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EPPP > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What type of headache presents as a unilateral throbbing pain?

A

Migraine

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2
Q

Which type of migraine begins with an aura?

A

Classic migraine

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3
Q

Which type of migraine begins with no aura?

A

Common migraine

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4
Q

Peripheral vision occurs where?

A

Anterior occipital lobe

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5
Q

Central vision occurs where?

A

Posterior occipital lobe

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6
Q

T/F: Parkinson’s is due to low levels of dopamine

A

True

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7
Q

A loss of dopamine may result in an excess of what neurotransmitter?

(Parkinson’s)

A

AcH

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8
Q

Meds for treating Parkinson’s would act how on which neurotransmitters?

A

Increase dopamine or block effects of AcH

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9
Q

Hypherphagia

A

Excessive hunger and eating

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10
Q

Adipsia

A

Complete cessation of drinking

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11
Q

Aphasia

A

Deficit in ability to use or comprehend language

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12
Q

What is the most common anticholinergic side effect?

A

Blurred vision

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13
Q

T/F: The effectiveness of thermal biofeedback as a treatment for migraine headaches is more effective than relaxation therapy?

A

True

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14
Q

What are the earliest symptoms of Huntington’s Disease?

A

Affective changes (irritability, depression)

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15
Q

Which neurotransmitter is most directly related to muscle movement?

A

AcH

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16
Q

Broca’s is to expressive as Wernicke’s is to?

A

Receptive

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17
Q

Alexia

A

Impaired reading

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18
Q

Apraxia

A

Trouble executing purposeful movement

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19
Q

Agnosia

- 2 types

A

Can’t recognize familiar objects

2 types: visual and tactile

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20
Q

Anosognosia

A

Inability or unwillingness to recognize one’s own functional impairment

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21
Q

Rods

A

Brightness

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22
Q

Cones

A

Color

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23
Q

Traditional antipsychotics primarily treat what symptoms?

A

Positive sxs

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24
Q

Externality hypothesis

A

Obese people overeat because they are more sensitive to external cues than internal cues

Ex. Lighting at restaurant > food tasting good

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25
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome is the result of damage to what area of the brain?

A

Amygdala

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26
Q

Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome

(3 phases)

A

Alarm, resistance, exhaustion

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27
Q

Lazarus’ 3 phases of cognitive appraisal

A
  1. Primary (Stressful event)
  2. Secondary (How will I cope?)
  3. Reappraisal (Monitoring/adjusting)
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28
Q

Damage to right hemisphere

A

Indifference or exaggerated jocularity

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29
Q

Damage to left hemisphere

A

Depression

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30
Q

What theory of emotion proposes that all emotions will elicit a similar response?

A

Cannon-Bard

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31
Q

Schachter & Singer’s Theory of Emotion

A

Physical reaction > attribution

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32
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

A

Physiological arousal and emotion happen at the same time

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33
Q

James Lange Theory of Emotion

A

Physical sxs > emotion

Ex. You hear growling bear > heart begins to race > you are afraid

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34
Q

Clozapine (class)

A

Atypical antipsychotic

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35
Q

Amitriptyline (class)

A

TCA

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36
Q

Fluoxetine (class)

A

SSRI

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37
Q

Sertraline (class)

A

SSRI

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38
Q

Paroxetine (class)

A

SSRI

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39
Q

Difference between primary and complex emotions

A

Complex emotions involve self-awareness

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40
Q

Atomoxetine

  • class
  • treats what?
A

NRI (non-stimulant med)

Treats ADHD

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41
Q

Medial temporal area damage impact what?

A

Long-term memory

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42
Q

Conduction aphasia is due to damage where?

A

The nerve fibers connecting Broca’s to Wernicke’s

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43
Q

Conduction aphasia impacts what?

A

Repeating what is heard

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44
Q

Probability of a parent passing Huntington’s on to a child

A

50% chance

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45
Q

Parkinson’s = degeneration of neurons where?

A

Substantia nigra

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46
Q

What meds can be used to treat the tremors associated with lithium?

A

Beta blockers

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47
Q

Prosopagnosia

A

Can’t recognize familiar faces

48
Q

Symptoms of tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis

A

Headache, stiff neck, sweating, nausea/vomiting

49
Q

If a left hemisphere language dominant split-brain patient views something in her left visual field she will be…

A

Unable to say what she saw but point to it with her left hand

50
Q

4 functions of hypothalamus

A

Fight, flight, feed, fornicate

51
Q

Antagonist

A

Blocks or reduced effect of neurotransmitter

52
Q

What part of the brain mediates aggressive responses?

A

Hypothalamus

53
Q

Lesions in the medial hypothalamus have been associated with what?

A

Rage & aggression

54
Q

What is the “satisfaction center” that mediates the feelings of satisfaction after eating and sex?

A

Cingulate gyrus

55
Q

Hydrocephalus is associated with which structures?

A

Ventricles

56
Q

Inverse agonist

A

Produces opposite effect of neurotransmitter

57
Q

Agonist

A

Produced similar effect of neurotransmitter

58
Q

The brain part or system that manages the circadian rhythm is located where?

A

SCN within the hypothalamus

59
Q

The cingulate cortex plays a role in what behaviors?

A

Emotion and motivation

60
Q

T/F: Testosterone increases sex drive in males only

A

False - it increases sex drive in males and females

61
Q

Gerstmann’s syndrome is the result of lesions where?

A

Parietal lobe

62
Q

Simultanagnosia

A

Can’t recognize 2+ things at same time

63
Q

Depression and chronic pain are both associated with which neurotransmitter?

A

Norepinephrine

64
Q

Huntington’s Disease is associated with low levels of which neurotransmitter?

A

GABA

65
Q

Starvation in anorexia may be precipitated by high levels of which neurotransmitter?

A

Serotonin

66
Q

TCAs primarily treat what type of depressive symptoms?

A

Vegetative

67
Q

What is an endogenous opiate?

-example

A

Produced inside the body

Ex. Endorphins

68
Q

What side of the brain controls language?

A

Left side

69
Q

How does hydrocephalus occur?

A

When the flow through the ventricles is blocked > produces pressure which caused brain damage and mental retardation

70
Q

In most patients, the earliest signs of Huntington’s are?

A

Depression and forgetfulness

71
Q

Which antidepressant is associated with the treatment of ADHD, enuresis, and decreasing the desire to binge and purge?

A

Imipramine

72
Q

What imagine technique is most frequently used to detect brain damage in the early stages in the ER?

A

CT scan

73
Q

Paresis

A

Partial paralysis

74
Q

An overactive caudate nucleus has been linked to?

A

OCD

75
Q

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus has been linked to?

A

Huntington’s

76
Q

What type of medications are often used to control Tourette’s Disorder by impacting the dopamine level?

A

Antipsychotics

Ex. Haloperidol

77
Q

T/F: Left-handers general exhibit milder aphasia

A

True

78
Q

Principle of Equipotentiality

(Lashley)

A

If certain parts of the correct are damaged, other parts may take over the functions of the damaged parts

79
Q

Benzos are _______ agonists.

A

GABA

80
Q

Right-left confusion is a characteristic of damage to the?

A

Parietal lobe

81
Q

Most research has linked Alzheimer’s to damage in what area of the brain?

A

Temporal lobe

82
Q

Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex will most likely result in?

A

Altered emotions

Think when I got hit by Harper here I cried

83
Q

What is considered the emotional core of the brain?

A

The limbic system

84
Q

Converting from antibody negative to antibody positive

A

Seroconversion

85
Q

Paraplegia

A

Paralysis of lower limbs

86
Q

Quadriplegia

A

Paralysis of all 4 limbs

87
Q

Hemiplegia

A

Paralysis of one side of body

88
Q

Which brand of the nervous system includes your sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Autonomic

89
Q

Acetylcholine is most associated with what?

A

Voluntary movement

Learning & memory

90
Q

Which neurotransmitters are considered catecholamines?

A

Norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine

91
Q

Which neurotransmitter is involved in long-term potentiation (LTP)?

A

Glutamate

92
Q

Main inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

GABA

93
Q

Main excitatory neurotransmitter

A

Glutamate

94
Q

The basal ganglia is to movement as the limbic system is to ______.

A

Emotion

95
Q

Which part of the brain is considered the relay station for sensory information?

A

Thalamus

96
Q

Broca’s area is located where?

A

Frontal lobe

97
Q

Wernicke’s area is located where?

A

Temporal lobe

98
Q

Beta waves

A

Alert, awake

99
Q

Alpha waves

A

Awake but relaxed

100
Q

Theta waves

A

Light sleep

Between being awake and being asleep - falling asleep watching TV in evenings

101
Q

Delta

A

Deep sleep

102
Q

What % of newborn sleep is REM?

A

50%

103
Q

As we age, which stages of sleep decrease?

A

Stages 3-4

104
Q

Does REM sleep increase or decrease as we age?

A

Decrease

105
Q

REM rebound may occur when the use of __________ is discontinued.

A

Sedatives

106
Q

What is the leading risk factor for a stroke?

A

Hypertension

107
Q

Bradykinesia

A

Slow voluntary movement, blank face

Parkinson’s

108
Q

Athetosis and Chorea are associated with what disease?

A

Huntington’s

109
Q

What is athetosis?

A

Slow, writhing movements

Huntington’s

110
Q

What is chorea?

A

Involuntary rapid, jerky movements

Huntington’s

111
Q

What % of individuals with Parkinson’s experience depression?

A

40%

112
Q

Loss of declarative memory is associated with?

A

Alzheimer’s

113
Q

Complex partial seizures are known to originate where?

A

Temporal lobe

114
Q

Absence seizures are believed to originate where?

A

Thalamus

115
Q

Absent seizures are also known as what?

A

Petit mal

116
Q

Complex partial seizures - formerly called?

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy

117
Q

Degree of impulsivity seen in ADHD may be associated with what in terms of brain anatomy?

A

Size of the caudate nucleus

EPPP (11 decks)

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