MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the accepted definition of suppurative inflammation in synovial fluid?

A

Nucleated cell count > 2 cells/hpf
Neutrophil counts >10-12%

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2
Q

What are the 3 types of arthritis

A

Degenerate
Immune mediated
Infective

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3
Q

Does a normal joint sample have low or high values of the following:
Total cell count
% of mononuclear cells
% of neutrophils

A

Low total cell count
High % of mononuclear cells
Low % of neutrophils

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4
Q

If you have a joint tap that is highly cellular with 1% monocytes and 99% neutrophils, what diease are you most concerned about

A

Infective arthritis

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5
Q

What is the dominant cytokine in human rheumatoid arthritis

A

TNF alpha

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6
Q

What is the general pathophysiology that occurs in IMPA

A

Antigen forms and causes a normal immune response
Phagocytosis of immune complexes
Persistent antigenic stimulation OR problem in normal down regulation of immune system

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of IMPA

A

Idiopathic

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8
Q

What dog gene has been associated with canine IMPA

A

DLA-DRB1
(DLA = dog leukocyte antigen)

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9
Q

Is it typically for dogs with IMPA to have one or multiple joints affected?

A

Multiple

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10
Q

When making a diagnosis of IMPA, how many joints should be sampled

A

At least 3

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11
Q

What is the main differential for IMPA prior to cytology results?

A

Infective arthritis

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12
Q

What other test could be pursued if you are unable to obtain enough synovial fluid for diagnosis

A

Synovial biopsy

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13
Q

True/False: Canine rheumatoid factor assays are specific for canine RA

A

No, the Rh factors can show up with any chronic inflammatory condition

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14
Q

What is type 1 IMPA

A

Idiopathic

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15
Q

What is type 2 IMPA

A

Infection remote from the joint

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16
Q

What is type 3 IMPA

A

Associated with GI disease

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17
Q

What is type 4 IMPA

A

Paraneoplastic

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18
Q

What types of cancer have been reported in dogs with IMPA TYPE 4

A

Seminoma
Mammary carcinoma
Renal carcinoma
Tonsillar carcinoma
Sertoli cell tumor
Leiomyoma

19
Q

What immune suppressive medication has been well studied in polyarthritis on dogs/cats?

A

Leflunomide

20
Q

What is the reported response rate for IMPA?
Relapse rate?

A

56%
1/3rd

21
Q

What is systemic lupus erythematosus

A

A multisystem immune mediated disorder associated with the appearance of antinuclear antibodies

22
Q

What are “major” signs of SLE?

A

Skin lesions
Polyarthritis
Hemolytic anemia
Glomerulonephrotis
Proteinuria
Polymyositis
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia

23
Q

What are “minor” signs of SLE?

A

Pyrexia w/ CNS signs
Oral ulceration
Lymphadenopathy
Pericarditis
Pleuritis

24
Q

What is a definite diagnosis of SLE based on?

A

2 major signs
Or
ANA > 160, 1 major and 2 minor

25
Q

What breeds have been reported to have specific forms of breed associated IMPA

A

Chinese shar pei
Japanese Akita

26
Q

What is the main difference between IMPA and rheumatoid arthritis on dogs?

A

IMPA is non-erosive; RA is erosive

27
Q

Three causes of bacterial infective arthritis

A

Hematogenous
Penetration
Spread from local tissues

28
Q

Common bacterial causes of septic arthritis

A

Dogs:
Staphylococcus
Strep

Cats:
Pasteurella
Bacteroides

29
Q

What are the two types of post op infective arthritis infections?

A

Type 1 - acute
Type 2 - delayed/chronic (6-24 mo after SX)

30
Q

Most common antibiotics used for infective arthritis

A

Clavamox
Cephalexin
+/- metro

31
Q

What are 3 juvenile ortho diseases

A

HOD
CMO
Panosteitis

32
Q

Describe the radiographic appearance of HOD

A

Radiolucent line parallel to the physis in the long bone metaphysis (severe cases, metaphyseal flare)

33
Q

Describe the radiographic appearance of HO

A

Pallisade periosteal reaction on long bones

34
Q

What is HO associated with

A

Neoplasia (most commonly pulmonary carcinoma)

35
Q

Age range for panosteitis

A

6-12 mo

36
Q

Age range for HOD

A

2-6 mo

37
Q

Radiographic appearance of CMO

A

Unilateral or bilateral symmetric irregular bone proliferation of caudal mandible, ramus, +/- bulla

38
Q

Breed most commonly seen with HOD

A

Weimeriners

39
Q

Type 1 salter harris fracture

A

The epiphysis separates from the rest of the long bone

40
Q

Type 2 salter Harris

A

breaks at an angle, cutting through most of the growth plate and the metaphysis

41
Q

Type 3 saltar harris fracture

A

Segment of epiphysis breaks off

42
Q

Type 4 saltar harris fracture

A

Runs vertically through the growth plate, segment of metaphysis and epiphysis (eg like a corner breaks off, think tibia)

43
Q

Type 5 saltar harris

A

Compression of growth plate