Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y3 Musculoskeletal pathology > Musculoskeletal - Joints > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal - Joints Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of a joint?

A

“A joint is the area where two bones are attached for the purpose of motion”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 joint types?

A
  • Syndesmosis
  • Symphyses
  • Diarthrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe a syndesmosis joint and where they are found

A
  • Fibrous tissue bone connection e.g. intervertebral joints, cervical vertebral hoof
  • Fibrous bone to bone connection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe a symphyses joint and where they are found

A

Fibrocartilagineous disks e.g. intervertebral discs, vertebral column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the structure of intervertebral discs

A
  • Nucleus pulposus: shock absorber function (normally a rubbery texture)
  • Annular peripheral fibrous tissue formation (annulus fibrosus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe diarthrosis joints

A

Most common

Cartilage cup between two long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where in the joint is the area of endochondral ossification?

A

Articular epiphyseal complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the Articular epiphyseal complex

A
  • Organised chondrocytes
  • Spongiosa where mineralisation occurs
  • Spicules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

There is a capsule around the joint and between the two bone faces there is …?

A

Fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which cells are responsible for producing the fluid between bone faces?

A

Synoviocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the 3types of synoviocytes?

A

Type A: Macrophage-like -> Removal of material
Type B: Fibroblast-like -> Production of synovial fluid
Type C: Intermediate morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the appearance and features of synovial fluid

A
  • Viscous, clear.
  • Lubricin + Surface active
  • Phospholypid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why can cartilage not be repaired?

A
  • It is avascular so there are no blood vessels nourishing it
  • In any type of tissue repair you need inflammation and blood so cartilage cannot be repaired, it may be replaced by something else but wont repair itself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does nourishment of cartilage come from?

A

Synovial epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does that joint capsule appear in younger and older animals?

A
  • Young = white-blueish

* Old = white-yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the features and components of he inner layer of the joint capsule/synovium

A

Synovial membrane

  • Villous
  • Vascularized
  • Innervated
  • Synoviocytes type A
  • Synoviocytes type B
  • Synovial fossae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What composes the outer layer of the joint capsule?

A

Fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are 2 responses of joints to mechanical forces?

A
  • Compression

- Distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe compression of joints in response to mechanical forces

A
  • Compression is applied from one side of the bone into the other, through the cartilage
  • Cartilage is rich in water and contains chondrocytes, collagen type II and aggrecans (power of keeping/attracting water)
  • The pressure of two sides of a joint coming together squeezes the water out to recirculate and it creates hydrostatic pressure which sustains the whole joint structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe distention of joints in response to mechanical forces

A

When there is extension, the water gets sucked inside the cartilage, bringing the nourishment back into the joint, over the chondrocytes to be nourished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe cartilage homeostasis in a joint

A
  • Delicate balance
  • In addition to aggregates there are MMPs that live inside the cartilage and normally destroy the aggregates and collagen if they are left alone. They don’t do this due to the chondrocytes which produce tissue inhibitors
  • Inflammation increases the activity of MMPs which can lead to the degradation of cartilage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some age related changes within joints?

A
  • Change of proteoglycan structures -> Decrease of Aggrecans
  • ↓ H2O binding capacity of cartilage
  • ↓ Elasticity / nutrition / oxygen perfusion
  • ↑ Cartilaginous alterations
  • Erosion mostly in friction sites e.g. hyaline cartilage, vertebral discs, meniscus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the cartilage react to injury?

A
  • Normally: there is a level of organisation of the chondrocytes and the surface is intact
  • When this system is failing there is fibrillation of the surface (crack-like appearance) – degenerative process
  • As a response to these cracks the chondrocytes join together and form a chondrone
  • There is not really a ‘response to injury’ in cartilage – it just dies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is eburnation?

A

When the cartilage has completely gone – bone against bone is the ‘functioning’ joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does the synovium react to injury?

A
  • Response is typically the same whether its injury, inflammation, haemorrhage, etc
  • Fibrosis occurs in chronic changes
  • Villous hyperplasia: unlike the normal smooth appearance
  • Pannus formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is pannus formation?

A

When the structure of the capsule grows over the articular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the term ‘degenerative joint disease’ mean?

A

This is not a single disease it is the outcome of many things that can go wrong, leading to the processes of fibrillation, eburnation and complete restructuring of the joint
Multifactorial aetiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which animals are mostly affected by degenerative joint disease

A
  • +++Old animals
  • Dog (>6years)
  • Horse (exercise)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where are 3 common sites of degenerative joint disease in dogs?

A

Hip
Shoulder
Stifle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where are 3 common sites of degenerative joint disease in horses?

A

Interphalangeal
Metacarpophalangeal
Hock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How does degenerative joint disease appear grossly?

A

Roughening, yellowing and fibrillation of the cartilage.
More severe cases there may be cartilage ulceration and eburnation of the underlying bone.
Osteophytes and joint mices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How does degenerative joint disease appear histologically?

A

Loss of metachromatic staining in the superficial cartilage, formation of chondrones, reduced thickness of cartilage, synovial villous hypertrophy, mononuclear inflammation and fragments of degenerate/necrotic cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are osteophytes?

A

Projections of the bone, covered in cartilage that detach from the joint subject to abnormal movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are joint mice?

A

A loose piece of cartilage, or. of bone and cartilage, in a joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is distortion of joints?

A

= short time dislocation of corresponding joint areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What conditions are associated with distortion of joints?

A

Ruptures of capsule

Ligament haemorrhages

37
Q

What is luxation?

A

Persistent dislocation

38
Q

What is sub-luxation?

A

Partially / temporary dislocations

39
Q

What can occur secondary to luxation/subluxation?

A

Atrophy of dislocated parts

40
Q

What is anklyosis?

A

Loss of movability

41
Q

What is the cause of ankylosis?

A

Articular deformations

Inflammation

42
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of osteochondrosis

A
  • When the bone structure is developing there is some early vascularisation of cartilage but there is none present in an adult due to regressing following an apoptotic process
  • In osteochondrosis some of these vessels may undergo necrosis rather than apoptosis, meaning there is an inflammatory process and often the immune system will try to get rid of the necrotic material leaving behind a hole in the cartilage
  • When this cavity is big enough and is facing an area where strength is applied, it may collapse. If this happens it cannot be healed so there is detachment leading to a chronic arthritis
43
Q

What are the aetiological causes of osteochondrosis?

A

Rapid growth, over nutrition, mineral imbalances (low copper or high molybdenum / high calcium), trauma, genetic

44
Q

Which spp/areas are affected by osteochondrosis?

A
  • Swine: young fast growing: femur, vertebrae, ulna
  • Dog: fast growing males, elbow dysplasia (hum/rad/ulna)
  • Horses: femur, tarsus, metacarpophalangeal joint
45
Q

How does osteochondrosis appear grossly?

A

White foci which progress to cartilage ulceration

46
Q

How does osteochondrosis appear histologically?

A

Micro cysts with necrotic material, Retention of cartilage cores -> hypertrophic chondrocytes

47
Q

What is the aetiological cause of hip dysplasia?

A

Genetic defect

48
Q

Which spp/breed are affected by hip dysplasia?

A

Dog, large / giant breeds (German Shepherd)

49
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of hip dysplasia

A

Lack of conformity between the femoral head and acetabulum leading to subluxation and degenerative joint disease

50
Q

How does hip dysplasia appear grossly?

A
  • Shallow acetabulum
  • Subluxated femoral heads
  • Roughened to eroded cartilage
  • Eburnation and sclerosis of subchondral bone
51
Q

Which spp/breed are affected by congenital patellar luxation?

A

Dog (Toy breeds or Giant), Horses

52
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of congenital patellar luxation

A

Anatomical defects of the joint, hypoplasia of the ridge of the femoral trochlear

53
Q

Describe the gross appearance of congenital patellar luxation

A

Luxation or subluxation of patella
Medial: Toy breeds
Lateral: Giant dog breeds, Horse

54
Q

What are the two causes of intervertebral disk disease?

A

Congenital

Age

55
Q

Which dog breeds are predisposed to intervertebral disk disease?

A

Dachshund, Basset, Pekinese

56
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of intervertebral disk disease

A

Degeneration of nucleus polposus -> rupture of annulus fibrosus -> herniation of nucleus polposus

57
Q

Describe the gross appearance of intervertebral disk disease, including differentiation of the two types of disease

A
  • Ventral or Dorsal herniation.
  • 2 types of Dorsal herniation: Massive extrusion of degenerate nuclear material (Type I: predisposed breeds), or partial herniation resulting in bulging of the outer lamellae and intact dorsal ligament (Type II: non predisposed breeds). Mainly T12-L2
58
Q

Describe the histological appearance of intervertebral disk disease

A

Condroid metaplasia of nucleus polposus, or mineralization. Loses the ‘jelly like’ structure and becomes more cartilaginous

59
Q

What are some conditions associated with intervertebral disk disease

A

Paresis (if dorsal)
Spondylosis (if ventral)
Haemorrhage and inflammation with Type I
Fibrocartilaginous embolism with Type II

60
Q

Which condition occurs secondary to degeneration of the ventral annulus fibrosus?

A

Spondylosis

61
Q

Which spp/breed/age is associated with spondylosis?

A

Bulls, pigs, dogs (>5 years)

62
Q

Describe the gross appearance of spondylosis

A

Formation of osteophytes at the ventral and lateral margins of the vertebral bodies adjacent to intervertebral spaces

63
Q

What is the name of the condition denoted as ‘wobbler syndrome’

A

Cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy

64
Q

What is the cause of cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy?

A

Malformation (horse: osteochondrosis of articular facets of vertebrae)

65
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy

A
  • Cervical vertebral instability: the spinal cord is only damaged when the neck is extended or flexed.
  • Cervical static stenosis: compression/extension occurs regardless of the position of the neck due to thickening of ligaments
66
Q

How does cervical vertebral stenotic myelopathy appear grossly, what are the signs seen?

A 
Compression of the spinal cord
Neurologic disorders (ataxia) due to compression of spinal cord
67
Q

What are some causes of bacterial arthritis

A

Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, E.coli, Actinobacillus equuli, Erysipelotrhrix

68
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bacterial arthritis in young and adult animals

A

In young animals due to septicaemia (polyarthritis) in adult mainly due to penetrating wounds (monoarthritis)

69
Q

Describe the gross appearance of bacterial arthritis

A

Purulent, fibrino-purulent arthritis, +/- periarthritis +/-haemorrhage
*** Erysipelotrhrix: predominantly serofibrinous

70
Q

Describe the histological appearance of bacterial arthritis

A

Degenerated neutrophils associated with bacteria, haemorrhages, necrosis; chronic lymphocytes and plasma cells + Villous hyperplasia

71
Q

Which animals are affected by mycoplasma arthritis?

A

Young animals

- goat, sheep, cattle, pig

72
Q

How does mycoplasma arthritis appear grossly?

A

Serofibrinous arthritis, villous hyperplasia

73
Q

How does mycoplasma arthritis appear histologically?

A

Sero-fibrinous reaction with predominantly mononuclear inflammation – villous hyperplasia, perivascular inflammation and synovial lymphoid follicle formation +/- pannus. Neutrophils are not degenerated when present.

74
Q

What are the causes of viral arthritis in sheep and goats?

A

Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus CAEV (Goat)

Maedi Visna Virus (Sheep)

75
Q

What are the gross and histological features of viral arthritis?

A

G: villous hypertrophy chronic, non-suppurative arthritis
H: villous hypertrophy, mononuclear inflammation

76
Q

Which conditions are associated with viral arthritis?

A

Pneumonia, mastitis, encephalomyelitis (young)

77
Q

Which form of arthritis is autoimmune?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

78
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Local activation of complement cascade in response to immune complexes

79
Q

Describe the gross appearance of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Polyarthritis, generalised. Particularly involves tarsal, carpal and phalangeal joints. Oedema, instability, pannus formation and thickened brown joint capsule

80
Q

Describe the histological appearance of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of synovial villi, lymphoplasmacytic inflammation, haemosiderophages and pannus.
Often resembles infectious arthritis – neutrophilic exudates. However, neutrophils are non-degenerate

81
Q

Which two conditions are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Aseptic necrosis

Arthrosis

82
Q

Name two neoplasms of joints

A
  • Synovial sarcoma

- Histiocytic sarcoma

83
Q

Which spp/breed is predisposed to synovial sarcomas?

A

Dog - Large breeds. Most common in middle age

84
Q

Describe the gross appearance of synovial sarcomas

A
  • Most often found near a major weight bearing joint: stifle > elbow >shoulder > tarsus > carpus > hip.
  • Indistinct borders and may infiltrate along fascial planes. May be cystic. Characteristically crosses the Joint (DD with Osteosarcoma)
85
Q

Describe the histological appearance of synovial sarcomas

A 
Three types:
- Synovioblastic (epithelioid)
- Fibroblastic
- Biphasic
• Cells are polygonal to spindleoid, oval nuclei, prominent nucleoli. May be  clefts or cavities containing proteinaceous to mucoid material and lined by a poorly defined layer of malignant cells.
86
Q

Which dog breeds most commonly get histiocytic sarcomas?

A

Dogs particularly flat coat, golden and Labrador retrievers, Bull Mastiffs and Rottweilers

87
Q

Describe the gross appearance of histiocytic sarcomas

A
  • Rapidly growing, locally aggressive, often occurring in close proximity to a joint.
  • Originate from dendritic (Langerhans) cells residing in the synovial membrane.
  • Soft tissue swellings close to major joints.
  • Nodular to diffuse synovial thickening with grey-pink tissue, which may extend into adjacent soft tissues
88
Q

Describe the histological appearance of histiocytic sarcomas

A

Synovium and joint capsule are infiltrated by malignant histiocytes which have abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm, anisokaryosis with large irregular nucleoli, frequent mitotic figures and multinucleated giant cells.

Y3 Musculoskeletal pathology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions