MT1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is defined as the tertiary structure of a protein?
    a. the primary amino acid sequence
    b. structural domains such as a DNA-binding domain
    c. folded structures such as an α helix
    d. structural features such as a turn
    e. disulfide bonds
A

b)

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2
Q

13) Which of the following is an application of immunofluorescence microscopy?
A) Identifying which organelle or cellular compartment contains a particular protein.
B) Construction of three-dimensional images of structures smaller than 10 nm.
C) Identification of specific components of the immune system.
D) Visualization of the surface structures of a specimen.
E) Visualization of the natural fluorescence of a specimen under UV light.

A

e

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3
Q

14) You are working on a project that involves the direct observation of DNA molecules.
The microscope that would give you the best information at this time would be the

A

e

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4
Q

15) ________ improved the original light microscope in the late 1600s, allowing the
visualization of ________.

A

e

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5
Q
16) Which of the following is not an activated monomer?
A) aminoacyl tRNA
B) uracil triphosphate
C) glucose-6-phosphate
D) adenosine triphosphate
E) none of the above
A

e

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6
Q

17) Lipid rafts are
A) regions where greater concentrations of sphingolipids are on the inner side of the
membrane.
B) regions not typically associated with signal transduction.
C) regions of the membrane that are high in sphingolipids, which facilitate
communication with the external environment of the cell.
D) rafts of lipids inside of the cell that serve to store energy.
E) important regions of membrane structure comprised of phospholipids.

A

c

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7
Q
19) Which of the following is a terpene?
A) glycerol
B) testosterone
C) chitin
D) vitamin A
E) estrogen
A

d

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8
Q

22) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Unsaturated fatty acids are usually branched.
B) Fatty acids with 24 carbons are most common.
C) Hormones are unsaturated fatty acids.
D) Fatty acids are synthesized by the stepwise addition of three carbon units.
E) None of the above

A

e

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9
Q
23) Which of the following is not one of the six classes of lipids?
A) steroids
B) fatty acids
C) terpenes
D) triacylglycerols
E) pectins
A

e

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10
Q

25) Cholesterol is a ________, which ________.
A) fatty acid; functions in energy storage
B) steroid; is the basis for many animal and plant hormones
C) steroid; is a component of eukaryotic membranes and the basis for many animal and
plant hormones
D) terpene; is the basis for many animal and plant vitamins
E) steroid; is a component of eukaryotic membranes

A

e

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11
Q

26) A general trend in the structure of many biomolecules is
A) that the order and bonding of monomers form the basis for the secondary and tertiary
structure of the polymer.
B) that four different monomers form the basis for the functional and structural properties
of each polymer.
C) that each class of biomolecule can form either fibrous or globular conformations
depending on the chemical conditions inside the cell.
D) that they are all soluble in water independent of the size of the polymer.
E) that each class of biomolecule forms one type of secondary structure independent of
the order of the monomers in the polymer.

A

a

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12
Q
27) The function of triglycerides is
A) store information.
B) to form semipermeable membranes.
C) to transport substances in and out of cells.
D) to store energy.
E) Both B and C are correct.
A

d

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13
Q

28) Fatty acids are ________; they function in the cell as ________.
A) short chains of double-bonded carbon molecules; vitamins, cofactors, and storage
lipids
B) long, unbranched hydrocarbon chains with a carboxyl group at one end; building
blocks for other lipids
C) four-ringed hydrocarbon molecules; key components of membranes
D) short chains of double-bonded carbon molecules; storage lipids
E) short chains of double-bonded carbon molecules; vitamins and cofactors

A

b

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14
Q
30) Which of the following has the greatest number of O-glycosidic bonds?
A) triacylglycerol
B) 300 bp of DNA
C) vitamin A
D) glucose
E) 300-subunit amylose
A

e

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15
Q

31) Which of the following accurately describes the structure of fibrous proteins?
A) Fibrous proteins are usually composed of either α helices or β sheets throughout the
molecule, giving them a highly ordered, repetitive structure.
B) Fibrous proteins have an extensive tertiary and quaternary structure that affects the
strength and elasticity of each fiber.
C) Fibrous proteins have a simple primary structure and very little secondary structure,
resulting in long, thin fibers.
D) Fibrous proteins usually contain a number of different domains with different
structural motifs.
E) Fibrous proteins are composed of an equal mixture of α helices and β sheets with
interconnecting looped segments.

A

a

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16
Q

33) Proline is referred to as the “helix breaker” because
A) it lacks a charged functional groups for ionic bonding.
B) it lacks the hydrogen atom needed for hydrogen bonding.
C) it is hydrophobic.
D) its only found in the L form, which is incompatible with helical protein structure.
E) it has a polar functional group.

A

b

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17
Q

37) You are researching a cytoplasmic protein associated with a nerve disorder. The
native form of the enzyme appears to be globular protein; however, when a sample of the
purified protein is treated with a chemical that reduces disulfide bonds, the enzymatic
activity decreases dramatically and multiple globular proteins can be detected in the
sample. What does this tell you about the protein?
A) The protein is most likely composed of α helices that are held together by disulfide
bonds.
B) The primary and secondary structure of the protein depends on disulfide bonds.
C) The primary structure of the protein contains multiple cysteine residues that are
hydrolyzed by the chemical reductant.
D) The protein is most likely composed of multiple polypeptide chains that are held
together by disulfide bonds.
E) The protein is most likely composed of β sheets that are held together by disulfide
bonds.

A

d

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18
Q

39) Which of the following statements about self-assembly is false?
A) The noncovalent interactions that drive supramolecular assembly processes are similar
to those that dictate the folding of individual protein molecules.
B) Self-assembly only occurs in structures composed of protein.
C) Molecular chaperones are sometimes required for the proper folding and assembly of
complex proteins.
D) Self-assembly requires specific chemical conditions.
E) All of the above

A

b

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19
Q

40) An enzyme synthesized in the laboratory is found to have little activity when
compared to the enzyme extracted from cell culture. Both enzymes were examined and
have identical amino acid composition. What is the best explanation for the lack of
activity of the synthesized enzyme?
A) The synthetic enzyme was not made of amino acids.
B) The van der Waals radius was altered during laboratory synthesis.
C) The synthesized enzyme was not folded correctly because molecular chaperones were
not present.
D) The ATP required for self-assembly was present in the cell extract but not in the
laboratory synthesis.
E) Denaturation of the synthesized enzyme was not complete.

A

c

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20
Q

42) Experiments by Stanley Miller in the 1950s demonstrated that the first organic
molecules on earth
A) were catalysts composed of simple amino acids.
B) most likely formed in an extraterrestrial environment and were deposited on earth via
asteroids.
C) were catalysts composed of simple amino acids and most likely formed in an
extraterrestrial environment and were deposited on earth via asteroids.
D) were nucleic acids such as RNA and DNA.
E) could have formed abiotically in a reducing atmosphere containing hydrogen,
methane, ammonia, and water vapor.

A

e

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21
Q
43) The size range of most plant and animal cells is
A) 1—10 nm.
B) 1—5 μm.
C) 0.1—0.5 mm.
D) 50—100 mm.
E) 10—50 μm.
A

e

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22
Q
44) If the surface area of a cell increases by a factor of 100, the volume of that cell will
A) increase by a factor of 10.
B) decrease by a factor of 100.
C) increase by a factor of 100.
D) increase by a factor of 1000.
E) remain the same.
A

d

23
Q
59) Bioluminescence can be driven by
A) ATP.
B) green fluorescent protein.
C) mushrooms.
D) either ATP or chemical oxidation.
E) chemical oxidation.
A

d

24
Q
61) The hallmark feature of peroxisomal diseases is the accumulation of
A) very long chain fatty acids.
B) hydrolases.
C) peroxidases.
D) ATP.
E) pigments.
A

a

25
Q

62) Mitochondria are thought to have evolved from ancient bacteria. Which
characteristics of a free-living bacteria have mitochondria lost over time?
A) motility
B) an independent genome
C) phospholipid membranes
D) ribosomes
E) ribosomes, phospholipid membranes, motility, and an independent genome

A

a

26
Q
65) Which of the following fundamental properties of life do viruses not possess?
A) irritability
B) metabolism and irritability
C) irritability and ability to reproduce
D) metabolism
E) ability to reproduce
A

b

27
Q

66) The main role of the central vacuole in plant cells is to
A) digest trapped food particles.
B) synthesize and store proteins.
C) maintain turgor pressure in plant tissue.
D) store glycogen for seed growth.
E) catalyze photorespiration in association with chloroplasts.

A

c

28
Q
68) Glyoxysomes play an important role in the germination of fat-storing seeds and are
considered to be specialized
A) peroxisomes.
B) centrioles.
C) ribosomes.
D) lysosomes.
E) vacuoles.
A

a

29
Q
69) Which of the following organelles has only a single membrane around it?
A) mitochondrion
B) ribosome
C) peroxisome
D) chloroplast
E) nucleus
A

c

30
Q

70) Which of the following is a true statement regarding lysosomes?
A) The contents of the lysosome originate in the smooth ER.
B) The lysosome may function in glycosylation.
C) The lysosome functions in export packaging.
D) The lysosome may mature from a late peroxisome.
E) None of the above.

A

e

31
Q
72) Which of the following organelles is not part of the endomembrane system?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) lysosome
C) secretory vesicle
D) Golgi apparatus
E) ribosome
A

e

32
Q

73) Which sequence reflects the locations that a secretory protein will visit on its way
from its production to its secretion outside the cell?
A) rough ER, ER vesicle, Golgi complex, secretory vesicle
B) rough ER, secretory vesicle, Golgi complex, ER vesicle
C) smooth ER, rough ER, Golgi complex, secretory vesicle
D) rough ER, Golgi complex, smooth ER, ER vesicle
E) nucleus, Golgi complex, rough or smooth ER, secretory vesicle

A

a

33
Q
74) Which of the following processes would be most likely to occur in the Golgi
complex?
A) glycosylation of proteins
B) detoxification of drugs
C) synthesis of steroids
D) production and packaging of lipids
E) synthesis of DNA
A

a

34
Q

75) The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of
A) polysaccharides.
B) lipids.
C) proteins.
D) DNA.
E) lipids, polysaccharides, proteins, and DNA.

A

b

35
Q

76) Some researchers have hypothesized that type II diabetes mellitus is caused by a
mitochondrial defect. Which of the following would be the best way for them to study
mitochondrial differences in fresh tissue samples from diabetic and nondiabetic mice?
A) Mitochondria could be identified and isolated from other cellular components using
immunofluorescence microscopy in both tissues.
B) Mitochondria are the only organelles that survive tissue homogenization, thus both
tissues could be homogenized to study the mitochondria.
C) Mitochondria from both tissues could be isolated from other cellular components by
fractionating tissue homogenate using differential centrifugation followed by density
gradient centrifugation.
D) Mitochondria from both tissues could be isolated from other cellular components by
using proteolytic enzymes to break down other cellular structures.
E) Mitochondria can not be separated from whole cells without damaging them.

A

c

36
Q
79) Which of the following is least likely to be part of a cell membrane?
A) phospholipids
B) peptidoglycans
C) glycoproteins
D) transport proteins
E) enzymes
A

b

37
Q

80) Which of the following would be attributed to a peroxisomal dysfunction?
A) accumulation of complex sugars
B) accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
C) accumulation of glucocerebroside
D) accumulation of N-acetylglucosamine phosphotransferase
E) accumulation of ganglioside GM2

A

b

38
Q
3) In response to temperature changes, cell membranes change state to become more
solid or more fluid by undergoing
A) a phase transition.
B) lipid raft formation.
C) differential scanning calorimetry.
D) membrane folding.
E) transverse diffusion.
A

a

39
Q

4) When a mouse cell and a human cell with different cell-surface protein markers are
fused using polyethylene glycol (PEG) and immediately placed at 0°C, what would you
expect happens to the mouse and human marker proteins?
A) The mouse and human markers will migrate to opposite poles of the fused membrane.
B) Both the mouse and human marker proteins will rapidly disperse evenly throughout
the fused membrane.
C) The mouse and human markers will migrate little and remain confined to their original
membrane regions.
D) Both mouse and human markers will be endocytosed by the fused cell and destroyed
in the fused cell.
E) Only the mouse cell marker proteins will disperse throughout the fused membrane; the
human marker proteins will remain confined to the original human region of the fused
membrane.

A

c

40
Q
5) Of the following molecules, which would you predict diffuses most readily across
membranes?
A) glucose
B) hydrogen ions
C) water 
D) serine
E) oxygen
A

e

41
Q
6) Which of the following molecules enters kidney cells via a specific transporter?
A) cholesterol
B) ethanol
C) oxygen
D) water
E) carbon dioxide gas
A

d

42
Q

7) Predict which of the following lipid characteristics would be most important to form
the best liposomes for delivering a drug into a cell.
A) It is short and polar like glycerol.
B) It has three fatty acid chains like a triglyceride.
C) It is linked to mannose
D) It contains a carbon ring structure similar to that in cholesterol.
E) It is amphipathic.

A

e

43
Q

8) Lipid rafts are associated with which of the following activities?
A) transport of cholera toxin into cells
B) transport of nutrients across cell membranes
C) immune responses
D) responding to extracellular signals
E) All of the above are correct.

A

e

44
Q

9) The most common number of carbons in fatty acid hydrocarbon chains of membrane
phospholipids is
A) 7. B) 10. C) 16. D) 19. E) 24.

A

c

45
Q

10) Which of the following types of protein would be most easily removed from a
membrane by changing pH or ionic strength?
A) GPI-anchored protein
B) fatty acid-anchored protein
C) peripheral protein
D) glycosylated integ

A

c

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about protein folding?
    a. Amino acids cluster in the primary sequence so that all the hydrophobic amino acids are near
    each other to facilitate folding into the hydrophobic core of the tertiary structure.
    b. All known proteins have well-ordered conformations.
    c. Amino acids with hydrophobic, nonpolar side chains stabilize the tertiary structure through
    hydrogen bonding with water molecules surrounding the proteins.
    d. Elements from the secondary structure are maintained in the tertiary structure.
    e. None of the above.
A

d

47
Q
  1. Eggs are protein-rich foods. An uncooked egg can catalyze a reaction that breaks down
    bacterial cell walls. After cooking, this activity is almost abolished. This is likely because:
    a. the enzyme became denatured.
    b. bacteria can grow on cooked eggs.
    c. the cell membranes were liquefied.
    d. cooking sped up chemical reactions.
    e. none of the above
A

a

48
Q
8. The phenomenon in which a chemical absorbs light at one wavelength and emits it at a specific
and longer wavelength is called:
a. differential interference contrast.
b. fluorescence.
c. deconvolution.
d. shadowing.
e. electron microscopy
A

b

49
Q
  1. A small tumor is excised from a patient’s body. The pathologist wants to examine the number,
    size, and arrangement of cells within the tumor. The best technique to use would be:
    a. DIC microscopy.
    b. phase contrast microscopy.
    c. bright-field microscopy after fixation, sectioning, and staining.
    d. fluorescence microscopy.
    e. transmission electron microscopy
A

c

50
Q
11. If a cellular homogenate were subjected to differential centrifugation, which of the following
would be expected to pellet first?
a. the endoplasmic reticulum
b. mitochondria
c. the cytosol
d. nuclei
e. peroxisomes
A

d

51
Q
  1. The disruption of a cell is necessary to release its organelles and contents for subsequent
    isolation. One method, called __________________, uses ultrahigh-frequency sound to disrupt the
    cell plasma membrane.
    a. tomography
    b. epitope tagging
    c. sonication
    d. centrifugation
    e. blending
A

c

52
Q

2) Lactose intolerance refers to the inability to fully digest disaccharide lactose to its
composite monosaccharides

A

GG

glucose + galactose

53
Q

Why are chemical stains required for visualizing cells and tissues with the basic light
microscope? What advantage do fluorescent dyes and fluorescent microscopy provide in comparison to the chemical dyes used to stain specimens for light microscopy? What advantages
do confocal and deconvolution microscopy provide in comparison to conventional fluorescent
microscopy?

A

Stain req cuhs most cellular material does not absorb visible light and thus cells are essentially invisible in a light microscope.

Stains absorb light and thereby generate a visible image usually bind to a certain class of molecules rather than a specific molecule within that class. For example, certain stains may reveal where proteins are in a cell but not where a specific protein is located. This limitation can be overcome by fluorescence microscopy, in which a fluorescent molecule may be either directly or indirectly attached to a molecule of interest which is then viewed by an appropriately equipped microscope. Only light emitted by the sample will form an image, so the location of the fluorescence indicates the location of the molecule of interest. Confocal scanning microscopy and deconvolution microscopy build on the ability of fluorescence microscopy by using either optical (confocal scanning) or computational (deconvolution) techniques to remove out-of-focus fluorescence and thereby produce much sharper images. As a result, these techniques facilitate optical sectioning of thick specimens as opposed to physical sectioning and associated techniques that may alter the specimen.