Neuraxial Lecture 1 (Exam 1) Flashcards

(107 cards)

1
Q

What are clinical indications for neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Surgery in: Lower abdomen, perineum, lower extremities
Orthopedic surgery
Vascular Leg surgery
Thoracic Surgery

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2
Q

Why would neuraxial anesthesia be used for thoracic surgery?

A

As an adjunct to GETA (coughing, deep breathing, ambulation, post-op pain management)

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3
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia (increases/decreases): Post-op ileus, narcotic usage, thromboembolic events, PONV, bleeding, respiratory complications

A

Decreases complications

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4
Q

Neuraxial anesthesia offers
Great _________
_____ Urinary retention
_____ to eat, void, and ambulate
Avoids unexpected admission from GA complications
_____ PACU discharge times*
Preemptive anesthesia

A

Great mental alertness
Less urinary retention
Quicker to eat, void and ambulate
Quicker PACU discharge times

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5
Q

A benefit of neuraxial anesthesia is that it _____ the stress response from surgery

A

Blunts stress response

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6
Q

What are relative contraindications to neuraxial anesthesia? (4)

A
  1. Deformities of the spinal column
  2. Preexisting disease of the spinal cord (MS, Post-polio)
  3. Chronic HA/Backache
  4. Inability to perform SAB/Epidural after 3 attempts (Per provider)
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7
Q

What are pre-existing diseases of the spinal cord? (Relative C/I to neuraxial anesthesia)

A

MS or Post-polio syndrome

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8
Q

What are absolute contraindications to neuraxial anesthesia? (6)

Coagulopathy (risk of epidural hematoma)
INR > ____
Platelets < ____
PT, aPTT, BT ____x normal
*Patient refusal
*Evidence of dermal site infection

A

Coagulopathy (risk of epidural hematoma)
INR > 1.5
PLT < 100,000 (consider trends)
PT,aPTT, BT 2x normal
Known coagulation disorder OR on anticoagulants
*Patient refusal
*Evidence of dermal site infection

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9
Q

Normal PT 12

A

12-14 seconds

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10
Q

Normal INR

A

0.8-1.1

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11
Q

Normal aPTT

A

25-32 seconds

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12
Q

Normal Bleeding Time? What does bleeding time tell you?

A

3-7 minutes
BT tells you platelet function

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13
Q

Normal Platelet?

A

150,000-300,000 mm3

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14
Q

INR levels assess _____ activity
aPTT levels assess _____ activity

A

INR - Coumadin
aPTT - Heparin

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15
Q

What heart valve disease is an absolute CI to neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Severe or critical Aortic or mitral stenosis

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16
Q

Severe aortic stenosis valve area

A

0.7-1 cm2

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17
Q

severe mitral stenosis valve area

A

< 1 cm2

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18
Q

Is idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (HSS) a relative or absolute CI to neuraxial?

A

Absolute CI

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19
Q

When the ______ is longer than the duration of the LA, that is an absolute CI to neuraxial

A

Operation length > DOA of LA

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20
Q

Is increased ICP a relative or absolute CI to neuraxial?

A

Absolute CI

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21
Q

Severe CHF is an absolute CI to neuraxial when EF < ____% because they are ______ dependent

A

30-40%; Preload dependent

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22
Q

Mild AS valve area _____
Moderate AS valve area _____
Severe AS valve area _____
Critical AS valve area ______

A

Mild ≥ 1.5 cm2
Moderate 1-1.5 cm2
Severe 0.7-1 cm2
Critical < 0.7 cm2

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23
Q

What is the death spiral in neuraxial anesthesia?

A
  1. Hypotension causes MI
  2. Leading to ischemic contractile dysfunction
  3. Leading to decreased CO
  4. Leading to worsening Hypotension
  5. Leading to increased ischemia
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24
Q

If you have aortic stenosis and have angina, what is your LE?
Syncope?
HF?

A

Angina - 5 years
Syncope - 3 years
HF - 2 years

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25
Onset of: Spinal: Epidural:
Spinal: Rapid (5 min) Epidural: Slow (10-15 min)
26
This type of anesthesia spreads higher than expected; and may extend extracranially
Spinal
27
This type of anesthesia spreads as expected and can be controlled with the volume of LA
Epidural
28
What is the nature (dense/segmental) Spinal Epidural
Spinal: Dense Epidural: Segmental
29
This anesthesia has dense motor blockade
Spinal
30
This anesthesia has minimal motor blockade
Epidural
31
is spinal or epidural more likely to cause hypotension?
Spinal is more likely for hypotension d/t cardiac accelerators (T1-T4) - Epidural also causes hypotension but less than a spinal
32
Which is limited and fixed in duration? Which is unlimited in duration?
Spinal - limited Epidural - Unlimited
33
What levels can you safely place a spinal? What levels can you place an epidural?
L3-L4 L4-L5 L5-S1 Epidural - any level!
34
Which placement is more advanced (requires more skill)
Epidural placement
35
Which is dose-based (mg)? Which is volume-based? (concentrations are lower)
Dose - Spinal Volume - Epidural
36
Which method is at risk for LAST?
Epidural (many veins in the epidural space)
37
Gravity influences both spinals and epidurals. Spinals are effected by _____ Epidurals are effected by ______
Spinals - Baracity Epidurals - Pt. Positions
38
Within the first ____ minutes, you can manipulate the dermatome spread after dosing of SPINALS via what 3 things?
First 5 minutes: 1. Position changes 2. Baracity of solution 3. Dose
39
Dermatome spread after epidural placement is based on what
Volume: 1-2 mL per segment (12 segments = 12 cc)
40
How many vertebrae are there TOTAL? Cervical Thoracic Lumbar Sacral Coccyx
33 Total C = 7 T = 12 L = 5 S = 5 C = 4
41
Kyphosis is ______ curvature in the _____ spine Lordosis is ______ curvature in the ____ spine
Kyphosis -Concave Thoracic Lordosis -Convex Lumbar
42
Which 2 segments of vertebrae are fused?
Sacral and Coccyx are fused
43
What is the only vertebrae that is not divided into 2 main parts?
C1
44
What 2 structures link the anterior (body) and posterior (vert. arch) segments of a vertebra to form the vertebral forament?
Pedicle (more anterior) and Lamina (more posterior)
45
Space that houses the spinal cord, nerve roots, and epidural space
Vertebral foramen
46
What is a protective cushioning area around the spinal cord?
Epidural Space
47
Landmark to find the midline of the back?
Spinous process
48
what differentiates the lumbar from the cervical & thoracic vertebrae?
Spinous processes in cervical and thoracic are angled CAUDAD, requiring a needle approach from above (CEPHALAD approach)
49
Soft pads between vertebrae that act as shock absorbers
Intervertebral discs
50
Openings between the vertebrae where the spinal nerves exit the spine
Intervertebral foramen
51
The anterior side of the intervertebral foramen is formed by the _______ and _______ The posterior side of the intervertebral foramen is formed by the ______
Anterior: Vertebral body & intervertebral disc Posterior: Facet joints
52
Disc Degeneration happens when the intervertebral discs wear down, making the ______ smaller and pinching the spinal nerves causing pain, weakness and numbness
Intervertebral foramina
53
These structures guide and limit the spine's movement, and keep the back's motions controlled
Facet Joints
54
Injured facet joints can press on nearby _______and produce pain and muscle spasms i the dermatome
spinal nerves
55
an area of skin served by a spinal nerve
Dermatome
56
The superior aspect of the iliac crest is at what vertebrae level? This "line" is also called _______ or _______
L4 Tuffier's Line or Intercristal Line
57
Posterior superior iliac spine is at which level?
S2
58
The space above Tuffier's line is:
L3-L4
59
The space below Tuffier's line is:
L4-L5
60
Tuffier's line is useful for placing ____
Spinal needles
61
In infants < 1 year, Tuffier's line corresponds with _______ intervertebral space
L5-S1
62
The lamina of _____ is incomplete and bridged only with _____
S5; Ligaments (it is unfused)
63
Located at the base of the sacrum and aligns with _____ vertebra. Used as an access point to caudal anesthesia
Sacral hiatus
64
The sacral hiatus is covered by what ligament?
Sacrococcygeal ligament
65
The landmark for caudal anesthesia - Projections of articular processes/bony protuberances that guard the area of the sacral hiatus
Sacral Cornua
66
Landmark for caudal anesthesia Access point for caudal anesthesia
Landmark - sacral cornua Accesss - sacral hiatus
67
What is the rostral origin of the spinal cord?
Medulla oblongata
68
Tapering of the spinal cord at the end
Conus Medullaris
69
Where does the conus Medullaris end in adults? In infants?
Adults: L1-L2 (L1 in most Txtbooks) Infants: L3
70
A bundle of spinal nerves extending from the conus medullaris to the dural sac
Cauda Equina
71
The cauda equina consists of nerve roots from levels _____ vertebrae and the ______ nerve
L2-L5 nerve roots and coccygeal nerve
72
The dural sac ends @ ____ in adults ____ in infants
S2 adults S3 infants
73
The subarachnoid space ends at the
Dural sac
74
Structure that is a continuation of the pia mater and extends downward from the conus medullaris to the coccyx (tailbone)
Filum Terminale
75
The main function of the filum terminale is to anchor the _____ to the _____
spinal cord; coccyx
76
Internal filum terminale ranges _______ External Filum Terminale ranges ______
Internal: Conus medullaris to dural sac External: Dural Sac to the sacrum
77
The ASA is responsible for what type of function?
Motor
78
The 2 Posterior Spinal Arteries originate from the _____ artery and are responsible for what function?
Vertebral artery Sensory FunctionT
79
The posterior spinal arteries are paired and have many connections from the ______ and _____ intercostal arteries. These connections protect the _____ part of the spinal cord from ischemia
Subclavian and Intercostal arteries Sensory protection from ischemia
80
Motor paralysis & loss of pain and temperature sensations below the affected area
Anterior spinal artery syndrome
81
The ASA might receive additional branches from _____ and ____ arteries
Intercostal & Iliac arteries
82
A crucial connection that supplies the blood to the lower 2/3 of the spinal cord Damage to this artery also leads to ASA syndrome
Artery of Adamkiewicz
83
Artery of adamkiewicz arises from the aorta between: ______ and ____ regions
T7-9 and L2 regions
84
Ligament running along the back connecting the tips of the spinous processes together (most superficial)
Supraspinous Ligament
85
Ligament located between the spinous processes, joins adjacent vertebrae and provides stability.
Interspinous Ligament
86
Ligament that feels "gritty" and form the sidewalls of the space outside the spinal cord (epidural space) Piercing this ligament indicates entry into the epidural space
Ligamentum Flavum
87
Runs along the backside of the vertebral bodies
Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
88
Attached to the front of the vertebral bodies & intervertebral discs , running the length of the spinal column
Anterior longitudinal ligament
89
Name the layers to traverse during a midline approach for spinal.
Skin SubQ Fat Supraspinous Ligament Interspinous Ligament Ligamentum Flavum Dura Mater Subdural space Arachnoid mater Subarachnoid space
90
Name the orders of meningeal layers from outer to inner
Dura Mater Arachnoid Mater Pia Mater - Directly covers the spinal cord
91
Located outside the dura mater, containing fat, nerves, lymphatics, and small blood vessels (veins)
Epidural space
92
Potential space between the dura and arachnoid mater
Subdural space
93
Between the arachnoid and pia mater which is filled with CSF that cushions and protects the spinal cord
Subarachnoid space
94
The ligamentum flavum attatch superior and inferior ____ to each other
Laminae
95
Name the layers that you traverse via paramedian approach for spinal
Skin SubQ Fat Ligamentum Flavum Epidural Space Dura Mater Subdural space Arachnoid mater Subarachnoid Space
96
What are 2 reasons to use a paramedian approach?
1. Calcified interspinous ligaments 2. Patient cannot flex spine
97
What 3 positions can a patient be in for a paramedian approach
1. Sitting 2. Lying down 3. Face down
98
During paramedian approach, insert the needle ____ degrees off the patient's midline
15 degrees
99
Paramedian approach: position needle ___ cm to the side and ___ cm inferior to the space between the vertebrae
1 cm lateral and 1 cm inferior
100
Name the borders of the epidural space: Cranial, Caudal, Anterior, Lateral, Posterior
Cranial: Foramen magnum Caudal: Sacrococcygeal Ligament Anterior: Posterior longitudinal ligament Lateral: Vertebral Pedicles Posterior: Ligamentum Flavum and lamina
101
Fatty tissue in the epidural space increases or decreases the availability of certain drugs?
Fatty tissue decreases the availability of drugs
102
Compared to lidocaine, fentanyl, and morphine, Bupivicaine is absorbed ______ in the epidural space
bupivicaine is absorbed more d/t fatty tissue
103
The epidural veins are known as ____ plexus and are _____; they drain blood from the spinal cord and its linings
Batson's Plexus; Valveless
104
The density of veins in Batson's plexus increases ______
Increases laterally
105
What conditions (2) cause the veins in Batson's plexus (epidural space) to become engorged, leading to increased risk during needle procedures
1. Obesity 2. Pregnancy
106
How do you know if you're in the vein in the epidural space?
Blood is continuously coming out
107