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O'Sullivan > Musculo > Flashcards

Musculo Flashcards

1
Q

Resistance force lies between the axis and the effort?

A

Second class

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2
Q

Most joints in the body including elbow flexion are what type of lever?

A

Third Class

Axis - effort - resistance

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3
Q

Lower cervical spine capsular pattern

A

Limitation in all motions except flexion

side bending = rotation, extension

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4
Q

Proximal and distal radioulnar capsular pattern

A

Pronation = supination

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5
Q

Wrist capsular pattern

A

Flexion = extension

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6
Q

UE digits capsular pattern

A

Flexion , extension

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7
Q

Thoracic spine capsular pattern

A

Sidebending = rotation, ext, flexion

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8
Q

Hip capsular pattern

A

Flexion=ir, abduction, little or no lim in add and er

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9
Q

Talocrural capsular pattern

A

Pf, df

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10
Q

Midtarsal capsular pattern

A

Supination, pronation

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11
Q

First metatarsophalangeal capsular pattern

A

Extension, flexion

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12
Q

Common muscle substitution for weak shoulder abductor

A

Use scapular stabilizers to initiate shoulder motion when shoulder abd are weak

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13
Q

Anklylosed joint gets what grade on the manual grading of accessory motion? How about normal?unstable?

A

0,3,6

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14
Q

Long thoracic nerve motor innervation?

A

Serratus anterior (c5c6)

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15
Q

Dorsal scapular innervation( 2)

A

Levator scap and rhomboidals

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16
Q

Suprascapular nerve innervation (2)

A

Supraspinatus and infraspinatus

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17
Q

Axillary nerve innervation

A

Deltoid and teres minor

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18
Q

Extensor/supination innervation

A

Radial

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19
Q

Wrist flexion/pronation innervation

A

Median

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20
Q

Which muscles are used to compensate for weak hip extensors

A

Low back extensors, adductor Magnus, and quadratus lumborum

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21
Q

Which muscles are used to compensate for weak hip flexors?(4)

A

Lower abdominals, lower obliques, hip adductors, lats

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22
Q

What ligament has the primary function of reinforcing biceps tendon, superior capsule, and preventing caudal dislocation of humerus ?

A

Coracohumeral lig

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23
Q

Which ligament acts as a retinaculum for long biceps tendon ?

A

Transverse humeral lig

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24
Q

At about ____ degrees of elevation, external rotation occurs to prevent compression of greater tubercle against the acromion

A

75 degrees

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25
Q

Which ligament is responsible for reinforcing inferior elbow joint capsule, maintaining radial head in opposition to ulna, limiting amount of spin in supination and pronation?

A

Quadrate lig

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26
Q

Radiocarpal joint arthrology

A

Convex scaphoid and lunate articulate with concave radius

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27
Q

Proximal row of carpals- lat to med

A

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform bones

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28
Q

Distal row of carpals- lat to med

A

Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

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29
Q

During flexion the PIP, DIP, and MCP rotate which way ?

A

Radially to enhance grip and opposition

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30
Q

During first CMP flexion/extension it is cave on vex or vex on cave

A

Cave on vex

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31
Q

During first CMP abd and adduction it is cave on vex or vex on cave

A

Vex on cave

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32
Q

ACL attachments

A

Anterior intercondylar fossa of tibia - medial surface of lateral femoral condyle

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33
Q

What does ACL check (2)

A

Anterior translation of tib on femur and limits internal rotation of tibia during flexion

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34
Q

PCL attachments

A

Posterior intercondylar fossa— lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle

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35
Q

Which ligament pulls the menisci forward

A

Meniscopatellar lig

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36
Q

What keeps the patella in contact with femur

A

Alar fold

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37
Q

C shaped maniscus

A

Medial

Lateral is smaller and more circular

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38
Q

Medial meniscus is pulled posteriorly with flexion by?

A

Semimembranosus muscle and ACL

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39
Q

Medial meniscus is pulled anteriorly with extension by?

A

Medial meniscopatellar lig

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40
Q

Lateral meniscus is pulled posteriorly with flexion by

A

Popliteus muscle

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41
Q

During knee flexion the ACL becomes taut causing ?

A

The femoral condyles to glide anteriorly, while they roll posteriorly
PCL causes opposite during extension
Pure rolling for the first 15-20 degrees of flexion

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42
Q

Screw home mechanism - open chain vs closed chain

A

Open its the tibia er on femur vs closed chain it’s the femur IR on tibia

Popliteus unlocks it

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43
Q

Tarsometatarsal joint articulations- proximally and distally

A

Proximally- medial are the three cuneiforms, laterally cuboid ( 4th and 5th metatarsal articulates with cuboid)
Distally- bases of the five metatarsals

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44
Q

Deltoid Lig function

A

Prevent Eversion and valgus

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45
Q

Plantar fascia tightens with DF of MTP during push off. What does this cause?

A

Tightening of this fascia causes supination of calcaneus and inversion of subtalar joint, creating a rigid lever for push off

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46
Q

Uncinate joints (joints of Von Luschka) are found what level

A

C3-c7 limit lateral cervical movement (uncinate process-upward projection on the lateral margin of the cervical vertebrae)

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47
Q

What is the articulation for the ribs?

A

Demifacets

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48
Q

Lumbar/thoracic facet joints during R rotation

A

Separation on the right, approximation on the left

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49
Q

Cervical facet joints during R rotation

A

R glides down and back causing causing approximation of the facets on the r

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50
Q

Stiff back in the morning, better within an hour; loss of motion c sharp pain; movement in pain free range usually reduces symptoms; stationary positions inc symptoms

A

Facet joint dysfunction

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51
Q

Forward head posture effect on mandible?

A

Retrusion and elevation

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52
Q

Forward head posture effect on tmj?

A

Posterior closed-packed position

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53
Q

Forward head posture effect on hyoid

A

Elevation

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54
Q

Forward head posture effect on first and second ribs

A

Elevated

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55
Q

Ankle PF df rom norms

A

50/20

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56
Q

Hip er/ir rom norms

A

40-60/30-40

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57
Q

MRI T1 is best used to assess?

A

Bony anatomy

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58
Q

T2 MRI is used to assess ?

A

Soft tissue structures (high water content)

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59
Q

Neer’s impingement test procedure

A

Pt sitting, shoulder is passively internally rotated, then fully abducted

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60
Q

Which special test identifies an impingement btw rotator cuff and greater tuberosity or posterior glenoid and labrum

A

Posterior internal impingement test

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61
Q

Posterior internal impingement test procedure

A

Pt supine, move shoulder into 90 abduction, max er, and 15-20 horizon add

Post test reproduces pain in post shoulder

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62
Q

Pt supine, with shoulder fully abducted. PT then tries to provide an anteriorly directed force on the humerus while externally rotating it

A

Clunk test- pos if audible clunk

Labrum tear

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63
Q

Procedure for ac shear test

A

Sitting c arm by side
One hand on spine of scap, other hand on clavicle
Squeeze hands together creating a compression at ac joint

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64
Q

Pt sitting, PT find radial pulse, head rotated ipsilaterally, passively shoulder extend and externally rotate while extension of head, assess for dismissed or absent pulse

A

Adson’s test

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65
Q

Pt sitting, move tested shoulder into retraction and depression, assess impact on radial pulse

A

Costoclavicular syndrome (military brace)

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66
Q

Pt sitting, move tested arm into max abd and er, rotate head contra-laterally, assess effect on radial pulse

A

Wright ( hyperabduction) test

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67
Q

Pt standing, shoulder abducted and elbows flexed to 90, shoulder max er, pt opens/closes hands for 3 minutes slowly, assess neurovascular response

A

Roos elevated arm test

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68
Q

Shoulder depression, 110 degrees of abd, elbow extension, forearm supination, wrist and finger extension, contralateral cervical side flexion

A

Median and anterior interosseous nerve bias

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69
Q

Shoulder depression, 10 degrees of abd, elbow extension, forearm supination, wrist and finger extension, shoulder er, contralateral cervical side flexion

A

Median nerve, axiallary, and musculocutaneous nerve bias

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70
Q

Shoulder depression, 10 degrees of abd, elbow extension, forearm pronation, wrist flexion and ulnar deviation, finger and thumb flexion, shoulder ir, contralateral cervical side flexion

A

Radial nerve bias

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71
Q

Shoulder depression, 10-90 degrees of abd(hand to ear waiter’s position), elbow flexion, forearm supination, wrist extension and radial deviation, finger and thumb extension, shoulder er, contralateral cervical side flexion

A

Ulnar nerve bias

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72
Q

Phalen’s test for carpal tunnel compression of median nerve. Does the pt FLEX or EXTEND both wrists against each other for one minute?

A

Flex

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73
Q

Normal distance amount that can be discriminated in the hand?

A

6 mm

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74
Q

Pt instructed to make fist several times, then occlude ulnar artery , then release, observe vascular filling following compression, repeat for radial artery

A

Allen’s test

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75
Q

Pt prone, palpate greater trochanter, move hip IR and ER, stop and measure the angle when the greater trochanter feels most lateral.

A

Craig’s test

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76
Q

Craig’s test findings- normal and abnormal

A

Normal antetorsion angle is 8-15 degrees

Less then 8 indicates a retroverted hip, and greater than 15 indicates an anteverted hip

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77
Q

Pivot shift test procedure

A

Supine, start with hip ir, flexed and abd, knee ext and valgus force, start to flex the knee

Tibia subluxes and then reduced by pull of ITB

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78
Q

Supine with knee and hip in full flexion, extend the leg and provide a IR force on the knee. This test the integrity of which meniscus?

A

Lateral

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79
Q

What does the reverse lachmans test test?

A

PCL

Prone and 30 degrees knee flexion

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80
Q

Which test helps differentiate between ligamentous or menisci injury of the knee?

A

Apleys

If pain with compression then it’s meniscus, of pain with distraction then it’s ligamentous

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81
Q

Test which indicates past history of patellar dislocation. Pt supine , PT provides a laterally directed force on the patella, pt doesn’t let or painful and worried about sublux

A

Patellar apprehension test

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82
Q

Test which indicates patellofemoral dysfunction. Pt in supine, asked to actively contract quads while PT push posterior on superior pole of patella.

A

Clarke’s sign

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83
Q

Pt supine, knee ext, tap on patella centrally, if patella appears to be gloating what test is positive?

A

Ballotable patella (patellar tap test)

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84
Q

Positive Fluctuation test indicates?

A

Knee joint effusion.. Kinda like the brush test

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85
Q

Measurement between the quad muscle and the patellar tendon

A

Q angle measurement

Normal for men is 13; women 18
If smaller or greater than normal may be indicative of knee dysfunction

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86
Q

Where to tap for tinels test in the knee

A

Posterior to fib head where common fib nerve passes

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87
Q

Pt supine with 20 degrees of PF, and just off edge of table

A

Anterior drawer test

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88
Q

With the talar tilt test- when going into adduction you stress what lig? Abd?

A

Adduction- calcaneofibular

Abduction- deltoid

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89
Q

Test which identifies stress fracture or neuroma in the forefoot

A

Mortons test- grasp and squeeze around the met heads

90
Q

Hautant’s test differentiates between what?,

A

Vascular vs vestib causes for dizziness and vertigo- shoulders at 90 degrees and palms up

91
Q

Transverse lig stress test

A

Supine, stab head, anterior force on c1, test the integrity of transverse lig

92
Q

What test identifies compression of neural structures at intervertebral fore amen and or facet dysfunction

A

Max cervical compression test- close down the facets as much as possible

93
Q

Pt in long sitting, passively flex one hip with knee straight and head

A

Lhermitte’s sign- identifies dysfunction of the spinal cord or UMNL

94
Q

Progress of slump test

A

First sit slumped—- passively flex head— passively ext knee—passively df foot

95
Q

SLR in supine until shooting pain is felt down the leg, slowly lower leg until pain subsides, the passively DF foot

A

Lasegue’s test-‘poss if reproduction of neuro symptoms with DF

96
Q

Pt SL on no painful side, head flexed slightly, top knee starts in ext, start to ext top hip, flex knee

A

Femoral nerve traction test- positive if neurological pain in anterior thigh

97
Q

Stork standing test identifies what

A

Spondylolisthesis

98
Q

Test which Differentiates between scoliosis curvature vs neurological dysfunction chasing abnormal curvature of trunk

A

Mckenzie side glide test- pos if neuro pain after alignment corrected

99
Q

Assess movement of PSIS in relationship to sacrum, ask pt to flex hip in standing, POS if no movement of PSIS as compared to sacrum

A

Gillet’s test

100
Q

Supine to long sitting test

A

Psl- posterior if shorter in the supine then longer in long sitting
Als

101
Q

What test differentiate between dysfunction in lumbar spine versus sacroiliac joint

A

Goldthwait’s test- patient supine with your fingers in between spinous processes of lumbar spine. With your other hand possibly perform straight leg raise. Pain present prior to palpation of movement in the lumbar segments, dysfunction is related to sij

102
Q

Which phase of stance are the glut max and hamstrings most active eccentrically to resist flexion moment?

A

Heel strike

103
Q

Which phase of stance are the glut max and hamstrings most active concentrically to bring the hip into ext?

A

Foot flat

104
Q

Which phase of stance there becomes an extension moment at the hip and iliopsoas activity?

A

Midstance

105
Q

Which phase of stance the extension moment decreases and there is movement towards 10 degrees or extension, while the adductor Magnus stabilizes pelvis eccentrically?

A

Toe off

106
Q

Which phase of stance are quads most active eccentrically to resist flexion moment and knee buckling?

A

Heel strike

107
Q

Which phase of stance are quads most active concentrically to bring femur over tibia?

A

Foot flat

108
Q

Which phase of stance the gastrac starts to act concentrically to begin knee flexion?

A

Midstance

109
Q

Which phase of stance are quads most active eccentrically, while the knee is moving from near full extension to 40° of flexion?

A

Toe off

110
Q

During this phase the food is in a Supinated rigid position

A

Heel strike - eccentric DF

111
Q

During this phase pronation of foot in order to adapt to surface

A

Flat foot

112
Q

During this phase ankle moves from plantar flexion to DF, while the PF muscle group controls DF eccentrically

A

Foot flat

113
Q

During this phase the foot is in neutral and ankle is in 3 degrees of DF, so there’s a slight DF moment which is controlled by eccentric contraction of PF.

A

Midstance

114
Q

Foot becomes Supinated and rigid again and the ankle is in 15 degrees of DF

A

Heel off

115
Q

During this phase the PF muscles begin to contract concentrically

A

Heel off

116
Q

During is phase the foot is still Supinated but the ankle becomes 20 degrees PF and PF muscles peak in activity

A

Toe-off

117
Q

During missing to deceleration the ankle and foot position?

A

Ankle in neutral; foot in slight supination

DF contracting isometrically

118
Q

A genetic condition of purine metabolism, characterized by elevated serum uric acid (hyperuricemia).

A

Gout- uric acid changes into crystals and deposits into peripheral joints and other tissues

119
Q

Gout is most frequently observed at

A

the knee and great toe

120
Q

Chronic inflammatory disorder of unknown etiology, associated with psoriasis. Erosive degeneration of digits and axial skeleton

A

Psoriatic arthritis

121
Q

Excessive bone formation on dorsal aspect of PIP joints

A

Bouchard’s nodes

Common with RA

122
Q

Increased WBC and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually a positive test finding for?

A

RA

123
Q

CT scan is diagnostic for spinal stenosis- T or F

A

T

Plain films are diagnostic of ankylosing spondylitis

124
Q

How does senile OP differ from primary aka postmenopausal OP

A

Senile OP occurs due to a decrease in bone cell activity secondary to genetic or acquired abnormalities .. Primary is from decrease of estrogen

125
Q

Condition characterized by decalcification of bones due to vitamin D deficiency

A

Osteomalacia - symptoms include severe pain, fractures, weakness, and deformities

126
Q

Congenital deformity of skeleton and soft tissues, characterized by limitation in joint motion and sausage like appearance of limbs

A

Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

127
Q

Inherited disorder transmitted by an autosomal dominant gene. Characterized by abnormal collagen synthesis, leading to an imbalance between bone the deposition and reabsorption

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

128
Q

A separation of articular Cartilage from underlying bone also known as osteochondral fracture

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

129
Q

Painful condition of abnormal falsification within a muscle belly, usually precipitated by direct trauma that results in hematoma and calcification of the muscle. Can also be induced by early mobilization and aggressive PT.

A

Myositis ossificans

130
Q

A condition with unknown etiology but though to be related to trauma. Results in dysfunction of sympathetic nervous system to include pain, circulation, and vasomotor disturbances.

A

Complex regional pain syndrome (crps)
Type I - no underlying nerve injury
Type II- clear associated nerve injury

131
Q

Metabolic bone disease involving abnormal osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity. Thought to be linked to a type of viral infection along with environmental factors

A

Paget’s disease

Results in spinal stenosis, facet arthropathy, and possible spinal fracture

132
Q

Lab test for Paget’s disease look for increased levels of ?

A

Serum alkaline phosphate and urinary hydroxyproline

133
Q

Scoliosis which is reversible lateral curve without rotation

A

Nonstructural scoliosis

134
Q

Name scoliosis to the convex side at the point of the apex

A

T

135
Q

Anterior-inferior dislocation accounts for 95% of all dislocations. It occurs when abducted upper extremity is forcefully er causing tearing of the …

A

inferior glenohumeral lig, anterior joint capsule, and occasionally glenoid labrum

136
Q

A tear of the rim above the middle of the glenoid socket that may also involve the biceps tendon

A

SLAP lesion

137
Q

A tear of the rim below the middle of the glenoid socket

A

Bankart’s lesion

Requires surgery- sling for 3-4 weeks; full fitness might return in 3-4 months

138
Q

What is the MOI for AC and sternoclavicular joint disorders?

A

Fall onto shoulder c upper extremity addicted, or collision during contact sport– avoid shoulder elevation in acute phase of healing

139
Q

Characterized by an irritation between the rotator cuff and greater tuberosity or posterior glenoid and labor. Often seen in athletes performing overhead activities

A

Internal (posterior) impingement

140
Q

Complications of distal numeral fractures

A

Loss of motion myositis ossificans, malalignment, neurovascular compromise, Lig injury, and CRPS.

141
Q

Caused by repetitive compressive forces between Radial head and humeral capitulum. Occurs in adolescents between 12 and 15 years of age. An osteochondral bone fragment becomes detached from articular surface, forming a loose body in the joint

A

Osteochondrosis of humeral capitellum

142
Q

PT Treatment of ulnar collateral Lig

A

Initial interventions include rest and pain management. After resolution of pain in formation, strengthening exercises that focus on elbow flexors are initiated. Taping can also be used for protection during return to activities.

143
Q

Muscles involved in median nerve entrapment

A

Nerve within Pronator teres and under flexed superficial head of flexor digitorum superficialis

144
Q

Radial nerve entrapment involves what branch of the radial nerve and where does it occur

A

Posterior interosseous nerve within the radial tunnel… Occurs as a result of overhead activities

145
Q

What are the most common elbow dislocations?

A

Posteroleteral- occur from as a result of elbow hyper extension from a fall on the outstretched UE. Frequently cause of Avulsion fracture of the medial epicondyles secondary to traction pull of medial collateral lig

146
Q

With a complete elbow dislocation. Which Lig will def rupture?

A

UCL

Watch for posterior displacement of olecranon

147
Q

Inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons in the first dorsal compartments

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis- results for repetitive microtrauma or as a complication of swelling during pregnancy

148
Q

Distal radius fracture resulting from a fall on an outstretched hand and is characterized by posterior and radial displacement of the wrist and hand

A

Colles’ fracture

149
Q

Common complication of colles’ fracture

A

Median nerve compression via carpal tunnel

150
Q

Distal radius fracture c volatile displacement of wrist and hand

A

Smiths fracture

151
Q

Scaphoid fractures are immobilized for how long?

A

4-8 wks

152
Q

Common complication of scaphoid fracture?

A

Avascular necrosis of proximal fracture of scaphoid

153
Q

Mcp and pip flexion contracture due to palmar fascia adhering to skin

A

Dupuytren’s contracture

154
Q

Results from rupture of central tendinous slip of extensor hood

A

Boutonnière deformity- mcp and dip ext; pip flexion

155
Q

Results from dorsal subluxation of lateral extensor tendons

A

Swan neck deformity

156
Q

Hand formation involving atrophy of thenar eminence, to the point that the first digit is in line with the second digit. Result of median nerve dysfunction

A

Ape hand deformity

157
Q

Rupture or Avulsion of the extensor tendon at its insertion into distal phalanx of digit.

A

Mallet finger

158
Q

Gamekeepers thumb / skiers thumb is an injury to what?

A

Sprain/ rupture of UCL of the thumb- immobilize for 6 weeks

159
Q

Fracture of the fifth metacarpal neck- casted for 2-4 wks

A

Boxers fracture

160
Q

Hip ROM deficits with a vascular necrosis

A

Dec flexion, ir, and abd

161
Q

What drug are contraindicated for avascular necrosis since they may be the causative factor

A

Corticosteroid

162
Q

Most common hip disorder observed in adolescents, and is of unknown etiology. Pt limited motion c abd, flexion, ir . Pt describes pain as vague at knee, thigh, and hip.

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

163
Q

Coxa vara- less than _____ degrees of angle of femoral neck

A

115

164
Q

Coxa valga - greater than _____ degrees of angle of femoral neck

A

125 degrees

165
Q

With piriformis syndrome- what will be weak motion? Restricted motion?

A

Er of hip weak

Ir restriction due to tightness

166
Q

What combination of motions cause an unhappy triad injury?

A

Valgum, flexion, and er

167
Q

Malalignment in which patella tracks superiorly in femoral intercondylar notch

A

Patella alta

168
Q

Malalignment patella tracks inferiorly in femoral intercondylar notch?

A

Patella baja - results in restricted knee ext with abnormal cartilaginous wearing, resulting in DJD

169
Q

Quad set, single leg raise flexion, and isolated quad exercises should not be used for what knee condition?

A

PFPS

170
Q

A common mechanism of injury for this fracture is a combination of Valgum and compression forces to knee when in a flexed position

A

Tibial plateau

Often occurs in conjunction with mcl injury

171
Q

Moi for this fracture is frequently a weight bearing torsional stress

A

Epiphyseal plate

172
Q

Muscles involved in anterior tibial Periostitis a.k.a. shinsplints

A

Muscular tenderness over used condition of anterior tibialisis and extensor hallucis longus

173
Q

Overuse injury of the posterior TIbialis and/or the medial Soleus, resulting in Periosteal information at the muscular attachments. Etiology is thought to be excessive pronation.

A

Medial tibial stress syndrome

174
Q

Type III and four fractures according to the Salter-Harris classification are the most of concern because they have a high complication rate true false

A

True

175
Q

Excessive pronation, overuse problems resulting in tendinitis of the long flexor and posterior tibialis tendon and results in compromised space in tunnel . What is this called?

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

176
Q

What results in genetic predisposition, neurological disorders resulting in muscle imbalances, and contracture soft tissues of the foot

A

Pes cavus

177
Q

What condition results in Function is limited due to altered or through kinematics, reducing ability to absorb forces through the foot

A

Pes cavus

178
Q

Etiologies of this condition include genetic predisposition, muscle weakness, ligamentous laxity, paralysis, excessive pronation, or rheumatoid arthritis

A

Pes planus- dec ability of foot to provide a rigid level for pushoff

179
Q

What is the deformity observed with equinus foot

A

Plantar flexed foot

Compensation secondary to limited df includes subtalar or mid tarsal pronation

180
Q

Etiology can include biomechanical malalignment, excessive pronation, ligamentous laxity, hereditary, weak muscles, and footwear that is too tight

A

Hallucis valgus

181
Q

Compromise in the transverse arch of the foot

A

Metatarsalgia

182
Q

Patient complains of pain at first and second metatarsal heads after a long periods of weight bearing

A

Metatarsalgia - due to tight tricep surae group nd compromise of transverse arch

183
Q

Medial subluxation of tarsometatarsal joints

A

Rigid metatarsus adductus

184
Q

Peroneal muscle atrophy that affects motor and sensory nerves. Initially affects le eventually progresses to UE hands and forearm

A

Charcot Marie tooth disease- high arch, claw toes

185
Q

5 Etiologies of plantar fascia

A

Chronic irritation of plantar fascia from excessive pronation
Limited rom of first MTP and talocrural joint
Tight triceps surae
Acute injury from excessive loading of foot
Rigid cavus foot

186
Q

For plantar fasciitis what do you need to strengthen

A

Inverters of foot to dec pronation

187
Q

Which radiographic view of spine is best to pick up a spondylolysis

A

Oblique

188
Q

Grade 1 spondylolisthesis

A

25% slippage
Grade 4- 100 % slippage
Lateral radiographic view best to view slippage

189
Q

What should exercises focus on for a spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis

A

Dynamic stabilization of trunk, with a particular emphasis on abdominals. Avoid extension and other positions which will stress the defect ie ext, ipsilateral sb, contralateral rotation

190
Q

Positional gapping for a left posterolateral lumbar herniation

A

Ten mins
SL right c pillow under hip
Flex both hips and knees
Rotate trunk left

191
Q

What is caused by abnormal movement of fibroadipose meniscoid in facet during ext. meniscoid does not properly re enter joint cavity and bunches up, becoming a space occupying lesion.

A

Facet entrapment

192
Q

What position is most comfortable for a pt c facet entrapment

A

Flexion

Extension is most painful

Positional facet joint gapping and or manip are appropriate treatments

193
Q

Flexor tendon repairs immobilized 3-4 weeks, distal extremity is immobilized with a protective splint, with wrist and digits _______.

A

flexed

194
Q

Distal extensor tendon repairs are immobilized for 6-8 weeks with dip joints in ____

A

Neutral

195
Q

Proximal extensor tendon repairs are immobilized for 4 weeks with wrist and digital joints in ____

A

Extension

196
Q

Acl reconstruction is usually protected with a hinge brace set to?

A

20-70 degrees of flexion initially

197
Q

With acl reconstruction pt is NWB for how long

A

One week usually

198
Q

PCL reconstruction hinge brace initially at ____ degrees during ambulation

A

0

199
Q

Interventions for lateral retina ulnar release should emphasize CKC or OKC?

A

Closed kinetic chain

200
Q

With Harrington rod placement for idiopathic scoliosis, rehab goals focus on what two things early on

A

Mobilization in bed and effective coughing

201
Q

With Harrington rod placement for idiopathic scoliosis, the patient can begin ambulation between the ?

A

4th and 7th postoperative days

202
Q

Passive first MTP ext c the foot in DF

A

Windlass test for plantar fasciitis

203
Q

What type of tape job should be done for a pt with plantar fasciitis?

A

Antipronation

204
Q

If pt with plantar fasciitis responded well to the tape job, what kind of orthotic should they be fitted for

A

Prefab or custom- to support medial longitudinal arch and cushion the heel

205
Q

For a pt who consistently has pain with the first step coming out of bed, what should be prescribed?

A

Night splints

206
Q

Two risk factors for adhesive capsulitis

A

DM and thyroid disease
40-65 y.o.
Previous contralateral adhesive cap

207
Q

Best intervention for adhesive cap

A

Intra-articular corticosteroid injections combined with shoulder mobility and stretching exercises are more effective in providing short term (4-6 wk) pain relief and improved function compared to shoulder mobility and stretching exercises alone

208
Q

For pts c ADhesive cap, the intensity of stretching exercises

A

Should be determined by pt’s tissue irritability level

209
Q

ABCs for radiography

A

Alignment
Bone density
Cartilage spaces

210
Q

Functional MRIs are used to detect what

A

Metabolic changes in the brain

211
Q

Able to measure bone density (predict fractures) and identify tumors

A

CT scan- MRI I may not be able to distinguish between edema and and cancer tissue

212
Q

Bone scan image with black plaque

A

Inc area of uptake equal to abnormal metabolic bone activity

213
Q

Gold standard for measuring bone mineral density

A

Dexa- dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
Bone density scan
Bone densitometry

214
Q

T1 and T2 MRI - air color

A

Black

215
Q

T1 MRI fat color

A

White

216
Q

T2 MRI fat color

A

Gray

217
Q

T1 and T2 MRI bone cortex color

A

Black

218
Q

Bone marrow color on T1 MRI

A

White

219
Q

Bone marrow color on T2 MRI

A

Gray

220
Q

Structures that have more collagen create a whiter image because they reflect the US better than objects that lacks collagen.

A

True

221
Q

Some lovers try positions that they can’t handle

A

Lat to m- Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform

Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, hamate

222
Q

Triceps is what type of lever

A

First class

Effort - axis - resistance

O'Sullivan (1 decks)

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