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Skin KC-135R > MQF KC-135 (Sep 2013) CAO: 2023 > Flashcards

MQF KC-135 (Sep 2013) CAO: 2023 Flashcards

Pass

1
Q

If True False:

If Any, All, And:

A

Always True, except as seen in these cards

Always: Any, All, And except as seen in these cards

—– indicates exceptions

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2
Q

3. Normal left and right hydraulic system pressure range is _____ to _____ psi.

A

2400; 3050

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3
Q
  1. Maximum EGT during engine start is _____ °C.
A

725

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4
Q
  1. EGT between _____ is limited to 5 minutes duration. EGT between________ – Retard the throttle to bring EGT within limits. Operation is allowed until the next landing. If EGT exceeds _______– shut engine down using the ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE DURING FLIGHT checklist.
A

870°C - 905°C; 906°C - 930°C; 930°C

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5
Q
  1. Normal oil pressure limits are _____ psi. Oil pressure fluctuations of not more than _____ psi total are allowable as long as fluctuations remain within normal limits.
A

B. 11 – 92; 10

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6
Q
  1. Because of possible damage due to sonic airflow at certain angles of attack do not extend flaps above _____ feet pressure altitude.
A

20,000

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7
Q
  1. Because of the magnitude of interrelated aerodynamic effects flying two airplanes in close vertical proximity is _____.
A

C. Not safe

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8
Q
  1. If the _____ is not down and in the detent ensure that the _____ is installed. Notify the aircraft commander and maintenance personnel immediately. No further preflight actions will be accomplished until maintenance personnel correct the situation and confirm that the aircraft is in preflight configuration.
A

C. Landing Gear Lever; nose gear ground downlock and release handle

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9
Q
  1. The pilot will ensure that no personnel are standing near _____ when pressurizing the left hydraulic system. Sudden closing of these doors could cause serious injury to personnel who may be in the path of the doors.
A

B. Wheel Well Doors

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10
Q
  1. The copilot ANN DIM switch on the Copilot Overhead Light Panel must be out of the DIM (full ccw) position for the _____ to operate. Ensure that the copilot ANN DIM switch is out of the DIM (full ccw) position prior to closing the crew entry/cargo door. Once the crew entry/cargo doors are closed the DIM switch can be adjusted as required.
A

D. FDR

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11
Q
  1. Possible causes of a _____ are engaging the pilot’s interphone (on the yoke or the tiller) pressing the pilot’s FD ANN TEST button a cold hydraulic system the low- flow capability of the auxiliary hydraulic pump and/or the use of other hydraulically- actuated systems during the EFAS test; in this case the EFAS self-test is _____ indicating a system failure.
A

B. Failed EFAS test; incorrectly

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12
Q
  1. Speed Brake Warning horn sounds when lever is pulled back more than _______ degrees out of the full forward position.
A

C. 2

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13
Q
  1. Proper adjustment of the _____ is especially critical for takeoff approach and landing where full deflection of control surfaces may be required for safe operation of the airplane. To prevent inadvertent movement of the seat ensure that the _____ is in the down and latched position.
A

C. Seat and Rudder Pedals; seat horizontal adjustment lever

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14
Q
  1. If an APU with an operable generator is not available and external power is not used the start can be made on battery power only. During this procedure all engine _____ gages are inoperative until a generator is on the line and 28V AC power is available.
A

A. Oil Pressure and Fuel Flow

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15
Q
  1. Copilot checks for initial fuel flow peak of _____ pph (before ignition) and approximately _______ pph after ignition. If fuel flow exceeds _____ pph before lightoff a hot start can occur.
A

B. 300-680; 900; 680

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16
Q
  1. For temperatures _____ failure to set the engine start switch to IGNITION may result in engine flameout when the throttles are retarded during taxi operations.
A

D. At and below 0°C (32°F)

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17
Q
  1. Minimum taxiway width is _______ feet.
A

B. 74

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18
Q
  1. Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than _____ feet to any obstruction.
A

B. 25 10

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19
Q
  1. Do not operate aircraft within 25 horizontal feet of any obstruction without ______.
A

A. Wing walkers

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20
Q
  1. Marshallers are required to use ______ during night or low visibility conditions.
A

C. Illuminated Wands

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21
Q
  1. When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?
A

C. From just prior to engine start until after engine shutdown

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22
Q
  1. You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?
A

C. Alter course to the right to remain well clear or stop

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23
Q
  1. An AC or IP will make all heavyweight landings greater than _______ and landings during emergencies unless conditions prevent compliance.
A

B. 235000 pounds

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24
Q
  1. In those situations where runway/taxi conditions or performance considerations are such that safety could be compromised
A

A. A static takeoff should be made

—–exception—–(B & C) is wrong—–

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25
Q
  1. For a takeoff approach or landing with fuel in any main tank below _____ pounds open all tank to engine manifold valves. Open the line valve for all takeoffs when gross weight is greater than _____ pounds. Ensure line valve is closed for all takeoffs when gross weight is at or below _____ pounds.
A

C. 10500; 200000; 200000

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26
Q
  1. Exercise caution during throttle application to prevent asymmetrical thrust. Engine thrust should be stabilized at a minimum of _____ prior to advancing throttles to the takeoff thrust setting.
A

B. 40% N1

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27
Q
  1. If any engine does not reach the charted N1 setting _____ the engine is not providing the required rated thrust and the takeoff shall be aborted.
A

D. Between 40 and 80 knots

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28
Q
  1. When _____ throttle is advanced near OPEN the warning horn sounds if the speed brake lever is more than 2 degrees out of the full forward position if the flap lever is at or near the 0 40 or 50 degree detent or the leading edge flaps are not fully extended.
A

C. No. 3

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29
Q
  1. Sudden reversal of rudder direction at high rudder deflections due to improper rudder application or abrupt release can result in _____.
A

D. Overstressing the vertical fin

30
Q
  1. If stabilizer trim has moved from setting selected during the TAXI checklist _____.
A

A. Abort the mission

31
Q
  1. When experiencing a loss shear on takeoff anticipate a loss in indicated airspeed and altitude. This situation is potentially dangerous if the airplane is close to the ground. If this loss is expected to be _____ knots or more the takeoff shall be delayed if possible until more favorable conditions exist.
A

B. 15

32
Q
  1. Leave ignition on if engine anti-ice is on. If anti-ice is not required turn starter switches off _____.
A

D. 5 minutes after established at cruise altitude

33
Q
  1. Do not climb at a speed more than the recommended three engine climbout speed.
A

B. False

34
Q
  1. Maneuvering at speeds below three engine climbout speed plus _____ knots is not recommended. A bank angle of 30 degrees at climbout speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability by as much as _____ fpm.
A

50; 400

35
Q
  1. [Without TCTO 1823] If airplane is to remain in closed traffic after takeoff thrust will be adjusted to climb out at the same speed to be used on the downwind leg and a rate of climb of approximately _____ feet per minute.
A

1000

36
Q
  1. If an engine failure occurs during climbout continue to follow the command bars. With inoperative command bars if an engine failure occurs during or immediately after take- off _____; if an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climbout speed do not reduce airspeed but continue to climb at the speed attained at the point of engine failure.
A

C. Climb at recommended three-engine climbout speed

37
Q
  1. After setting climb thrust no further throttle adjustment should be necessary during climb if the power management control (PMC) system is NOT operating.
A

B. False

38
Q
  1. Manual damping of dutch roll is to be accomplished only with _____.
A

C. Lateral (aileron) control

39
Q
  1. For an unplanned thunderstorm penetration use the lower of 280 KIAS or cruise Mach (0.77 to 0.80) and do NOT change the _____.
A

B. Stabilizer Trim setting

40
Q
  1. For all _____ AARs do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within ½ NM; this includes datalink.
A

D. foreign aircraft

41
Q
  1. Pilots must use extreme care in those cases when the speed brakes are required for deceleration. Ascertain that the receiver _____ prior to speed brake actuation.
A

D. will not overrun the tanker

42
Q
  1. For airplanes equipped with standard speed booms if airspeed must be increased above _____ KIAS/.85 Mach the pilot will notify the boom operator to stow the boom.
A

335

43
Q
  1. During any air refueling which requires the indicated airspeed to be less than 220 KIAS; _____ for dry contacts to preclude fuel siphoning from the forward body tank causing unexpected CG changes.
A

D. keep the A/R line valve closed

44
Q
  1. When the receiver is in or near the contact position the pilot _____ at the first indication of autopilot malfunction including an inadvertent autopilot disconnect if accompanied by out-of-trim control forces.
A

D. will initiate a breakaway

45
Q
  1. Unless dictated otherwise by ATP-3.3.4.2 (Chapter 2 Section I Warning) or by mission requirements tankers will establish the applicable contact air refueling airspeed before the receiver reaches _____. If the tanker is off airspeed by more than _____ knots the receiver pilot will be informed prior to tanker airspeed changes.
A

A. 1NM 5

46
Q
  1. Following an inadvertent brute force disconnect air refueling _____.
A

D. will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity

47
Q
  1. When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G a common track length equivalent to _____ minutes flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height visual acquisition and timing corrections.
A

C. 15

48
Q
  1. Unless otherwise directed an altimeter setting of _____ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. Regardless of whether or not the aircraft are operating on standard pressure settings tanker crews _______ to include the altimeter setting in the RV Initial Call.
A

B. 29.92 are required

49
Q
  1. The tanker will note the receiver’s distance when _____ through the turn back to the ARCP. This is the best time to determine if an overrun condition exists and the best time for visual sighting. Except for overtaking point parallel rendezvous the distance to the receiver should be approximately 1/3 of the turn range when____through the turn.
A

C. Halfway halfway

50
Q
  1. Normally tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle 60 NM long 25 NM wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers tanker aircraft:
A

B. Must receive clearance from the box to the IP if airspace is desired

51
Q
  1. Closely monitor airplane CG during reverse air refueling as the aft CG limit can be quickly exceeded when operating at ________ gross weights.
A

A. Light

52
Q
  1. To avoid datalink initialization failure the flight crew ensures that the flight-specific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed _____.
A

D. In the flight plan

53
Q
  1. The flight crew should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry and if this changes by _____ minutes or more unless providing position reports via ADS-C pass a revised estimate to ATC.
A

C. 3

54
Q
  1. For oceanic crossings aircrew will use _______.
A

B. Only the MAJCOM Stan/Eval MDS-specific checklist posted on the Aircrew Pubs Sharepoint. If an MDS-specific checklist is not posted aircrew may use the Sample Oceanic Checklist published via NAT OPS Bulletin

55
Q
  1. If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to ____.
A

D. Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request

56
Q
  1. Approximately _____ minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C service areas the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.
A

A. 15

57
Q
  1. For approach purposes the KC-135R is considered a Category _____ airplane. In those cases where the speed for a circling approach exceeds 166 knots Category _____ minima will be applied.
A

B. D E

58
Q
  1. A speed brake lever position of less than _____ degrees is not recommended due to a tendency to over-control at these settings.
A

C. 40

59
Q
  1. For all FMS approaches at 2 NM prior to the final approach fix ensure system is in the _____ mode (as indicated by the blinking ______________CDU annunciation) or discontinue the approach.
A

C. Approach <>

60
Q
  1. If multiple instrument approach patterns are flown in the clean configuration maintain a minimum of _____ KIAS until crossing the initial approach fix or turning base leg if receiving radar vectors.
A

D. VREF +70

61
Q
  1. Unless fuel consumption is a factor hold at _____ for all gross weights up to 170000 pounds. At gross weights above 170000 pounds use _____ as holding speed.
A

A. 220 KIAS best endurance plus 10 knots

62
Q
  1. [Descent] As a minimum the pilot flying the approach will brief the crew on the transition level planned descent rate DH/MDA/VDP missed approach procedures and assign crew responsibilities for backing up the pilot flying the airplane _____.
A

D. If an unplanned go-around occurs

63
Q
  1. When landing with less than full flaps avoid excessive flare with resultant floating in an attempt for a smooth landing. Make a normal flare and touchdown at _____.
A

A. Threshold speed minus 10 knots

64
Q
  1. Application of _____ brakes during landing ground roll may override the _____ antiskid brake system and lock the airplane brakes resulting in possible blown tires or reverted rubber hydroplaning.
A

C. Co-Pilot; Pilot

65
Q
  1. Touchdown with a crab angle and with wings level may result in a rapid rising of the _______wing and may cause the _____ engine nacelles to drag on the runway.
A

D. Upwind Downwind

66
Q
  1. Do not allow the bank angle at touchdown (4 to 6 degrees pitch attitude) to exceed _____ degrees due to possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.
A

C. 8

67
Q
  1. During landing ground roll do not allow airplane to bank beyond _____ degrees due to possibility of dragging an engine nacelle.
A

A. 4

68
Q
  1. Remove crab _____ maintaining a slight wing low attitude into the wind as necessary to counteract drift.
A

B. Prior to touchdown

69
Q
  1. N1 settings pattern approach and reference speeds will be recomputed when: (1) Gross weight changes >/= _____ pounds (2) Temperature changes >/= _____ (5F) (3) Pressure altitude changes >/= _____ feet (4) Airplane configuration changes (5) Changes in wind conditions require an adjustment to the charted speeds
A

C. 10000; 3C; 500 feet

70
Q
  1. [Go-Around] The minimum airspeed for retracting flaps to _____ degrees is flaps 50° VTH speed.
A

C. 30

Skin KC-135R (11 decks)

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