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Hpl > moodle Q's chapter 1-6 > Flashcards

moodle Q's chapter 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most likely part of the flight profile where accidents are likely to occur ?

Select one:

a. Take-off
b. Initial Climb
c. Approach and landing
d. Initial decent

A

Approach and landing

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2
Q

What has been the single most important piece of equipment that has been introduced to reduce accident rates over recent years ?

Select one:

a. GPWS
b. IVSI
c. HSI
d. ASI

A

GPWS

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3
Q

What is the most frequently identified cause of air accidents?

Select one:

a. Lack of positional awareness
b. Gastro-enteritis
c. Too little oxygen supplied
d. Looking out of the wrong window

A

Lack of positional awareness

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4
Q

According to figure 17 in EASA Annual Safety Review: “Occurrence Categories for Fatal and Non-Fatal Accidents in EASA MS CAT Aeroplanes above 2,250 kg MTOM, 2003-2012”

Which factor is the biggest  for Fatal Accidents? 
Select one:
a. LOC-I 
b. EVAC
c. SCF-NP
d. ICE
A

LOC-I

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5
Q

What are the 2 key aims of Human Performance and Limitations?

Select one:

a. The safety and efficiency of the aircraft and the well being of the individual
b. The safety and efficiency of the flight operation and the well being of the individual
c. The safety and efficiency of the flight operation and the well being of the crew
d. The safety and efficiency of the crew and the well being of the individual

A

b. The safety and efficiency of the flight operation and the well being of the individual

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6
Q 
What is considered to be the approximate percentage of accidents attributable to crew as the primary causal factor ?
Select one:
a. 35%
b. 25%
c. 65%
d. 75%
A

d. 75%

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7
Q 
What law may be explained by the formula:
PTOT = P1 + P2 + P3 + P4 etc. ?
Select one:
a. Charles' Law
b. Boyle's Law
c. Dalton's Law
d. Fick's Law
A

Dalton’s law

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8
Q 
Above what height is there considered to be insufficient oxygen to maintain adequate cerebral function ?
Select one:
a. 6,000 ft
b. 8,000 ft 
c. 10,000 ft
d. 12,000 ft
A

10,000 ft

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9
Q 
What is the agreed comfort level for relative humidity ?
Select one:
a. 5% - 25%
b. 20% - 40% 
c. 40% - 60%
d. 50% - 80%
A

40%-60%

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10
Q 
What is total lung capacity of a human considered to be ?
Select one:
a. 100 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 1000 ml
d. 6000 ml
A

6000 ml

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11
Q

The Time of Useful Consciousness (TUC) decreases with height. What is the TUC for an individual at 40,000ft in the case of rapid decompression ?

Select one:

a. 12 - 15 seconds
b. 60 - 75 seconds
c. 2 - 3 minutes
d. Up to an hour

A

a. 12-15 seconds

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12
Q 
What separates the 2 sides of the heart ?
Select one:
a. Aorta 
b. Septum
c. Myocardium
d. Angina
A

b. Septum

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13
Q 
Which of the following marks the beginning of hyperventilation ?
Select one:
a. Slow heart beat
b. Cyanosis 
c. Dizzy feeling
d. Slow rate of breath
A

c. Dizzy Feeling

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14
Q

What is hypotension?
Select one:
a. High blood pressure likely resulting from hypoxia
b. High blood pressure likely resulting from shock
c. Low blood pressure likely resulting from shock
d. Low blood pressure likely resulting from hypoxia

A

c. Low blood pressure likely resulting from shock

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15
Q

Which Law states that the rate of gas diffusion through a tissue medium is proportional to the tissue area and partial pressures on the 2 sides; and is inversely proportional to the tissue thickness?

Select one:

a. Charles’ Law
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Dalton’s Law
d. Fick’s Law

A

Fick’s Law

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16
Q 
What part of the body is responsible for gaseous exchange ?
Select one:
a. Alveoli
b. Arteries
c. Oesophagus
d. Heart
A

a. Alveoli

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17
Q 
How much of the body's available oxygen, under normal conditions, does the brain use...?
Select one:
a. 87 %
b. 78 % 
c. 50 %
d. 20 %
A

20%

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18
Q 
What is the typical human tidal volume ?
Select one:
a. 100 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 1000 ml 
d. 6000 ml
A

b. 500 ml

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19
Q 
What is the key to returning to normal from a state of hyperventilation ?
Select one:
a. Re-establish oxygen levels 
b. Re-establish carbon monoxide levels
c. Re-establish carbon dioxide levels
d. Re-establish nitrogen levels
A

c. Re-establish carbon dioxide levels

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20
Q 
What is considered to be the lowest partial pressure of oxygen, approximately, before performance deterioration begins
Select one:
a. 45 mmHg
b. 55 mmHg
c. 103 mmHg
d. 105 mmHg
A

b. 55 mmHg

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21
Q

What are the physiological symptoms of ozone poisoning ?
Select one:
a. Itchy eyes
b. Itchy eyes, coughing and nasal irritation
c. Itchy eyes, coughing and lethargy
d. Itchy eyes, coughing, sneezing and lethargy

A

b. Itchy eyes, coughing and nasal irritation

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22
Q

What must be done at 40,000 ft in an unpressurised aircraft in order for the pilot to maintain performance levels ?

Select one:

a. Increase oxygen/air mixture
b. Apply 100% oxygen
c. Take 100% oxygen under pressure
d. Descend. Life cannot be supported at this level

A

c. Take 100% oxygen under pressure

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23
Q 
What significance does Henrys Law have in flying?
Select one:
a. Decompression sickness
b. Barotrauma
c. Hypoxia
d. Angle of attack
A

a. Decompression sickness

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24
Q 
What cabin altitude is utilised in most modern pressurised aircraft ?
Select one:
a. 4000 - 6000 ft
b. 6000 - 8000 ft 
c. 8000 - 10000 ft
d. 10000 - 12000 ft
A

b. 6000-8000 ft

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25
Q

Insulin is produced by the pancreas and controls the level of carbohydrate in the blood within very precise limits. How is the control mechanism for this release monitored ?

Select one:

a. Neuro-hormonal feedback
b. Reflectic feedback
c. Conditioned feedback
d. Electrochemical feedback

A

a. Neuro-hormonal feedback

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26
Q

What do the 3 semi-circular canals detect ?
Select one:
a. Angular movements/Angular accelerations
b. Gravity
c. Linear movements/Linear accelerations
d. Accelerations

A

a. Angular movements/Angular accelerations

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27
Q 
Where is balance information processed ?
Select one:
a. The middle ear
b. The cerebrum
c. The inner ear
d. The cerebellum
A

d. The cerebellum

28
Q

Where are the malleus, incus and stapes situated ?
Select one:
a. The vestibular apparatus in the inner ear
b. The vestibular apparatus in the middle ear
c. The ossicles in the middle ear
d. The ossicles in the inner ear

A

c. The ossicles in the middle ear

29
Q 
What is the hearing range of the ear ?
Select one:
a. About 1/2 mile
b. Depends on the loudness of the sound
c. 20 - 20,000 Khz 
d. 20 - 20,000 Hz
A

d. 20 - 20,000 Hz

30
Q

Why does alcohol cause problems with balance?

Select one:

a. Alcohol is more dense than the endolymph causing light spots
b. Alcohol is less dense than the endolymph causing light spots
c. Alcohol affects the liver allowing “poisoning of the senses”
d. Alcohol simply lowers the sensitivity threshold

A

b. Alcohol is less dense than the endolymph causing light spots

31
Q 
What is sensitivity ?
Select one:
a. The point at which tempers break
b. How emotional we can become
c. The ability to see in the dark
d. The lowest threshold at which sense organs respond
A

d. The lowest threshold at which sense organs respond

32
Q 
NIHL is Noise Induced Hearing Loss. Long term exposure to noise levels in excess of ...............cause this condition.
Select one:
a. 9 dB
b. 29dB 
c. 90dB
d. 120dB
A

c. 90dB

33
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of motion sickness?

i) Nausea
ii) Diarrhoea
iii) Anxiety possibly leading to hyperventilation
iv) Pale face
v) Blue lips
vi) Dry mouth
vii) Sensation of body warmth
viii) Soreness of eyes

Select one:

a. All of the above
b. None of the above
c. i, ii, iii, v, vi, vii
d. i, iii, iv, vii

A

d. i, iii, iv, vii

34
Q 
What sort of deafness can result from the build up of wax ?
Select one:
a. Temporary 
b. Conductive
c. NIHL
d. Sensori-neural
A

b. Conductive

35
Q

What is acetylcholine ?
Select one:
a. A neurotransmitter which is neuro-hormonal
b. A neurotransmitter which is electrochemical
c. A chemical which carry the impulse away from a cell
d. The base chemical of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)

A

b. A neurotransmitter which is electrochemical

36
Q 
What do the otoliths detect ?
Select one:
a. Angular movements
b. Gravity 
c. Linear movements
d. Linear movements and gravity
A

d. Linear movements and gravity

37
Q 
What term is used to describe the increasing sensitivity of the eyes in low light conditions?
Select one:
a. Habituation
b. Sensitivity
c. Rejuvenation 
d. Adaption (or adaptation)
A

d. Adaption (or adaptation)

38
Q

Cataracts are linked to age of an individual.
What else may be a contributing factor to early cataract formation ?

Select one:

a. Low flying
b. High G exercises
c. Long term UV exposure
d. Long term IR exposure

A

c. Long term UV exposure

39
Q

Certain visual cues help to determine both depth and distance. These are divided into monocular and binocular cues. What term and type of cue is given to perception of objects that appear hazy or bluish in the distance ?

Select one:

a. Term - Linear Perspective Cue - Monocular
b. Term - Aerial Perspective Cue - Monocular
c. Term - Linear Perspective Cue - Binocular
d. Term - Aerial Perspective Cue – Binocular

A

b. Term - Aerial Perspective Cue - Monocular

40
Q 
How long does dark-adaption (adaptation) and light-adaption take?
Select one:
a. Dark - 20 minutes Light - 10 seconds
b. Dark - 25 minutes Light - 60 seconds
c. Dark - 30 minutes Light - 10 seconds
d. Dark - 90 minutes Light - 60 seconds
A

c. Dark - 30 minutes Light - 10 seconds

41
Q

How may the effects of Empty or Open Field Myopia be alleviated ?
Select one:
a. By focusing on ground objects or wing-tips
b. Breathing 100 % oxygen
c. Relaxing and staring ahead
d. Keep both eyes closed for 1 minute

A

a.By focusing on ground objects or wing-tips

42
Q

If the possibility of flash blindness exists during flight, what would be the best course of action of the pilot ?
Select one:
a. Look outside, lower cockpit lights (in that order).
b. Turn down cockpit lights, look outside to accustom the eyes to the flash
c. Turn up cockpit lights, look inside the cockpit until the danger passes
d. Do nothing, flash blindness is rare

A

c. Turn up cockpit lights, look inside the cockpit until the danger passes

43
Q 
Long-sightedness, caused by the eyeball being too ........, is treated by a .............lens, and is termed .................. .?
Select one:
a. Short, Convex, Hypermetropia
b. Short, Concave, Myopia
c. Long, Convex, Hypermetropia
d. Long, Concave, Myopia
A

a. Short, Convex, Hypermetropia

44
Q 
What are cones sensitive to?
Select one:
a. Colour
b. Black - white - grey
c. Colour and black - white - grey
d. White light only
A

a. Colour

45
Q

What do rods see ?
Select one:
a. Colour in high light conditions
b. Colour in low light conditions
c. Black - white - grey in all light conditions
d. Black - white - grey in dark conditions only

A

c. Black - white - grey in all light conditions

46
Q 
What is presbyopia chiefly caused by ?
Select one:
a. Low vitamin D intake
b. High vitamin A intake
c. Exposure to niacin
d. Age
A

d. Age

47
Q 
What muscles are responsible for changing the shape of the lens ?
Select one:
a. Ciliary body
b. Ciliated body
c. Intranetular intra-aural eye muscles
d. Myelin muscles
A

a. Ciliary body

48
Q

When scanning an empty sky with little or no features to focus on, there is a tendency to focus on …………, which are about ………. away. This is termed……..

Select one:

a. Parts of the aircraft 1m Empty field myopia
b. The ground 3 nm Ground hypermetropia
c. The stars 200 light years Madness
d. The clouds 1 nm Optometric infusion

A

a. Parts of the aircraft 1m Empty field myopia

49
Q

Which processes are involved when energy is produced from food eaten and waste product is removed?
Select one:
a. Ingestion, digestion, affiliation, egestion
b. Integration, digestion, assimulation, egestion
c. Injection, disintegration, assimilation, ejection
d. Ingestion, digestion, assimilation, egestion

A

d. Ingestion, digestion, assimilation, egestion

50
Q

Explain BMI and list the figures for men and women?
Select one:
a. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >25 is over-weight, >30 is obese. For women >29 is obese

b. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >25 is over-weight, >30 is obese. For women >23 is obese
c. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >20 is over-weight, >25 is obese. For women >23 is obese
d. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in lbs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >30 is over-weight, >35 is obese. For women >25 is obese

A

a. Body Mass Index is derived by dividing the weight in Kgs by the height in metres squared. For men BMI >25 is over-weight, >30 is obese. For women >29 is obese

51
Q

Aircraft interiors may be sprayed to reduce the likelihood of carrying tropical diseases and disease-carrying insects from country to country. When are they sprayed ?
Select one:
a. Before doors closed prior to departing the endemic region
b. Before leaving the endemic region
c. After doors open at the endemic region
d. After doors closed prior to departing the endemic region

A

d. After doors closed prior to departing the endemic region

52
Q 
What has excessive salt intake been connected with...?
Select one:
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypertension
d. Hypoglycaemia
A

c. Hypertension

53
Q 
The most dangerous form of incapacitation in flight is?
Select one:
a. Fast
b. Slow
c. Insidious
d. Obvious
A

c. Insidious

54
Q 
Food poisoning generally takes effect within how many minutes?
Select one:
a. 30 minutes 
b. 60 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 120 minutes
A

c. 90 minutes

55
Q 
What disease may be immunised against every 10 years with very effective results ?
Select one:
a. Malaria
b. Typhoid
c. Influenza 
d. Yellow fever
A

d. Yellow fever

56
Q 
What are the early onset symptoms of alcoholism ?
1. Regular drinking alone
2. Gulping the first drink down
3. Meeting with other friends who drink
4. Long term memory loss
5 Short term memory loss
6. Increasing intake to feel "good"

Select one:

a. i only
b. All of the above
c. 1,2,5,6
d. 1,2,3,5,6

A

c. 1,2,5,6

57
Q

Which preventative measures can be used to reduce the risk of catching diseases associated with contaminated water (e.g. Cholera) ?

Select one:

a. Have the preventative injection which is valid for 1 year, avoid inter-personal contact, and only drink water whose origin is healthy.
b. Have the preventative injection which is valid for 5 years, avoid eating salads, and only drink water whose origin is healthy
c. Have the preventative injection which is valid for 2 years, avoid inter-personal contact, and only drink water whose origin is healthy.
d. Have the preventative injection which is only valid for 6 months, and only drink water whose origin is healthy

A

d. Have the preventative injection which is only valid for 6 months, and only drink water whose origin is healthy

58
Q

State the major constituents of a healthy diet ?
Select one:
a. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates and vitamins.
b. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins and minerals.
c. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals and trace elements.
d. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals, trace elements and glucogens

A

c. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates, vitamins, minerals and trace elements.

59
Q

What symptoms could be noticed if a pilot was suffering from vitamin deficiencies ?
Select one:
a. Feeling of malaise, proneness to infection, poor circulation
b. Slow healing of wounds, lack of energy, poor appetite
c. Feeling of malaise, proneness to infection, slow healing of wounds
d. Lack of energy, poor appetite, slow healing of wounds

A

c. Feeling of malaise, proneness to infection, slow healing of wounds

60
Q 
What are the symptoms of circulatory shock ?
Select one:
a. Pale skin, strong and rapid pulse
b. Pale skin, weak but rapid pulse
c. Pink skin, occasionally no pulse
d. Pink skin, strong and rapid pulse
A

b. Pale skin, weak but rapid pulse

61
Q

What is the difference between a fit and a faint ?
Select one:
a. A fit is caused by insufficient blood reaching the brain whereas a faint is caused by a sudden activation of the nervous system leading to a muscle spasm
b. A faint is caused by insufficient blood reaching the brain whereas a fit is caused by a sudden activation of the nervous system leading to a muscle spasm
c. A fit is caused by sudden activation of the motor nerves in the peripheral nervous system and a faint is caused by lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
d. A fit is caused by the central nervous system reacting to shock causing muscle spasm or twitching and a faint is caused by too much carbonic acid

A

b. A faint is caused by insufficient blood reaching the brain whereas a fit is caused by a sudden activation of the nervous system leading to a muscle spasm

62
Q 
What foodstuff assists with excretion of waste products from metabolism as well as delaying the absorption of sugar?
Select one:
a. Vitamins
b. Proteins
c. Carbohydrate
d. Fibre
A

d. Fibre

63
Q

What is the meaning of the mnemonic I’M SAFE which a pilot should remember to decide whether he/she is both mentally and physically fit to fly?
Select one:
a. No illness, not under any medication, not stressed, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems
b. No illness, no mental problems, no sleep problems, no attitude problems, not fatigued and no emotional problems
c. No illness, not under medication, no sleep problems, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems
d. No illness, no mental problems, not stressed, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems

A

a. No illness, not under any medication, not stressed, not affected by alcohol, not fatigued and no emotional problems

64
Q

Smoking cigarettes may cause hypoxia. Why?
Select one:
a. Haemoglobin has greater affinity with carbon monoxide than to oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide may block the increased heart rate needed for breathing faster when flying at higher altitudes
c. Nicotine makes the heart beat slower
d. Carbon dioxide prevents a full exchange of gases in the alveoli

A

a. Haemoglobin has greater affinity with carbon monoxide than to oxygen

65
Q 
How much caffeine can have a detrimental effect on pilot performance ?
Select one:
a. 1 mg
b. 250 mg
c. 900 mg
d. 1- 2 grams
A

b. 250 mg

Hpl (2 decks)

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