture lines radiate outwards from the focal point of trauma in a “star-like” pattern most commonly seen in the patella.

A

Stellate fracture

45
Q

ankle joint fracture involving both the medial and lateral malleoli as well as the posterior lip of the distal tibia

A

Trimalleolar fracture

46
Q

a fracture in which one segment is driven into the other such as the shaft of a bone being driven into the distal end of the bone such as a Buckle Fracture

A

Impacted fracture

47
Q

fracture of the distal phalanx caused by being struck by a ball. Frequently an avulsion fracture at the base of the distal phalanx is seen with this injury

A

Baseball (Mallet) fracture

48
Q

usually seen in the distal part of the fifth metacarpal caused by punching. It is best visualized on the lateral image

A

Boxer fracture

49
Q

a wrist fracture in which the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly. May be caused by a forward fall

A

Colles fracture

50
Q

a wrist fracture in which the distal fragment is displaced anteriorly. May be caused by a backward fall

A

Smith’s fracture

51
Q

a bilateral fracture traversing the pars interarticularis of cervical vertebrae 2 (C2) with an associated traumatic subluxation of C2 on cervical vertebrae 3 (C3). It is the second most common fracture of the C2 vertebrae following a fracture of the odontoid process.

A

Hangman fracture

52
Q

intra-articular fracture of the radial styloid process

A

Hutchinson (Chauffer) fracture

53
Q

a fracture to the proximal half of the ulna with an associated radial head dislocation. This could be a self defense injury to the arm

A

Monteggia fracture

54
Q

a complete fracture to the distal fibula with accompanying major damage to the joint and associated soft tissues (ligaments etc.) and often seen with fracturing to the medial malleolus and/or distal tibia

A

Pott’s fracture

55
Q

the pieces of bone are put back into alignment manually. This is non surgical and is often used in conjunction with x-ray or fluoroscopy

A

Closed reduction

56
Q

this is a surgical procedure. The fracture may or may not be aligned prior to incision.

A

Open reduction

57
Q

three principles when performing trauma radiography:

A
  1. Two projections must be attained at 90º planes from each other (orthogonal views)
  2. Included the entire structure or trauma area on the IR
  3. Maintain patient, public, and healthcare worker(s) safety
58
Q

Injured limbs should be lifted with support at:

A

Both joints

58
Q

Two projections must be attained at 90º planes from each other. The two prefered views are:

A

True AP/PA and lateral

59
Q

Trauma hip

A

Danelius-Miller

60
Q

For a Danelius-Miller, rotate the IR so that it is parallel with the:

A

Femoral neck

61
Q

abduct the bottom of the IR ___ away from the body for Danelius-Miller

A

15-20º

62
Q

CR centering for Danelius-Miller

A

Horizontal to femoral neck

63
Q

CR centering for trauma AP pelvis

A

Midway between ASIS and pubic symphysis

64
Q

CR centering for trauma pelvis inlet view

A

40 degrees caudad at ASIS

65
Q

CR centering for trauma pelvis inlet view (male)

A

20 - 35 degrees cephalad 2 inches distal to superior margin of pubic symphysis (or greater trochs)

66
Q

CR centering for trauma pelvis outlet view (female)

A

30 - 45 degrees cephalad 2 inches distal to superior margin of pubic symphysis (or greater trochs)

67
Q

CR centering for trauma trans-thoracic shoulder

A

through the thorax and exiting at the level of the surgical neck of the affected shoulder

68
Q

CR centering for trauma trans-thoracic humerus

A

through the thorax and exiting a level near the mid-shaft of the affected humerus

~RADT 132 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions