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NM 717 Comps > Module 3 Kahoot Questions > Flashcards

Module 3 Kahoot Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When teaching a woman about the breast, what does the NP include regarding full development of the breast tissue?
A) :It occurs during adolescence.”
B) “It occurs during the postpartum period.”
C) “It occurs during embryonic life.”
D) “It occurs during pregnancy and lactation.”

A

D) “It occurs during pregnancy and lactation.”

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2
Q

Which is the approximate number of oocytes that are left when a female reaches puberty?

A

200,000

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3
Q

Which is an accurate statement for the pubovaginalis band of the pubococcygeus perineum muscle?
A) It controls defecation
B) It flexes the coccyx to decrease anal-rectal flexure
C) It is a sling and accessory sphincter for the rectum
D) It acts as a sling for the vagina and the vaginal sphincter

A

D) It acts as a sling for the vagina and the vaginal sphincter

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4
Q

What pelvic type poses difficulty for SVB and increases the likelihood of OP position and forceps-assisted delivery.
A) Heart-shaped
B) Oval Shaped
C) Round shaped
D) Flat

A

A) Heart-shaped

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5
Q

Damage to the perineum, and stretching of the _______ may occur during the 2nd stage, & can result in rectal prolapse.

A

levator ani muscles

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6
Q

Which pelvic type, if noted during an examination, is rare and not conducive to a vaginal birth? (& might still do it!!)
A) Round
B) Oval
C) Heart
D) Flat

A

D) Flat

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7
Q

Which is an accurate statement regarding the puborectalis band of the pubococcygeus perineum muscle?
A) It controls defecation
B) It flexes the coccyx to decrease anal-rectal flexure
C) It is a sling and accessory sphincter for the rectum
D) It acts as a sling for the vagina and the vaginal sphincter

A

C) It is a sling and accessory sphincter for the rectum

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8
Q

Which is an accurate statement regarding the pubococcygeus proper band of the pubococcygeus perineum muscle?
A) It controls defecation
B) It flexes the coccyx to decrease anal-rectal flexure
C) It is a sling and accessory sphincter for the rectum
D) It acts as a sling for the vagina and the vaginal sphincter

A

A) It controls defecation

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9
Q

Which stage of the female sexual response may cause vasocongestion to occur in 50% to 75% of women?
A) Desire
B) Arousal
C) Orgasm
D) Resolution

A

A) Desire

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10
Q

What is the average range for the menstrual cycle?

A

21-34 days

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11
Q

What percent of women report a 28 day cycle?

A

15%

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12
Q

Which amount of blood loss during menstruation, if reported by a woman, does the NP document as abnormal?

A

> 80 mL

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13
Q

The NP notes the frequency of menses as _____ because the woman states, “My periods occur less often than every 38 days”

A

Infrequent

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14
Q

What term describes menstrual irregularities for a woman who states, “I haven’t had a period in over three months.”?

A

Absent menstruation

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15
Q

The NP conducts a health hx for a woman who states, “I experience discomfort during ovulation.” The NP notes this as ___

A

Mittleschmerz

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16
Q

_____________ is not a condition typically known to cause amenorrhea.
A) Lactation
B) Pregnancy
C) Menopause
D) Hyperprolactinemia

A

D) Hyperprolactinemia

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17
Q

Which diagnosis, if noted in a woman’s health history, is an example of an endocrine disorder that causes amenorrhea?
A) Ovarian tumor
B) Cervical stenosis
C) Turner syndrome
D) Cushing syndrome

A

A) Ovarian tumor

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18
Q

Which diagnosis, if noted in a woman’s health history, is an example of a pituitary disorder that causes amenorrhea?
A) Ovarian tumor
B) Cervical stenosis
C) Turner syndrome
D) Cushing syndrome

A

D) Cushing syndrome

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19
Q

Which medication will the NP inquire about when learning an individual has abnormal bleeding and a hx of epilespy?
A) Rifampin (Rifadin)
B) Valproic acid (Depakene)
C) Amitrityline (Elavil)
D) Warfarin sodium (Coumadin)

A

B) Valproic acid (Depakene)

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20
Q

Under what age does not require a screening for cervical cancer according to current guidelines?

A

<21 y/o

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21
Q

HSV-1 and HSV-2 can cause genital infection but typically______ causes more genital pain, & outbreaks are more frequent

A

HSV-2

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22
Q

An individual reports chronic abdominal pain with GI involvement. Which differential dx may be appropriate for them?
A) Pancreatitis
B) Endometriosis
C) Fibromyalgia
D) Dysmenorrhea

A

A) Pancreatitis

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23
Q

An NP does health hx and PE on a person who reports acute abd. pain. What question helps to determine the onset of pain?
A) “Can you identify an event related to the initial recognition of pain?”
B) “Does the pain move or radiate?”
C) “Is it related to other factors, such as bowel movement or your period?”
D) “Describe the pain for me-is it burning or achy?”

A

A) “Can you identify an event related to the initial recognition of pain?”

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24
Q

What uterine cervical variation presents as an inflamed cervix accompanied by discharge or bleeding?

A

Cervicitis

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25
Q

All of these are symptoms of endometriosis. Which is the most common?
A) Dyspareunia
B) Infertility
C) Dysmenorrhea
D) Pelvic Pain

A

C) Dysmenorrhea

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26
Q

According to the American Society for Reproductive Medicine, stage _______ endometriosis has few implants & no adhesions.

A

Stage 1

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27
Q

An NP does health hx and PE on a person who reports acute abd. pain. What question helps to determine the duration of pain?
A) “Can you identify an event related to the initial recognition of pain?”
B) “Does the pain move or radiate?”
C) “Is it related to other factors, such as bowel movement or your period?”
D) “Describe the pain for me-is it burning or achy?”

A

C) “Is it related to other factors, such as bowel movement or your period?”

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28
Q

Definition: migration of endometrial tissue into the peritoneal cavity via the fallopian tubes during menses?
A) Retrograde menstruation
B) Environmental influences
C) Deviations in lymphatic system
D) Deviations in cellular physiology

A

A) Retrograde menstruation

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29
Q

Which of the woman’s family members’ history of endometriosis is relevant to a genetic etiology of endometriosis?
A) The person’s aunt
B) The person’s sister
C) The person’s maternal grandmother
D) The person’s paternal grandmother

A

B) The person’s sister

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30
Q

Which finding in a woman’s reproductive history does the NP identify as a risk factor for breast cancer?
A) A sister with ovarian cancer
B) Menstruation at 11 years of age
C) A history of night shift work
D) Chest radiation at 20 years of age

A

B) Menstruation at 11 years of age

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31
Q

Breast masses are to be described by _____, consistency, symmetry, tenderness & mobility.

A

Location

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32
Q

Which finding in an individual’s family history does the NP identify as a risk factor for breast cancer?
A) A sister with ovarian cancer
B) Menstruation at 11 years of age
C) A history of night shift work
D) Chest radiation at 20 years of age

A

A) A sister with ovarian cancer

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33
Q

Which breast assessment method does the NP recommend for subsequent examinations for an individual with dense breasts?

A

Ultrasound

34
Q

Alex is Rx’ed tamoxifen (Nolvadex) for lobular carcinoma in situ. What statement indicates a need for further education
A) “I might experience hot flashes.”
B) “This medication increases my risk for stroke.”
C) “I might experience irregular vaginal bleeding”
D) “This medication decreases my risk for endometrial cancer.”

A

D) “This medication decreases my risk for endometrial cancer.”

35
Q

T/F: Fibroadenomas are not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer.

A

True

36
Q

The most common side effect for letrozole (Femara) for HER2-positive breast cancer.
A) DVT
B) Musculoskeletal pain
C) Vaginal dryness
D) Weight gain

A

B) Musculoskeletal pain

37
Q

Which route of administration is used for trastuzumab (Herceptin) for breast cancer.

A

IV

38
Q

A woman who receives chemotherapy for the treatment of breast cancer reports fatigue. Which therapy does the NP Rx?
A) Blood transfusion
B) Relaxation techniques
C) Filgrastim (Neupogen)
D) Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A

D) Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

39
Q

An individual who receives chemotherapy for the tx of breast cancer reports constipation. The NM Rx’s what?
A) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)
B) Loperamide (Imodium)
C) Octreotide (Sandostatin)
D) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

A

A) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)

40
Q

The NP assesses the mouth of a woman who is sexually active. Which finding indicates a possible STI?
A) Lesions
B) Halitosis
C) Gingivitis
D) Tenderness

A

A) Lesions

41
Q

Symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include: Vaginal irritation, itching, dyspareunia, gray or white discharge, and _____.

A

A “fishy” odor

42
Q

Which general health measure does the NP recommend for a woman experiencing vaginal irritation and vaginitis?
A) Use unscented soaps
B) Avoid smoking
C) Use dye-free detergent
D) Avoid foods low in dietary fat

A

B) Avoid smoking

43
Q

Which statement indicates that a woman dx’ed with vaginitis requires more education on prevention method?
A) “I will ask my partner to use a condom.”
B) “I will use an oil-based lubricant to prevent chafing.”
C) “I will ask my partner to wash his hands before sexual intamacy.”
D) “I’ll try a variety of pH-balanced lubricants to find the least irritating”

A

B) “I will use an oil-based lubricant to prevent chafing.”

44
Q

The NP assesses a woman who presents with vaginal discharge. Which STI does the midwife suspect?
A) Syphilis
B) Chlamydia
C) HSV
D) HPV

A

B) Chlamydia

45
Q

The NM assesses a woman who presents with vaginal sores. Which STI does the midwife suspect?
A) Syphilis
B) Chlamydia
C) HSV
D) HPV

A

C) HSV

46
Q

The NP assesses a woman who presents with vaginal lesions/warts. Which STI does the NP suspect?
A) Syphilis
B) Chlamydia
C) HSV
D) HPV

A

D) HPV

47
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease consists of pelvic or lower abdominal pain and at least one of the which 3 signs:

A

Cervical motion tenderness, adnexal tenderness, uterine tenderness

48
Q

Which medication requires a written Rx for a woman requiring treatment for uncomplicated vulvovaginal candidiasis?
A) Miconazole 2% cream
B) Clotrimazole 2% cream (Gyne-Lotrimin-3)
C) Butoconaole 2% cream (Gynazlole-1)
D) Miconazole 100mg suppository

A

C) Butoconaole 2% cream (Gynazlole-1)

49
Q

Which is a short-acting, reversible method of contraception?
A) Sterilization
B) BC pills
C) IUD
D) Implant

A

B) BC pills

50
Q

The NP assesses a woman for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What does Category 1 mean?

A

There is no restriction for the use of the contraceptive method.

51
Q

The NP assesses a woman for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What does Category 2 mean?

A

There is an advantage of using this method that outweighs any risk

52
Q

The NP assesses a woman for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What does Category 3 mean?

A

There is a risk that outweighs the advantages of the contraceptivemethod

53
Q

The NP assesses a woman for medical eligibility for contraceptive use. What does Category 4 mean?

A

There is an unacceptable health risk if the contraceptive method is used

54
Q

A client says, “A daily method is inconvenient.” What factor involved in selecting contraceptive methods does this meet
A) Need for discretion/privacy
B) Eligibility based on risk factors
C) Acceptance of critical aspects of method
D) Access to method and ability to use successfully

A

C) Acceptance of critical aspects of method

55
Q

A client says, “My insurance company won’t cover it.” What factor does this exemplify?
A) Need for discretion/privacy
B) Eligibility based on risk factors
C) Acceptance of critical aspects of method
D) Access to method and ability to use successfully

A

D) Access to method and ability to use successfully

56
Q

A teen says, “My parents will be furious if they find out!” Which factor does this exemplify?
A) Need for discretion/privacy
B) Eligibility based on risk factors
C) Acceptance of critical aspects of method
D) Access to method and ability to use successfully

A

A) Need for discretion/privacy

57
Q

What is true for a couple who uses no contraceptive method, regarding unintended pregnancy?
A) 50 of every 100 couples will experience an unintended pregnancy within 6 mo
B) 50 of every 100 couples will experience an unintended pregnancy within 1 yr
C) 85 of every 100 couples will experience an unintended pregnancy within 1 yr
D) 85 of every 100 couples will experience an unintended pregnancy within 6 mo

A

C) 85 of every 100 couples will experience an unintended pregnancy within 1 yr

58
Q

Complete abstinence is __% effective and prevents exposure to STIs as well as pregnancy.

A

100%

59
Q

What criterion has to be true to use lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) as contraception?
A) The nursing infant receives most nutrition from suckling
B) The nursing infant must be older than 6 months of age
C) The nursing mother’s menses have resumed since the infant’s birth
D) The nursing infant does not go longer than 6 hours between feeds at night

A

D) The nursing infant does not go longer than 6 hours between feeds at night

60
Q

What statement indicates the need for additional teaching regarding spermicidal preparation?
A) “We can insert the film 15minutes before sexual activity.”
B) “We can apply the cream forup to 1 hour after coitus.”
C) “The cream can be usedalone or with a diaphragm.”
D) “To insert the film, myfingers should be dry.”

A

B) “We can apply the cream forup to 1 hour after coitus.”

61
Q

A couple wants to use a spermicide immediately before sexual activity. What do you recommend based on this information?
A) Film
B) foam
C) creams
D) suppository

A

B) foam

62
Q

Among typical users of spermicides, during the 1st year of use, approx ____ will have an unintended pregnancy.

A

28%

63
Q

Which statement about spermicide duration of action lets the NP know to provide additional teaching?
A) “Gels work for 1 hour.”
B) “Sponges work for 3 hours.”
C) “The film works for 3 hours.”
D) “The cream works for 1 hour.”

A

B) “Sponges work for 3 hours.”

64
Q

Which is true regarding the insertion of a female condom?
A) “I will flush the condom down the toilet.”
B) “I will gently remove the condom directly from my vagina.”
C) “I will lubricate the outside of the closed end with spermicide.”
D) “I will squeeze and twist the out ring to keep the semen inside the pouch.”

A

C) “I will lubricate the outside of the closed end with spermicide.”

65
Q

Which is true regarding the removal of a female condom?
A) “I will flush the condom down the toilet.”
B) “I will gently remove the condom directly from my vagina.”
C) “I will lubricate the outside of the closed end with spermicide.”
D) “I will squeeze and twist the out ring to keep the semen inside the pouch.”

A

D) “I will squeeze and twist the out ring to keep the semen inside the pouch.”

66
Q

Which method is inappropriate for the NP to include in a discussion about hormonal contraception?
A) Rings
B) Patches
C) Subdermal implants
D) Copper intrauterine devices

A

D) Copper intrauterine devices

67
Q

Which statement indicates to the NP that a client understands the information about contraceptive methods
A) “Subdermal implants contain both estrogen and progestin.”
B) “The intravaginal contraceptive ring contains estrogen only.”
C) “The intravaginal contraceptive ring contains progestin only.”
D) “The transdermal contraceptive patch contains both estrogen and progestin.”

A

D) “The transdermal contraceptive patch contains both estrogen and progestin.”

68
Q

Which statement indicates to the NM that a client requires additional education about hormonal contraception?
A) “Subdermal implants contain progestin only.”
B) “The intravaginal contraceptive ring contains estrogen only.”
C) “The intravaginal contraceptive ring contains two hormones.”
D) “The transdermal contraceptive patch contains both estrogen andprogestin.”

A

B) “The intravaginal contraceptive ring contains estrogen only.”

69
Q

Which method has the most immediate return to fertility?
A) A contraceptive ring
B) A contraceptive injection
C) A transdermal patch contraceptive
D) A combined oral contraceptive method

A

A) A contraceptive ring

70
Q

A return to fertility when discontinuing subdermal implants occurs in about _______.

A

1-3 weeks

71
Q

Which method would have the fastest return to fertility upon discontinuation?
A) A contraceptive injection
B) A transdermal patch contraceptive
C) A levonorgestrel intrauterine device
D) A combined oral contraceptive method

A

C) A levonorgestrel intrauterine device

72
Q

A hormonal contraceptive is indicated for dysmenorrhea and what condition in this person’s health hx?
A) Anemia
B) Endometriosis
C) Colorectal cancer
D) Endometrial cancer

A

B) Endometriosis

73
Q

What information in a person’s health history is an absolute contraindication for COCs?
A) Gallbladder disease
B) Acute viral hepatitis
C) Anticonvulsant therapy
D) Migraine headaches without an aura

A

B) Acute viral hepatitis

74
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA)?
A) Recent diagnosis of ischemic heart disease
B) Migraine headache history without an aura
C) Long-term corticosteroid use with history of nontraumatic fracture
D) Breast cancer history with no evidence of current disease for five years

A

C) Long-term corticosteroid use with history of nontraumatic fracture

75
Q

As a woman ages, the NM knows that __________ increases.
A) follicular loss
B) estrogen production
C) androgen production
D) progesterone production

A

A) Follicular loss

76
Q

What term describes a one-time event that marks the permanent cessation of ovulation and menstruation.

A

Menopause

77
Q

______ is a factor that has been associated with spontaneous menopause that occurs earlier than the avg age of 51 yrs.

A

Smoking

78
Q

Which hormone does the NP monitor due to persistent vasomotor symptoms in spite of hormone therapy for perimenopause?

A

Estrogen

79
Q

Which term describes the process of age-related changes from a reproductive state to a nonreproductive state?

A

Climacteric (perimenopause)

80
Q

Which term describes the tx of women for symptoms such as vasomotor conditions or vulvovaginal atrophy?

A

Estrogen therapy

NM 717 Comps (31 decks)

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