Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UNAIR - NBR 2nd Edition 2005 > NBR 2 - Neurosurgery > Flashcards

NBR 2 - Neurosurgery Flashcards

1
Q

Caudate Nucleus

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Choroid Plexus

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Foramen of Monroe

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Column of the fornix
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Septum Pellucidum
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. thalamostriate vein
A

G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Thalamus
A

H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Body of the fornix
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Anterior Caudate Vein
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Surgical procedures utilized in the treatment of spasmodic torticollis include
    I. upper cervical ventral rhizotomies and spinal accessory neurectomy
    II. stereotactic thalamotomy
    III. microvascular decompression of the spinal accessory nerve
    IV. myotomy

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. IV
E. all of the above

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which surgical approach for thoracic disk herniations is associated with the highest rate of neurologic injury?
    A. costotransversectomy
    B. lateral extracavitary
    C. midline laminectomy
    D. transpedicular
    E. transthoracic
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which surgical approach for thoracic disk herniations is associated with the highest rate of neurologic injury?
    A. costotransversectomy
    B. lateral extracavitary
    C. midline laminectomy
    D. transpedicular
    E. transthoracic
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Each of the following is characteristic of complex regional pain syndrome II ( causalgia) except
    A. atrophic changes in the limb
    B. hypesthesia
    C. increased sweating
    D. lack of major motor deficit
    E. good relief with sympathetic block
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For questions 14 to 18,

match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither

  1. Bacterial Meningitis
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For questions 14 to 18,

match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither

  1. Aseptic Meningitis
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For questions 14 to 18,

match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither

  1. Associated Congenital Malformations
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For questions 14 to 18,

match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither

  1. Most Often Midline
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For questions 14 to 18,

match the description with the structure.
A. dermoid cyst
B. epidermoid cyst
C. both
D. neither

  1. Responsive to radiation therapy
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Ventricular enlargement from choroid plexus papillomas can be secondary to
    I. entrapment of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
    II. decreased absorption of CSF from hemorrhage-induced arachnoiditis
    III. tumor growth
    IV. excessive production of CSF
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which approach is favored for a patient with an 8 mm acoustic neuroma in which hearing preservation is a goal?
    A. middle fossa
    B. suboccipital
    C. trans labyrinthine
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Uncinate seizures typically produce
    A. auditory hallucinations
    B. gustatory hallucinations
    C. olfactory hallucinations
    D. vertiginous sensations
    E. visual seizures
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate

  1. Separates the PI and P2A segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate

  1. Separates the P2A and P2P segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate

24.separates the P2P and P3 segments of the posterior cerebral artery

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For questions 22 to 25, match the description with the structure.
A. calcarine sulcus
B. lateral mesencephalic sulcus
C. posterior communicating artery
D. tectal plate

  1. separates the P2P and P3 segments of the posterior cerebral artery
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. The radial nerve or one of its branches innervates each of the following except the
    A. abductor pollicis longus
    B. adductor pollicis
    C. brachioradialis
    D. extensor pollicis brevis
    E. supinator
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) in the newborn except
    A. Periventricular hemorrhagic infarction is one sequela.
    B. Posthemorrhagic hydrocephalus can result in persistent bradycardia and apneic spells.
    C The capillary bed of the germinal matrix is composed of large irregular vessels.
    D. The germinal matrix is the most common site of IVH in the full-term neonate.
    E. The risk of IVH is greater in the preterm than in the term infant.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. The ossification centers of the odontoid consist of
    A. one primary and two secondary centers
    B. one secondary and three primary centers
    C. three secondary and one primary center
    D. two primary Centers
    E. two primary and one secondary center
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. The most common single-suture synostosis is
    A. coronal
    B. lambdoid
    C. metopic
    D. sagittal
    E. sphenozygomatic
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. The most sensitive method for detecting carpal tunnel syndrome is
    A. needle examination of the abductor pollicis brevis
    B. needle examination of the first and second lumbricals
    C motor amplitude of the median nerve
    D. motor distal latency of the median nerve
    E. palmar sensory conduction time of the median nerve
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Coup contusions most commonly occur at the
    A. cerebral convexities
    B. frontal and temporal poles
    C. orbital surface of the frontal lobes
    D. posterior fossa
    E. ventral surface of the temporal lobe
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

32

For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

  1. Pupil-involving third nerve palsy
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

33.

For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

  1. Seizure
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

34.

For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

  1. Diabetes Insipidus
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

35.

For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

  1. Inferior Nasal Quadrantanopia
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

36.

For questions 32 to 36, match the aneurysm with the sign or symptom it is most likely to produce. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. anterior communicating artery aneurysm
B. intracavernous carotid aneurysm
C. middle cerebral artery aneurysm
D. ophthalmic artery aneurysm
E. posterior communicating artery aneurysm

Soal : Exophthalmos ?

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. The essential difference between a syringomyelic and a hydromyelic cavity is that the cavity in
    A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not
    B. hydromyelia is lined with choroid plexus, and in syringomyelia is not
    C. syringomyelia contains CSF, and in hydromyelia contains serum
    D. syringomyelia is focal, and in hydromyelia is more extensive
    E. syringomyelia is an enlargement of the central canal, and in hydromyelia is an enlargement of the anterior median septum
A

A. hydromyelia is lined with ependymal cells, and in syringomyelia is not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. BASILAR ARTERY
A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. PITUITARY STALK
A

G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. RIGHT OCULOMOTOR NERVE
A

H

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

41

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

42

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

43

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

44

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

45

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

46

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

47

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

48

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

49

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

50

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

51

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

52

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

53

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

54

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

55

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

56

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

57

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

58

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

59

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

60

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

61

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

62

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

63

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

64

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

65

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

66

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

67

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

68

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

69

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

70

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

71

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

72

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

73

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

74

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

75

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

76

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

77

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

78

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

79

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

80

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

81

A
82
Q

82

A
83
Q

83

A
84
Q

85

A
85
Q

85

A
86
Q

86

A
87
Q

87

A
88
Q

88

A
89
Q

89

A
90
Q

90

A
91
Q

91

A
92
Q

92.

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

contains the anteroinferior cerebellar artery (AICA)

A

Jawab : B

B. cerebellopontine angle cistern

93
Q

93

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

  1. contains the origin of the posteroinferior cerebellar artery (PICA)
A

Jawab : D

D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern

94
Q

94

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

  1. contains the superior cerebellar artery
A

Jawab : A

A. ambient cistern

95
Q

95

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

  1. contains cranial nerve (CN) IV
A

A. ambient cistern

96
Q

96

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

  1. contains CN V
A

B. cerebellopontine angle cistern

97
Q

97

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

  1. contains the basal vein of Rosenthal
A

Jawab : C

C. interpeduncular cistern

98
Q

98

For questions 92 to 98, match the cistern with the structure it contains. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. ambient cistern
B. cerebellopontine angle cistern
C. interpeduncular cistern
D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern
E. prepontine cistern

  1. contains the choroid plexus at the foramen of Luschka
A

D. lateral cerebellomedullary cistern

99
Q

99

The transverse crest separates the
A. cochlear, facial, and superior vestibular nerves from the inferior vestibular nerve
B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior vestibular nerve
C. facial and cochlear nerves from the superior and inferior vestibular nerves
D. facial, cochlear, and inferior vestibular nerves from the superior vestibular nerve
E. facial and inferior vestibular nerves from the cochlear and superior vestibular nerves

A

B. cochlear and inferior vestibular nerve from the facial and superior vestibular nerve

100
Q

100

Which of the following is true of hemifacial spasm?

A. Compression of the facial nerve by the superior cerebellar artery is the most common operative finding.
B. Deafness is more common than permanent facial weakness as a complication of microvascular decompression.
C. Men are more frequently affected than women.
D. Symptoms typically begin in the buccal muscles and move cranially.
E. The cure rate at 1 month after microvascular decompression is 95%.

A

B. Deafness is more common than permanent facial weakness as a complication of microvascular decompression.

101
Q
  1. Each of the following surgical approaches may be considered for an aneurysm of the vertebrobasilar junction except the
    A. extended extreme lateral inferior transcondylar approach
    B. lateral suboccipital approach
    C. presigmoid transtentorial approach
    D. retrolabyrinthine transigmoid approach
    E. subtemporal approach
A

E. subtemporal approach

102
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom in patients with colloid cysts is
    A. headache
    B. dementia
    C. seizures
    D. sudden attacks of leg weakness
    E. sudden death
A

A. headache

103
Q

103

A
104
Q

104

A
105
Q

105

A
106
Q

106

A
107
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom of neonates with vein of Galen aneurysms is
    A. congestive heart failure
    B. hydrocephalus
    C. intracerebral hemorrhage
    D. seizures
    E. subarachnoid hemorrhage
A

A. congestive heart failure

108
Q
  1. The most common upper thoracic spine injury is a
    A. burst fracture
    B. compression fracture
    C. fracture-dislocation
    D. seat-belt injury
A

B. compression fracture

109
Q
  1. Which is true of thoracolumbar spine fractures?
    A. Burst fractures are the most common.
    B. Fracture-dislocations involve all three columns.
    C. Seat-belt type injuries are generally stable.
    D. Wedge compression fractures are generally unstable.
    E. Wedge compression fractures involve the middle column.
A

B. Fracture-dislocations involve all three columns.

110
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of diffuse brain swelling except that it is
    A. a result of cerebrovascular congestion
    B. a result of cytotoxic edema
    C. associated with a 50% mortality rate in severely head-injured children
    D. manifested on computed tomography (IT) scan by a compression of the perimesencephalic cistern
    E. more common in children than in adults
A

B. a result of cytotoxic edema

111
Q
  1. Which ofthe following is least suggestive of child abuse?
    A. acute and healing long bone fractures
    B. interhemispheric subdural hematoma
    C. parietal skull fracture
    D. retinal hemorrhages
    E. tentorial subdural hematoma
A

C. parietal skull fracture

112
Q
  1. Trigonocephaly results from premature closure of the
    A. coronal suture bilaterally
    B. coronal suture unilaterally
    C. frontosphenoidal suture
    D. lambdoid suture
    E. metopic suture
A

E. metopic suture

113
Q
  1. The cleft in the spinal cord associated with diastematomyelia is most commonly located in the
    A. cervical region
    B. lumbar region
    C. sacral region
    D. thoracic region
A

B. lumbar region

114
Q
  1. Up to what percentage of patients with bacterial arterial (mycotic) aneurysms carry an underlying diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis?
    A. 10%
    B. 20%
    C. 40%
    D. 60%
    E. 80%
A

E. 80%

115
Q
  1. Each is true of bacterial intracranial aneurysms except
    A. Infected emboli lodge in the vasa vasorum.
    B. The middle cerebral artery is most commonly affected.
    C. The peripherally located branches are most commonly affected
    D. Typical subarachnoid hemorrhage occurs in 18% of patients.
    E. Staphylococcus aureus and beta hemolytic streptococci are most commonly involved.
A

A. Infected emboli lodge in the vasa vasorum.

116
Q
  1. Each of the following is true of growing skull fractures except that they
    A. can cross suture lines
    B. may be associated with underlying brain injury
    C. occur if the edges of the initial fracture are separated by more than 3 mm
    D. occur most commonly in the parietal bone
    E. occur most commonly between the ages of 2 and 5
A

E. occur most commonly between the ages of 2 and 5

117
Q
  1. Approximately what percentage of infants with myelomeningocoele have magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) evidence of a Chiari II malformation?
    A. 20%
    B. 40%
    C. 60%
    D. 80%
    E. 100%
A

E. 100%

118
Q
  1. Cardiovascular disease involving the heart and great vessels gives rise to which of the following types of emboli in the retina?
    I. cholesterol
    II. calcific
    III. platelet-fibrin
    IV. fat
    A. I. II. III
    B. I. III
    C. II. IV
    D. IV
    E. all ofthe above
A

A. I. II. III

119
Q
  1. In the infratentorial supracerebellar approach to the pineal region. which of the following veins are usually sacrificed?
    I. superior vermian vein
    II. posterior pericallosal vein
    III. precentral ce,rebellar vein
    IV. basal vein of Rosenthal
    A. I. II. III
    B. I. III
    C. II. IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

B. I. III

120
Q
  1. Each of the following is characteristic of an acoustic neuroma except
    A. Bekesy type III or IV audiogram
    B. loudness recruitment
    C. low short-increment sensitivity index (SiSi)
    D. poor speech discrimination
    E. pronounced tone decay
A

B. loudness recruitment

121
Q
  1. subarcuate artery
A

Jawab : B

122
Q
  1. anteroinferior cerebellar artery
A

Jawab : A

123
Q
  1. cochlear nerve
A

Jawab : F

124
Q
  1. facial nerve
A

Jawab : E

125
Q
  1. glossopharyngeal nerve
A

Jawab : C

126
Q
  1. spinal accessory nerve
A

Jawab : G

127
Q
  1. posteroinferior cerebellar artery
A

Jawab : H

128
Q
  1. vagus nerve
A

Jawab : D

129
Q
  1. Which of the following structures provides a marker for the most dorsal extent ofthe incision for anterolateral cordotomy for pain control?
    A. dentate ligament
    B. dorsal root entry zone
    C. posterior intermediate sulcus
    D. posterior median sulcus
    E. zone of Lissauer
A

A. dentate ligament

130
Q
  1. Occlusion of the anterior choroidal artery results in
    I. contralateral hemiplegia
    II. hemihypesthesia
    III. homonymous hemianopia
    IV. impaired cognition
    A. I,lI,m
    B. I,m
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all ofthe above
A

A. I,lI,m

131
Q
  1. Which of the following symptoms of Parkinson’s disease is most likely to respond to a stereotactic lesion in the posterior ventral oval (VOP)/ventral intermediate (VIM) (ventrolateral) thalamus?
    A. bradykinesia
    B. gait disturbance
    C. rigidity
    D. speech disturbance
    E. tremor
A

E. tremor

132
Q

For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither

  1. autosomal recessive inheritance
A

D. Neither

133
Q

For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither

  1. exorbitism
A

C. Both

134
Q

For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither

  1. The majority of patients have preoperative intelligence quotients (IQs) greater than 90.
A

B. Crouzon’s-disease

135
Q

For questions 132 to 136, match the description with the syndrome or disease.
A. Apert’s syndrome
B. Crouzon’s-disease
C. Both
D. Neither

  1. Anterior open bite is common.
A

A. Apert’s syndrome

136
Q

For questions 137 and 138, match the description with the symptom.
A. primary empty sella syndrome
B. secondary empty sella syndrome
C. both
D. neither

  1. occurs primarily in women
A

A. primary empty sella syndrome

137
Q

For questions 137 and 138, match the description with the symptom.
A. primary empty sella syndrome
B. secondary empty sella syndrome
C. both
D. neither

  1. Visual disturbance may occur.
A

C. both

138
Q
  1. The most common etiology of os odontoideum is
    A. congenital
    B. iatrogenic
    C. infectious
    D. neoplastic
    E. traumatic
A

E. traumatic

139
Q
  1. The most common mechanism of translational C1-C2 subluxation is
    A. axial loading
    B. distraction
    C. extension
    D. flexion
A

D. flexion

140
Q
  1. The factor or substance with the least important role in the pathogenesis of cerebral vasospasm is probably
    A. bilirubin
    B. endothelin
    C. intimal proliferation
    D. lipid peroxides
    E. oxyhemoglobin
A

C. intimal proliferation

141
Q
  1. internal acoustic meatus
A

Jawab : D

142
Q
  1. posterior inferior cerebellar artery
A

Jawab : E

143
Q
  1. chorda tympani nerve
A

Jawab : G

144
Q
  1. facial nerve
A

Jawab : F

145
Q
  1. superior cerebellar artery
A

Jawab : B

Jawab : B

146
Q
  1. trigeminal nerve
A

Jawab : C

147
Q
  1. trochlear nerve
A

Jawab : A

148
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. most common type of spinal AVM
A

A. type I spinal AVMs

149
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. etiology believed to be acquired
A

A. type I spinal AVMs

150
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. also known as juvenile malformations
A

C. type III spinal AVMs

151
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. also known as glomus AVMs
A

B. type II spinal AVMs

152
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. Low flow and high pressure dynamics can be seen in type IV and this type.
A

A. type I spinal AVMs

153
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. High flow and high pressure dynamics can be seen in type IV and this type.
A

E. types II and III spinal AVMs

154
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. High flow and high pressure dynamics can be seen in type IV and this type.
A

A. type I spinal AVMs

155
Q

For questions 149 to 156. match the descriptions with the type of arteriovenous malformation (AVM).
A. type I spinal AVMs
B. type II spinal AVMs
C. type III spinal AVMs
D. type IV spinal AVMs
E. types II and III spinal AVMs

  1. Type IV and this type typically present with progressively worsening symptoms without significant clinical improvement.
A

A. type I spinal AVMs

156
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of removal of clamps from the arteries following carotid endarterectomy?
    A. common carotid, external carotid. internal carotid
    B. common carotid, internal carotid. external carotid
    C. external carotid. common carotid. internal carotid
    D. external carotid. internal carotid. common carotid
    E. internal carotid. common carotid. external carotid
A

C. external carotid. common carotid. internal carotid

157
Q
  1. anterior caudate vein
A

Jawab : C

158
Q
  1. column of the fornix
A

Jawab : B

159
Q
  1. internal cerebral vein
A

Jawab : D

160
Q
  1. septal vein
A

Jawab : A

161
Q
  1. tela choroidea
A

Jawab : G

162
Q
  1. thalamostriate vein
A

Jawab : E

163
Q
  1. thalamus
A

Jawab : F

164
Q
  1. dorsal ramus of C1
A

Jawab : E

165
Q
  1. glossopharyngeal nerve
A

Jawab : A

166
Q
  1. hypoglossal nerve
A

Jawab : D

167
Q
  1. spinal accessory nerve
A

Jawab : C

168
Q
  1. vagus nerve
A

Jawab : B

169
Q
  1. anterior cerebral artery
A

Jawab : D

170
Q
  1. anterior choroidal artery
A

Jawab : E

171
Q
  1. middle cerebral artery
A

Jawab : F

172
Q
  1. optic nerve
A

Jawab : A

173
Q
  1. posterior communicating artery
A

Jawab : B

174
Q
  1. superior hypophyseal artery
A

Jawab : C

175
Q
  1. Which of the following is most important in determining the propensity of a dural AVM to an aggressive clinical course?
    A. duration of symptoms
    B. leptomeningeal venous drainage
    C. location
    D. presentation
    E. size
A

B. leptomeningeal venous drainage

176
Q
  1. The MRI shown is that of a 40-year-old patient with bitemporal hemianopia and a prolactin level of 89. The best management of this lesion is
    A. bromocriptine
    B. bromocriptine, then surgery
    C. follow with serial MRIs
    D. radiation therapy
    E. surgery
A

E. surgery

177
Q
  1. If the prolactin level of the same patient in question 176 was found to be 650 the best management is
    A. bromocriptine
    B. follow with serial MRIs and prolactin levels
    C. radiation therapy
    D. surgery
    E. surgery, then radiation therapy
A

A. bromocriptine

178
Q
  1. Of the following, the least common location of intracranial meningiomas is (the)
    A. intraventricular
    B. olfactory groove
    C. posterior fossa
    D. sphenoid ridge
    E. tuberculum sella
A

A. intraventricular

179
Q
  1. Each of the following statements is true of AVMs except
    A. Higher pressures have been measured in the feeding arteries of smaller as compared with larger AVMs.
    B. Smaller AVMs are more likely to bleed than larger AVMs.
    C. The annual risk of death from a ruptured AVM is 1%.
    D. The risk of bleeding from an unruptured AVM is 3 to 4% a year.
    E. The risk of rebleed in the first year after hemorrhage is highest in the first 2 weeks.
A

E. The risk of rebleed in the first year after hemorrhage is highest in the first 2 weeks.

180
Q
  1. The most common complication of percutaneous radiofrequency trigeminal gangliolysis is
    A. anesthesia dolorosa
    B. decreased hearing
    C. keratitis
    D. masticatory weakness
    E. paresthesias or dysesthesias
A

E. paresthesias or dysesthesias

181
Q
  1. In the technique of percutaneous radio frequency trigeminal gangliolysis, the needle is inserted into the
    I. foramen rotundum
    II. trigeminal cistern
    III. foramen spinosum
    IV. foramen ovale
    A. I, II, III ..
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all of the above
A

C. II, IV

182
Q
  1. inferior rectus muscle
A

Jawab : H

183
Q
  1. inferior division of the oculomotor nerve
A

Jawab : D

184
Q
  1. abducens nerve
A

Jawab : E

185
Q
  1. frontal nerve
A

Jawab : A

186
Q
  1. nasociliary nerve
A

Jawab : C

187
Q
  1. superior division of the oculomotor nerve
A

Jawab : B

188
Q
  1. optic nerve
A

Jawab : G

189
Q
  1. trochlear nerve
A

Jawab : F

190
Q

For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy

  1. brachial plexus avulsion
A

B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy

191
Q

For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy

  1. causalgia
A

E. sympathectomy

192
Q

For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy

  1. obsessive-compulsive disorder
A

A. cingulotomy

193
Q

For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy

  1. nociceptive cancer pain above C5
A

C. morphine infusion

194
Q

For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy

  1. Parkinson’s disease
A

D. pallidotomy

195
Q

For questions 190 to 195, match the condition with the most appropriate treatment option. Each treatment option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. cingulotomy
B. dorsal root entry zone (DREZ) rhizotomy
C. morphine infusion
D. pallidotomy
E. sympathectomy
F. ventral rhizotomy

  1. spasmodic torticollis
A

F. ventral rhizotomy

196
Q
  1. Donor nerves that may be used for neurotization after brachial plexus avulsion include
    I. intercostal nerves
    II. spinal accessory nerve
    III. cervical plexus
    IV. phrenic nerve
    A. I, II, III
    B. I, III
    C. II, IV
    D. IV
    E. all ofthe above
A

E. all ofthe above

197
Q
  1. The pterion is formed by which of the following bones?
    A. frontal. greater wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and squamous part of the temporal
    B. frontal. lesser wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and squamous part of the temporal
    C. frontal. greater wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and zygomatic arch
    D. frontal. lesser wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and zygomatic arch
    E. frontal. lesser wing of the sphenoid. squamous part of the temporal. And zygomatic arch
A

A. frontal. greater wing of the sphenoid. parietal. and squamous part of the temporal

198
Q
  1. The most common external beam radiation therapy regimen for brain metastases is
    A. 30 Gy in 2 weeks
    B. 30 Gy in 4 weeks
    C. 60 Gy in 2 weeks
    D. 60 Gy in 4 weeks
    E. 45 Gy in 4 weeks
A

C. 60 Gy in 2 weeks

199
Q
  1. The most appropriate radiation treatment protocol for gliomas is
    A. 8000 cGY in 400 cGY daily fractions
    B. 6000 cGY in 200 cGy daily fractions
    C. 6000 cGy in 100 cGy daily fractions
    D. 4000 cGy in 400 cGy daily fractions
    E. 4000 cGy;n 200 cGy daily fractions
A

B. 6000 cGY in 200 cGy daily fractions

200
Q
  1. Cerebral salt wasting and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) may best be distinguished by measuring
    A. plasma arginine vasopressin (AVP)
    B. serum osmolality
    C. serum sodium
    D. urine sodium
    E. volume status
A

E. volume status

UNAIR - NBR 2nd Edition 2005 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions