neuro Flashcards

1
Q

stroke thrombolysis - when can it be given?

A

up to 4.5 hours and haemorrhage exluded by CT

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2
Q

Tx stroke outside the thrombolytic window?

A

aspirin

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3
Q

If falls soon after dx of Parkinson’s disease, what is wrong?

A

Investigate neuro signs - CN3/4/6

could be Parkinson’s plus syndrome - PSP

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4
Q

what is the Parkinson’s plus disease: PSP

A

Progressive Supranuclear Palsy

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5
Q

How would PSP present?

A
impaired vertical gaze - down worse than up
>difficulty reading/down stairs
Parkisnonism 
slurred speech 
falls
cognitive impairment
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6
Q

how do patients with PSP respond to L-Dopa?

A

Poorly

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7
Q

Mx of cervical myelopathy?

A

refer to spinal/neurosurgery

Decompressive surgery - prevents progression

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8
Q

when should surgery be done for cervical myelopathy?

A

within 6 months

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9
Q

symptom relief in cervical myelopathy?

A

Neuropathic analgesia

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10
Q

risk factors for degenerative cervical myelopathy?

A

smoking
genetics
occupation - axial loading

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11
Q

DCM symptoms?

A
pain - neck/UL/LL
loss motor function
sensory loss - numbness
loss autonomic function - incontinence/impotence
Hoffman's sign
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12
Q

what is Hoffman’s sign?

A

reflex test to assess for Cervical Myelopathy
flicking finger of patient’s hand
+ve - reflex twitching of other fingers on same hand in response

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13
Q

Ix: Cervical Myelopathy

what will it show?

A

gold standard - MRI (C-spine if UL+LL sx)

disc degeneration and ligament hypertrophy with cord signal change

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14
Q

which antiepileptic is most associated with weight gain?

A

Na Valproate

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15
Q

how does Na valproate work?

A

Increases GABA activity

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16
Q

Na Valproate adverse effects?

A
nausea
increased appetite/weight gain
alopecia
ataxia
tremor 
hepatotoxicity
pancreatitis
thrombocytopaenia 
teratogenic
hyponatraemia
hyperamonemic encephalopathy
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17
Q

what is paraesthesia?

A

abnormal sensation - tingling/pricking sensation caused by pressure on/damage of peripheral nerves

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18
Q

54yo male, 6/7 hx paraesthesia hands and feet.
Getting worse - can’t walk.
2/52 hx diarrhoea episode. resolved.
recent life stressors. no alcohol misuse.
Ex: 4/5 finger abductors, 3/5 ankle dorsiflexion+plantarflexion
loss soft touch sens up to ankles bilat
absent knee/ankle reflexes, plantars downgoing. T=N
reduced motor nerve conduction velocity on NCS 2nd to demyelination

A

GBS

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19
Q

Guillian Barre syndrome: define

A

progressive peripheral polyneuropathy with hyporeflexia is GBS

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20
Q

what recent infection is commonly associated with GBS?

A

Campylobacter

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21
Q

which visual field loss results from PG tumour?

A

Bilateral hemianopia, upper quadrant defect

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22
Q

what visual field loss from primary open angle glaucoma in R eye?

A

Unilateral peripheral vision loss

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23
Q

visual field loss from extensive stroke with R sided hemiplegia?

A

R sided homonynous hemianopia

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24
Q

in left honomymous hemianopia, where is lesion?

A

R sided optic tract

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25
Q

what does PITS refer to (visual fields)

A

homonymous quadrantanopias -
Parietal Inferior
Temporal Superior

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26
Q

where are lesions in incongruous defects?

A

optic tract lesion

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27
Q

where are lesions in congruous defects?

A

optic radiation lesion / occipital cortex

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28
Q

what does congruous defect mean?

A

complete/symmetrical defect

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29
Q

incongruous defect

A

incomplete/asymmetrical

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30
Q

in bitemporal hemianopia, where is the lesion>

A

Optic chiasm
UQ defect>LQ defect - inferior chiasmal compression - PG tumour
LQ>UQ - superior chiasmal compression - craniopharyngioma

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31
Q

which malformation is associated with Syringomyelia

A

Chari malformation

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32
Q

what are chari malformations causing?

A

disturbed CSF flow at foramen magnum

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33
Q

cape-like distribution of sensory loss?

A

Syringomyelia

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34
Q

migraine triggers:

A
CHOCOLATE
chocolate
orgasms
hangovers
cheese
caffeine
COCP
lie-ins
alcohol
travel
exercise
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35
Q

where is the lesion when patient presents with gait ataxia?

A

Cerebellum Vermis

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36
Q

what will the patient’s exam show with cerebellar hemisphere lesion?

A

Finger-nose ataxia

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37
Q

which type of LOC episodes are associated with a rapid recovery and short post-ictal period?

A

Vasovagal syncope

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38
Q

which neuro condition is of higher incidence at higher latitudes?

A

MS

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39
Q

risk factors MS:

A
female
away from equator 
EBV
smoking
Vit D def
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40
Q

which drug shows a survival benefit in patients with MND?

A

Riluzole

3 months survival increase

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41
Q

What does Riluzole do?

A

prevents glutamate receptor stimulation in ALS

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42
Q

what non-pharma tx for MND has shown benefit?

A

BIPAP at night

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43
Q

In stroke mx, which pharma tx first?

A

aspirin then clopidogrel

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44
Q

what triggers pain in trigeminal neuralgia?

A

light touch, shaving, eating

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45
Q

what is the pain like in trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Brief electric shock like pain

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46
Q

first line tx trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Carbimazepine

sfx - sjs

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47
Q

what does pyridostigmine tx as 1st line?

A

MG - sx relief

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48
Q

what is pyridostigmine MOA?

A

Long acting AchI

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49
Q

what class of drugs treats cause of MG?

A

Immunosuppressants

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50
Q
The key feature is muscle fatigability 
extraocular muscle weakness: diplopia
proximal muscle weakness: face, neck, limb girdle
ptosis
dysphagia
A

Myasthenia Gravis

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51
Q

what is MG highly associated with ?

A

Thymoma (15%)

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52
Q

MG Ix:

A
single fibre electromyography 
CT thorax - thymoma
CK
autoAbs - 
Tensilon test
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53
Q

Mx: myesthenic crisis:

A

plasmapharesis

IVIG

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54
Q

commonest MND:

A

ALS

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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55
Q

ALS sx:

A

typically LMN signs in arms
UMN signs in legs
FHx cases: gene on ch21 and codes for superoxide dismutase

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56
Q

nerve lesion can cause weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion?

A

Common peroneal

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57
Q

where is common peroneal nerve running?

A

lateral knee

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58
Q

vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex: which cranial nerves will be affected?

A

8, 5, 7

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59
Q

vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and an absent corneal reflex: Dx?

A

vestibular schwannoma / acoustic neuroma

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60
Q

Ix: acoustic neuroma:

A

MRI: cerebellopontine angle

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61
Q

what type of side effects with metroclopramide (antiemetic)

A

EPSEs in young people

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62
Q

gold standard test for dx : venous thrombosis?

A

MR venogram

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63
Q

risk factors for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis?

A

COCP

FHx VTE

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64
Q

presentation:
2/7 Hx gradual onset severe headache, n/v. Blunted and difficulty finding right words. No PMHx.
COCP. FHx - mother unprovoked DVT in her 30s

A

Venous thrombosis

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65
Q

what lesion would cause finger abduction weakness?

A

T1

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66
Q

damage to C5,6 roots
winged scapula
breech presentation

A

Erb-Duchenne paralysis

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67
Q

damage to T1
loss of intrinsic hand muscles
due to traction

A

Klumpke’s paralysis

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68
Q

A wide-based gait with loss of heel to toe walking - what gait?

A

Ataxic gait

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69
Q

cerebellar injury causes - PASTRY ?

A
P - Posterior fossa tumour
A - Alcohol
S - Multiple sclerosis
T - Trauma
R - Rare causes
I - Inherited (e.g. Friedreich's ataxia)
E - Epilepsy treatments
S - Stroke
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70
Q

Mx: Bell’s palsy

A

Prednisolone

EYE CARE

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71
Q

Bell’s palsy define:

A

unilateral, idiopathic, facial nerve paralysis

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72
Q

peak incidence Bell’s palsy and who is more at risk?

A

20-40

pregnant women

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73
Q

which (LMN lesion) does NOT spare forehead?

A

Bell’s palsy

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74
Q

patients may also notice post-auricular pain (may precede paralysis), altered taste, dry eyes, hyperacusis
in which palsy?

A

Bell’s palsy

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75
Q

Triceps reflex nerve root?

A

C7-C8

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76
Q

Bicep reflex nerve root?

A

C5-C6

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77
Q

Ankle reflex nerve root?

A

S1-S2

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78
Q

Knee reflex nerve root?

A

L3-L4

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79
Q

change in her appearance. She finds removal of rings difficult, her shoe size has changed and photographs show a marked change in her appearance

A

Acromegaly

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80
Q

what causes acromegaly?

A

PG SOL

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81
Q

what is anterior white commisure?

A

Spinothalamic tracts

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82
Q

What do spinothalamic tracts do?

A

Temperature

pain

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83
Q

Dorsal coloumns - what do they carry sens?

A

proprioception
fine touch
vibration

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84
Q

hyperacusis

A

You can experience a heightened sensitivity to particular sounds that are not usually a problem for others

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85
Q

what causes hyperacusis?

A

Facial nerve palsy - VII

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86
Q

why can facial nerve palsy cause hyperacusis?

A

VII supplies the stapedius muscle

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87
Q

what does facial nerve supply?

A
Face, ear, taste, tear
facial expression muscles, 
ear - nerve to stapedius
taste - anterior 2/3
tear - parasymptathetic fibres to lacrimal glands
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88
Q

causes of bilateral facial nerve palsy?

A
sarcoidosis
GBS
Lyme disease
bilateral acoustic neuromas 
Bell's
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89
Q

confabulation - which disease?

A

Korsakoff’s syndrome

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90
Q
nystagmus (the most common ocular sign)
ophthalmoplegia
ataxia
confusion, altered GCS
peripheral sensory neuropathy

all features of?

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

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91
Q

cause of congenital hydrocephalus?

A

Arnold-chiari malformation

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92
Q

what happens in Arnold-chiari malformation?

A

cerebellum herniates through the foramen magnum

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93
Q

plydactylyl

A

extra digits

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94
Q

achondroplasia

A

dwarfism type

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95
Q

if intracerebral haemorrhage due to thrombolysis - after stroke - mx?

A

stop aspirin and control BP

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96
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth - what is it?

A

inherited condition, damage to peripheral nerves

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97
Q

which nerves are affected by Charcot-Marie-Tooth?

A

both sensory and motor peripheral nerves

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98
Q

Unilateral Parkinsonism and severe autonomic disturbance (atonic bladder/postural Hypotension)- dx?

A

Multiple system atrophy

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99
Q

thymine deficiency - vitamin?

A

B1 deficiency

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100
Q

Tuberous sclerosis - inheritance?

A

autosomal dominance

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101
Q

depigmented ‘ash-leaf’ spots which fluoresce under UV light
roughened patches of skin over lumbar spine (Shagreen patches)
adenoma sebaceum (angiofibromas): butterfly distribution over nose
fibromata beneath nails (subungual fibromata)
café-au-lait spots* may be seen

A

Tuberous sclerosis

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102
Q

Tuberous sclerosis: neuro features?

A

developmental delay
epilepsy
intellectual impairment

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103
Q

what is the commonest psych illness of PD?

A

Depression!

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104
Q

adenoma sebaceum

A

Tuberous sclerosis

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105
Q

If mix of UMN and LMN signs, think?

A

Subactute combined degeneration of the SC

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106
Q

what causes SCDC?

A

b12 deficiency

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107
Q

what can precipitate SCDC?

A

giving folate to a b12 deficient patient

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108
Q

Damage to the posterior columns - loss of proprioception, light touch and vibration sense (sensory ataxia and a positive Romberg’s test).
Damage to lateral columns - spastic weakness and upgoing plantars (UMN signs).
Damage to peripheral nerves - absent ankle and knee jerks (LMN signs).

A

SCDC

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109
Q

which sign is: paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion

A

Lhermitte’s sign

MS

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110
Q

worsening of vision following rise in body temperature: which sign?

A

Uhtoff’s phenomenon

MS

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111
Q

what type of inherited condition is essential tremor?

A

AD

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112
Q

essential tremor made better by: (from history)

A

alcohol

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113
Q

what is first line tx intention tremor:

A

Propranolol

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114
Q

phonobhobia in which type of headache?

A

migraine

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115
Q

excessive watering of the eye: medical word

A

epiphora

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116
Q

which blood test can differentiate between seizure and pseudo-seizure?

A

Prolactin - raised in real seizure

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117
Q

Following a first seizure, patients must be seizure free for how long before driving?

A

6 months

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118
Q

If the patient has a formal diagnosis of epilepsy they must be seizure-free for at least ?? before driving

A

12 months

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119
Q

dose of Aspirin for someone with TIA <7days

A

300mg

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120
Q

ataxic gait and increased upper limb tone with cog-wheel rigidity. Blood pressure is 135/80 lying and 95/70 standing. Dx?

A

multiple system atrophy

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121
Q

thumb/index finger nerve root?

A

c6

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122
Q

middle finger palm nerve root?

A

c7

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123
Q

ring and little finger nerve root

A

c8

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124
Q

man had stroke. Started on aspirin. made a good recovery. what should he be changed onto after 14 days?

A

clopidogrel and statin

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125
Q

GCS: how many points for each section?

A

654.. MoVE

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126
Q

GCS motor response 1-6:

A
  1. Obeys commands
  2. Localises to pain
  3. Withdraws from pain
  4. Abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
  5. Extending to pain
  6. None
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127
Q

GCS: verbal response 1-5

A
  1. Orientated
  2. Confused
  3. Words
  4. Sounds
  5. None
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128
Q

GCS: eye opening 1-4

A
  1. Spontaneous
  2. To speech
  3. To pain
  4. None
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129
Q

Carotid bruit, previous TIA, atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease are indications that the cause of a stroke is ??

A

Ischaemic!

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130
Q

penicillamine
quinidine, procainamide
beta-blockers
lithium
phenytoin
antibiotics: gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines
these drugs can precipitate what kind of crisis?

A

Myesthenic crisis

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131
Q

which blood tests are performed in those under 55 with no obvious cause of a stroke??

A

Thrombophilia and autoimmune

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132
Q

Tongue fasciculations make you think of which condition?

A

Bulbar disease - MND

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133
Q

Wernicke’s (receptive) dysphasia - where is the lesion?

A

superior temporal gyrus

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134
Q

Conduction (associative) dysphasia - where is the lesion?

A

arcuate fasciculus

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135
Q

Broca’s (expressive) dysphasia - where is lesion?

A

inferior frontal gyrus

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136
Q

eye is deviated ‘down and out’
ptosis
pupil may be dilated

Which CN palsy?

A

3rd nerve palsy

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137
Q

causes of 3rd nerve palsy?

A
DM
vasculitis e.g. temporal arteritis, SLE
false localizing sign* due to uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP- trauma
PCA aneurysm
 - pupil dilated
 - often associated pain
cavernous sinus thrombosis
Weber's syndrome: ipsilateral with contralateral hemiplegia -caused by midbrain strokes
Amyloidosis, 
Multiple sclerosis
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138
Q

if epilepsy dx and drives a bus (group 2 vehicle) how much time before can reapply to DVLA ?

A

10 years seizure free

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139
Q

phenytoin MOA:

A

binds to sodium channels increasing their refractory period

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140
Q

When starting a phenytoin infusion what monitoring is required

A

Cardiac due to proarrhythmogenic effects

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141
Q

diminished response with repetitive stimulation to EMG - which condition?

A

MG

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142
Q
  1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
  2. homonymous hemianopia
  3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia

If all 3 present, what syndrome type is this?

A

TACI

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143
Q
  1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
  2. homonymous hemianopia
  3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia

If 2/3 present, what syndrome is this?

A

PACI

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144
Q

which circulation is affected TACI

A

Middle and anterior

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145
Q

Which circulation is affected PACI?

A

Anterior only

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146
Q

where does Lacunar stroke occur>

A

perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia

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147
Q
  1. unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three.
  2. pure sensory stroke.
  3. ataxic hemiparesis
    if 1/3 present, what syndrome present?
A

Lacunar

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148
Q
involves vertebrobasilar arteries
presents with 1 of the following:
1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes
2. loss of consciousness
3. isolated homonymous hemianopia
???
A

PCI

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149
Q

Ptosis + dilated pupil =

A

3rd nerve palsy

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150
Q

ptosis + constricted pupil =

A

Horner’s syndrome

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151
Q

which is the ONLY cervical nerve root that comes out BELOW the vertebra?

A

c8

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152
Q

is symmetrical tremor normally caused by idiopathic Parkinsons?

A

no

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153
Q

55yof - posture stooped, slow, shuffling gait. She also freezes approaching doorways or trying to turn around. Face is expressionless and voice is quiet and lacks inflection. New bilateral pill-rolling tremor, exacerbated on distraction.
PMH schizophrenia, t2dm

A

drug-induced parkinsonism

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154
Q

what type of sx commonly more seen in children with migraines vs adults with migraines?

A

GI disturbance

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155
Q

65-year-old woman is admitted with proximal muscle weakness present in the face, neck, shoulder & pelvic muscle girdles. On examination, she has double vision present in her left eye and drooping of her left eyelid. She also has difficulty swallowing.

A

MG

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156
Q

65-year-old woman is admitted with proximal muscle weakness present in the face, neck, shoulder & pelvic muscle girdles. On examination, she has double vision present in her left eye and drooping of her left eyelid. She also has difficulty swallowing. Antibody tests show ???

A

antibodies to AchRs

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157
Q

Addensonian crisis tx:

A

IV hydrocortisone
IV fluids
glucose
Abx

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158
Q

migraine: acute tx:

A

triptan +NSAID with triptan / paracetamol

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159
Q

migraine prophylaxis:

A

propranolol or topiramate

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160
Q
Plucking of clothes
smacking of lips
dejavu 
aura
is typically seen in which type of epilepsy?
A

Temporal lobe seizures

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161
Q

seizures associated with motor abnormalities and Jacksonian movements.

A

Frontal lobe seizures

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162
Q

seizures associated with sensory abnormalities?

A

parietal lobe seizures

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163
Q

Floaters/flashes seen in what seizures?

A

occipital lobe

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164
Q

how long does it take after starting on APs for neuroleptic malignancy syndrome to manifest?

A

short-term - just commenced on tx

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165
Q
pyrexia
muscle rigidity
autonomic lability: typical features include hypertension, tachycardia and tachypnoea
agitated delirium with confusion
raised CK
leukocytosis
after starting APs
A

Neuroleptic malignancy syndrome

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166
Q

neuroleptic malignancy syndrome tx:

A

stop antipsychotic
patients should be transferred to a medical ward if they are on a psychiatric ward and often they are nursed in intensive care units
IV fluids to prevent renal failure
dantrolene* may be useful in selected cases
bromocriptine, dopamine agonist, may also be used

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167
Q

seratonin syndrome features:

A

caused by SSRIs/MAOIs/ecstasy
fast onset
hyperreflexia, clonus, dilated pupils

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168
Q

mx of severe seratonin syndrome:

A

cyproheptadine

chlorpromazine

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169
Q

newly diagnosed Parkinson’s who have motor symptoms affecting their quality of life
first line tx?

A

Levodopa

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170
Q

newly diagnosed Parkinson’s who do not have motor symptoms affecting their quality of life:
first line tx?

A

Dopamine agonist
levodopa
MAO-B

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171
Q

risk factors for multiple sclerosis

A

smoking, previous infectious mononucleosis, genetics and hypovitaminosis D

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172
Q

Migraine during pregnancy: tx:

A

paracetamol 1g is first-line

aspirin 300mg or ibuprofen 400mg can be used second-line in the first and second trimester

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173
Q

migraine + menstruation ass. - tx:

A

mefanamic acid

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174
Q

? to treat idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

WEIGHT LOSS
Acetazolamide
Topiramate

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175
Q

what type of drug is Acetazolamide?

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

reduce CSF production

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176
Q
headache
blurred vision
papilloedema (usually present)
enlarged blind spot
sixth nerve palsy may be present
Dx?
A

Idiopathic Intercranial Hypertension (IIH)

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177
Q

risk factors for IIH?

A

obesity
female sex
pregnancy
drugs*: oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracycline, vitamin A, lithium

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178
Q

thrombectomy window?

A

within 6 hours

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179
Q

carpel tunnel syndrome - which nerve?

A

median nerve

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180
Q

what % stenosis before considering a carotid endartectomy?

A

50 or 70% depending on which criteria followed

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181
Q

which anti-platelets should be used after TIA/ischaemic stroke?

A

clopidogrel

secondary prevention

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182
Q

Nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy or radiotherapy often respond to ??

A
  1. Ondansetron

2. dexamethasone

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183
Q

what type of drug is ondansetron?

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonist

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184
Q

collection of pus encapsulated by a pyogenic membrane

A

abcess

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185
Q

CT head with contrast reveals a rim-enhancing lesion with a central cavity and surrounding oedema within the left frontal lobe

A

brain abcess

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186
Q

what does high stepping gate indicate?

A

foot drop

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187
Q

unilateral foot drop cause:

A

common peroneal nerve lesion

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188
Q

bilateral foot drop cause:

A

peripheral neuropathy

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189
Q

peripheral neuropathy; predominantly motor loss: causes:

A
Guillain-Barre syndrome
porphyria
lead poisoning
Charcot-Marie-Tooth
chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP)
diphtheria
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190
Q

peripheral neuropathy predominantly sensory loss causes:

A
diabetes
uraemia
leprosy
alcoholism
vitamin B12 deficiency
amyloidosis
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191
Q

commonest complication following bacterial meningitis in 1yo?

A

sensorineural hearing loss

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192
Q

other cx meningitis:

A

other neurological: epilepsy, paralysis

infective: sepsis, intracerebral abscess
pressure: brain herniation, hydrocephalus

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193
Q

increased gamma GT is suggestive of

A

excessive alcohol consumption - alcohol related perihperal neuropathy

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194
Q

if ? TIA: immediate mx:

A

aspirin 300mg immediately and specialist review within 24 hours

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195
Q

22-year-old man presents with a one day history of a generalised headache. He prefers being in the dark and says he is ‘sleepy’. He has no neck stiffness. His temperature is 38.2C

A

meningitis

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196
Q

69-year-old woman presents with a 3 week history of a headache which is worse on the right side. She is generally unwell and feels ‘weak’, noting particular difficulty in getting up from a chair.

A

temporal arteritis

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197
Q

weakness in temporal arteritis is explained by:

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

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198
Q

33-year-old woman presents due to a severe frontal headache. She developed a cold around 2 weeks ago but has now been left with a severe headache. The pain is worse when she bends forward.

A

sinusitis

199
Q

craniopharyngioma can cause which disease?

A

Diabetes Insipidus

200
Q

craniopharyngioma causes which visual field defect?

A

lower bitemporal hemianopia

201
Q

Miller-Fisher syndrome triad:

A

opthalmoplegia
areflexia
ataxia

202
Q

what type of paralysis in GBS?

A

ascending

203
Q

what type of paralysis in Miller-Fisher?

A

descending

204
Q

which antibodies are found in 25% GBS patients?

A

anti-GM1 Abs

205
Q

which antibodies are associated with Miller-Fisher? (90%)

A

anti-GQ1b Abs

206
Q

which nerve innervates the skin on the palmar aspect of the thumb?

A

median nerve

207
Q

which nerve innervates the nailbed of the index finger?

A

Median nereve

208
Q

which nerve innervates the skin overlaying the medial aspect of the hand?

A

ulnar nerve

209
Q

is infarct seen in TIA?

A

no - tissue only TIA, not time

210
Q

The combination of facial and contralateral body loss of pain sensation along with nystagmus and ataxia make up a common syndrome:

A

lateral medullary syndrome

211
Q

what commonly causes lateral medullary syndrome?

A

PICA stroke (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)

212
Q

which type of stroke causes locked in syndrome?

A

basillar artery

213
Q

if similar presentation to lateral medullary syndrome except ipsilateral facial weakness and deafness, which type of stroke?

A

Anterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery stroke

214
Q

anterior inferior cerebellar stroke (AICA) can cause which syndrome?

A

lateral pontine syndrome

215
Q

MRI brain showing subependymal nodules is consistent with a diagnosis?

A

tuberous sclerosis

ass with West syndrome

216
Q

6/12m episodes of ‘fits’. Tensing and relaxing suddenly and repeatedly several times in quick succession. Not reaching his developmental milestones. Patches of discoloured skin.
Ex: GDD and 12 depigmented macules on trunk+ limbs.

A

West syndrome

217
Q

Phenytoin MOA:

A

binds to Na channels increasing their refractory period

218
Q

sfx of phenytoin: acute

A

dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia

later: confusion, seizures

219
Q

chronic phenytoin sfx:

A
gingival hyperplasia, hirsuitism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness
megaloblastic anaemia
peripheral neuropathy
osteomalacia - enhanced vit D metabolism
lymphadenopathy
dyskinesia
220
Q

what congenital abnormalities are associated with phenytoin use in pregnancy?

A

cleft palate and congenital heart disease

teratogenic

221
Q

idiosyncratic sfx phenytoin:

A
fever
rashes - toxic epidermis necrolysis
hepatitis
dupuytron's contracture
aplasatic anaemia
drug-induced lupus
222
Q

sinusitis + focal neurology and fever ->

A

brain abscess

IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

223
Q

Ix: brain abscess?

A

CT head

224
Q

Tx: brain abscess:

A

surgical craniotomy and debridement

IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole

225
Q

53-yom difficulty speaking clearly and some swallowing difficulty. Overactive gag reflex on both sides, tongue spasticity and the tongue seems to be wasted with fasciculations. Dx:

A

MND

ALS with bulnbar onset

226
Q

Patients with a GCS below 8 should be considered for :

A

review by anaesthetist and a view of intubation and ventilation

227
Q

as well as dizziness and right sided hearing loss, how might an acoustic neuroma present:

A

loss of corneal reflex

228
Q

what type of herniation causes 3rd nerve palsy (down and out) due to raised ICP?

A

trans-tentorial herniation

229
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia can only occur if the spinal cord injury occurs

A

above T6

230
Q

severe hypertension, flushing and sweating without a congruent response in heart rate in the context of spinal cord injury indicates. often caused by retention or impaction

A

autonomic dysreflexia

231
Q

able to speak clearly, content of their speech is unrelated to the questions you ask them, and makes little to no sense. Unable to repeat phrases.
Which dysphasia?

A

Wernicke’s

232
Q

where is the lesion in Wernicke’s ?

A

superior temporal gyrus

233
Q

lesion to the temporo-occipital region would result in which kind of aphasia?

A

transcortical sensory aphasia

234
Q

lesion to the arcuate fasciculus would result in which type of aphasia?

A

conduction aphasia

235
Q

lesion to the angular gyrus would result in which aphasia?

A

Gerstmann syndrome

236
Q

where is the lesion in Broca’s?

A

Inferior frontal gyrus

237
Q

Global aphasia: what is it?

A

large lesion affecting wernicke’s, brocas and arcuate gyrus (connecting) leading to severe expressive and receptive aphasia

238
Q

which artery supplies brocas area?

A

superior division of the MCA

239
Q

which artery supplies wernicke’s area?

A

inferior division of the MCA

240
Q

sentences that make no sense, word substitution and neologisms but speech remains fluent
Comprehension is impaired

A

Wernicke’s

241
Q

Speech is non-fluent, laboured, and halting

Comprehension is normal. repetition impaired

A

Brocas

242
Q

Speech is fluent but repetition is poor. Aware of the errors they are making
Comprehension is normal

A

Conductive aphasia

243
Q

vertical diplopia - which lesion?

eg worse going down stairs

A

4th nerve palsy

trochlear, cn4

244
Q

72yom. declining cognition. He was normally very well and independent until 3 months ago. He has lost no weight, has no headache but has been falling a lot. He also complains of urinary incontinence.

A

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

245
Q

‘wet, wobbly and wacky’

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

246
Q

Mx: normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

ventriculoperitoneal shunting

247
Q

there are no contraindications, which one of the following antiplatelet regimens is recommended following an acute ischaemic stroke?

A

aspiring 300mg 2 weeks, clopidogrel 75mg long term

248
Q

which nerve does thumb opposition?

A

Median

249
Q

45-year-old lady recovering from a mastectomy and axillary node clearance notices that sensation in her armpit is impaired.
which nerve?

A

intercostobrachial

250
Q

8-year-old boy falls onto an outstretched hand and sustains a supracondylar fracture. In addition to a weak radial pulse the child is noted to have loss of pronation of the affected hand. which nerve

A

median

251
Q

MS: most appropriate baseline ix:

A

MRI + contrast

252
Q

What is the most important cause of status epilepticus to rule out first?

A

hypoxia

hypoglycaemia

253
Q

Mx status:

A
  1. PR diazepam or IV lorazepam
254
Q

if unresponsive after inital benzos in status, what is 2nd line tx:

A

phenytoin, sodium valproate, levetiracetam, or phenobarbital

255
Q

headaches classically worse on standing and improve when lying flat:

A

spontaneous intracranial hypotension

caffeine and fluids = mx

256
Q

what can cause spontaneous intracranial hypotension?

A
low CSF (post-LP)
caffeine and fluids
257
Q

Weakened dorsiflexion, inversion and eversion of the ankle indicates

A

L5 lesion

258
Q

MG patients are typically resistant to which type of general anaesthesia?

A

depolarising neuromuscular blocking drugs (NMBDs) - suxamethonium

259
Q

74-year-old male presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness. On examination you note weakness of the right face, upper and lower limbs. You also note that the left eye is in a ‘down and out’ position and the pupil is dilated.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

weber’s syndrome

260
Q

what causes weber’s syndrome?

A

midbrain stroke syndrome that involves the fascicles of the oculomotor nerve resulting in an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral hemiplegia

261
Q

classical bacterial meningitis presentation, what is first investigation to do?

A

CT head to rule out raised ICP

262
Q

diagnostic test;meningitis:

A

LP

263
Q

Valsalva manoeuvre?

A

headache linked to cough

264
Q

Episodic eye pain, lacrimation, nasal stuffiness occurring daily lasting 15m-2h??

A

cluster headache

265
Q

what is a common trigger of cluster headaches?

A

alcohol

266
Q

Mx : cluster headache acute:

A

100% o2, SC triptan

267
Q

cluster headache: prophylaxis?

A

verapamil

268
Q

who commonly gets cluster headaches?

A

smokers, men

269
Q

42-year-old man presents with pain in the posterior and left side of his head. This came on over one minute and is now severe. The pain is worse when he bends his neck. His temperature is 37.3ºC

A

SAH

270
Q

62-year-old woman presents with a one day history of pain around her right eye. She feels nauseated and has vomited once. On examination her right eye is red

A

acute glaucoma

271
Q

22-year-old woman presents with recurrent headaches around the time of her periods. These are typically on the left-side and severe. When she gets a headache it lasts several hours and she usually goes to bed.

A

migraine

272
Q

what is a CI of triptan use as prophylaxis for a migraine?

A

CVD

273
Q

what dose of rectal diazepam given during status/

A

10mg

274
Q

for power test, grade X indicates can hold against gravity>

A

3

275
Q

13-yom difficulty walking. His legs are weak and he experiences severe muscle cramps on mild exercise. Pseudohypertrophy calf muscles and uses arms to help stand up from the floor. No intellectual impairment. His 4-year-old brother is well. Genetic testing excludes Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Becker’s muscular dystrophy

276
Q

what is Gower’s sign?

A

patient that has to use their hands and arms to “walk” up their own body from a squatting position due to lack of hip and thigh muscle strength - prox LL weakness

277
Q

60 year-old male presents with clumsy hands. He has been dropping cups around the house. His wife complains he doesnt answer his mobile as he struggles to use it. His symptoms have been gradually deteriorating over the preceding months.
Median nerve entrapment

A

DCM

278
Q

32 year-old female presents with a 3 day history of altered sensation on her left foot and right forearm. On examination she has clonus in both legs and has hyperreflexia in all limbs.

A

MS

279
Q

Adhesive capsulitis: another name for

A

frozen shoulder

external rotation!

280
Q

45 year-old female presents with stiffness and pain in her left shoulder, which started around a month ago. She had a similar episode that resolved by itself. Examination reveals limited external rotation.

A

adhesive capsulitis

281
Q

Lip smacking + post-ictal dysphasia are localising features of what kind of seizure?

A

temporal lobe seizure

282
Q

Temporal lobe seizures: HEAD

A

hallucinations
Epigastric rising/emotional
Automatisms
Dejavu/dysphasia post-ictal

283
Q

which anti-parkinsons med is linked to change in behaviour (inhibition disorder)?

A

Dopamine agonists - carbidopa

284
Q

What are jacksonian movements?

A

clonic movements travelling proximally

285
Q

what is adjacent segment disease?

A

in DCM post-op, recurrence of the condition at adjacent spinal intervals

286
Q

weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion - nerve?

A

common peroneal

287
Q

nasopharyngeal malignancy has locally invaded the left cavernous sinus - what is this called?

A

cavernous sinus syndrome

288
Q

70 year-old man has pain and weakness in both legs on walking. It settles with rest: Dx

A

lumbar canal stenosis

289
Q

which sign differentiates organic and functional causes of stroke in LL?

A

Hoover sign

290
Q

what is hoovers sign?

A

patient is genuinely making an effort, feel the ‘normal’ limb pushing down vs hand as the patient tries to lift the ‘weak’ leg = organic cause.
If fails to feel the ‘normal’ limb pushing down as they try to raise ‘weak’ leg, = functional, also known as ‘conversion disorder’.

291
Q

Jendrassik manoeuvre: what is it?

A

compares a reflex with/without distraction e.g. clenching teeth

292
Q

Romberg’s test: if positive what does this indicate?

A

sensory ataxia

293
Q

same sided weakness and proprioception/vibration loss and loss of pain/temperature on the opposite side to the hemisection:

A

Brown-sequard syndrome

294
Q

CT perfusion or diffusion-weighted MRI sequences showing limited infarct core volume
How does this impact stroke management?

A

thrombectomy window extended from 6>24 hours as potential to salvage brain tissue

295
Q

right eye fails to adduct and the left eye develops coarse nystagmus in abduction

A

Intranuclear Opthalmoplegia

296
Q

where is the lesion in INO?

A

medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), a tract that allows conjugate eye movement

297
Q

Causes of INO?

A

MS

Vascular disease

298
Q

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia
where is stroke?

A

MCA

299
Q

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper
Stroke where?

A

ACA

300
Q

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Visual agnosia
where stroke?

A

PCA

301
Q

63-year-old man is admitted with a severe headache, nausea and a recent epileptic fit. Fundoscopy shows papilloedema. He is also noted to have diplopia when asked to look laterally.
CN??

A

VI

302
Q

32-year-old lady is admitted with weakness, visual disturbance and periorbital pain. On examination she is noted to have mydriasis and diminished direct response to light shone into the affected eye. The consensual response in the affected eye is preserved.
CN?

A

II

303
Q

18-year-old man who has been stabbed in the neck is found to have an inability to contract the sternocleidomastoid and upper fibers of trapezius muscles on that side.

A

XI

304
Q

what types of anti-emetics may exacerbate Parkinsons?

A

anti-histamines

cyclizine / prochlorperazine

305
Q

which antiemetic should be prescribed in parkinson?

A

Domperidone

Doesn’t cross BBB - no EPSEs

306
Q

what are fasciculations a common feature of?

A

MND

307
Q

In trauma, to test if the fluid draining from the nose or ear is CSF:

A

check for glucose

308
Q

gold standard test to prove clear fluid is CSF?

A

Beta-2-transferrin

309
Q

CSF circulation:

A
  1. Lateral ventricles (via foramen of Munro)
  2. 3rd ventricle
  3. Cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius)
  4. 4th ventricle (via foramina of Magendie and Luschka)
  5. Subarachnoid space
  6. Reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into superior sagittal sinus
310
Q

What is in CSF?

A

Glucose: 50-80mg/dl
Protein: 15-40 mg/dl
Red blood cells: Nil
White blood cells: 0-3 cells/ mm3

311
Q

what type of cells make CSF and where do they do this?

A

ependymal cells of the choroid plexus

312
Q

total vol CSF in brain approx?

A

150ml

313
Q

total CSF produced per day?

A

500ml

314
Q

what is found in the CSF of patients with MS?

A

oligoclonal bodies

315
Q

Sudden onset of unilateral, blurred vision with pain on movement of that eye

A

optic neuritis

316
Q

sinister headache signs which need urgent CT:

A

Vomiting more than once with no other cause.
New neurological deficit (motor or sensory).
Reduction in conscious level (GCS).
Valsalva (associated with coughing or sneezing) or positional headaches.
Progressive headache with a fever.

317
Q
medial two lumbricals
aDductor pollicis
interossei
hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi
flexor carpi ulnaris
which nerve?
A

ulnar

318
Q

when can you consider stopping seizure medication?

A

if seizure free > 2years and wean off AEDs over 2-3/12

319
Q

MS acute relapse tx?

A

methylprednisolone

320
Q

first choice MS drug to reduce relapse rate?

A

B-inferon

321
Q

B-inferon criteria in MS:

A

relapsing-remitting disease + 2 relapses in past 2 years + able to walk 100m unaided
secondary progressive disease + 2 relapses in past 2 years + able to walk 10m (aided or unaided)
reduces number of relapses and MRI changes, however doesn’t reduce overall disability

322
Q

Other MS relapse preventing drugs:

A

glatiramer acitate
natalizumab
fingolimod

323
Q

23-year-old man is involved in a fight outside a nightclub and sustains a laceration to his right arm. On examination he has lost extension of the fingers in his right hand.
nerve?

A

Radial

324
Q

which nerve supplies the extensor muscle group of the hands?

A

Radial

325
Q

40-year-old lady trips and falls through a glass door and sustains a severe laceration to her left arm. Amongst her injuries it is noticed that she has lost the ability to adduct the fingers of her left hand
nerve?

A

ulnar

326
Q

28-year-old rugby player injures his right humerus and on examination is noted to have a minor sensory deficit overlying the point of deltoid insertion into the humerus.
nerve?

A

axillary

327
Q
progressive, disproportionate symptoms to the original injury/surgery
allodynia
temperature and skin colour changes
oedema and sweating
motor dysfunction
A

complex regional pain syndrome

328
Q

when does complex regional pain syndrome commonly present?

A

after surgery or an injury

329
Q

Mx: complex regional pain syndrome:

A
early physiotherapy is important
neuropathic analgesia in-line with NICE guidelines
specialist management (e.g. Pain team) is required only if fx on QOL severe
330
Q

when testing GCS, if discrepency in reponse between both sides of body, which score is used?

A

use BEST response from both sides

331
Q

does hoffman’s sign positive indicate UMN/LMN dysfunction?

A

UMN

332
Q

roughened patches of skin over lumbar spine (Shagreen patches) - which condition?

A

tuberous sclerosis

333
Q

67-yom to ED sudden onset dizziness and vomiting, 2 hours. He has a background of HTN and hypercholesterolaemia- ramipril and simvastatin.
Vertical nystagmus and difficulty standing without support.
what does he have?

A

cerebellar stroke

334
Q

which type of seizure is carbimazepine ineffective vs?

A

Absence seizure

335
Q

if pregnant woman on phenytoin, what given in last month of pregnancy?

A

Vit k to prevent clotting disorders

336
Q

why is COCP CI in migraine with aura?

A

significant increase in risk of ischaemic stroke

337
Q

what is the type of inheritance in Charcot-Marie-Tooth type 1?

A

AD

338
Q

features often start at puberty
motor symptoms predominate
distal muscle wasting, pes cavus, clawed toes
foot drop, leg weakness often first features
Dx?

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth 1

339
Q

neuropathic pain Mx:

A
  1. Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin
  2. tramadol may be used as ‘rescue therapy’ for exacerbations
  3. topical capsaicin may be used for localised neuropathic pain
    pain management clinics
340
Q

what may provoke absence seizure?

A

hyperventilation/stress

341
Q

first line tx: absence seizure?

A

Na Valproate or ethosuximide

342
Q

elderly patient who presented to the emergency department with reduced consciousness after a fall, hitting the side of their head. Your consultant describes a unilateral crescentic lesion in the right frontoparietal area on CT.
Dx?

A

SDH

343
Q

which vessel has been damaged in SDH?

A

bridging veins between cortex and venous sinus

344
Q

Epidural haemorrhage (extradural) is associated with which vessel?

A

MMA

345
Q

Subarachnoid haemorrhages are associated with vessels??

A

of circle of willis - basilar/ACA

346
Q

Restless leg syndrome - management?

A

dopamine agonist - ropinirole

347
Q

commonest type of MS?

A

relapsing-remitting disease

348
Q

55-year-old woman complains she is losing weight. On examination her pulse is 102 bpm and she has a fine tremor when her hands are outstretched: cause?

A

thyrotoxicosis

349
Q

Axillary freckles are indicative of

A

NF1

350
Q

how are NF diseases type 1 and 2 inherited

A

AD

351
Q
Café-au-lait spots (>= 6, 15 mm in diameter)
Axillary/groin freckles
Peripheral neurofibromas
Iris hamatomas (Lisch nodules) in > 90%
Scoliosis
Pheochromocytomas
A

NF1

352
Q

Bilateral vestibular schwannomas

Multiple intracranial schwannomas, mengiomas and ependymomas

A

NF2

353
Q

cerebellar symptoms: DANISH

A

D - Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria (past-pointing), patients may appear ‘Drunk’
A - Ataxia (limb, truncal)
N - Nystamus (horizontal = ipsilateral hemisphere)
I - Intention tremour
S - Slurred staccato speech, Scanning dysarthria
H - Hypotonia

354
Q

Third nervy palsy presenting with a large pupil = Mx:

A

surgical case needs urgent brain imaging

355
Q

adverse effects Levodopa:

A
dyskinesia
'on-off' effect
postural hypotension
cardiac arrhythmias
nausea &amp; vomiting
psychosis
reddish discolouration of urine upon standing
356
Q

wrist drop: which nerve?

A

Radial

357
Q

which # type causes radial nerve damage?

A

of shaft of humerus

358
Q

following TIA: DVLA rules?

A

no need to inform, can restart driving after 1 month sx free

359
Q

when should aspirin be given in stroke/tia??

A

only after ruled out haemorrhagic stroke

360
Q

what will nerve conduction studies show in MND?

A

Normal motor conduction

361
Q

First-line anti-epileptic in a 17-year-old girl with tonic-clonic seizures. She is not sexually active and does not use any form of contraception currently

A

lamotrigine

362
Q

first-line treatment to children, young people and adults with newly diagnosed focal seizures.’

A

carbimazepine or lamotregine

both can cause sjs

363
Q

1st line generalised tonic clonic tx:

A

Na valproate
Lamotrigine
(Valproate inappropriate in women and young girls)

364
Q

Laughter → fall/collapse

A

cataplexy

365
Q

what is cataplexy commonly associated with ?

A

narcolepsy

366
Q

CT: hypodense collection around the convexity of the brain that is not limited to suture lines.

A

chronic SDH

367
Q

trigeminal neuralgia: red flag sx?

A

<40yo
sensorineural hearing loss
sensory changes
hx of skin/oral lesions that could spread perineurally
pain only in the opthalmic division or bilaterally
optic neuritis
FHx of MS

368
Q

what disease has weakness which initially improves after exercise?

A

Lambert-Eaton

369
Q

Voltage-gated calcium-channel antibodies are suggestive of ??

A

Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome

370
Q

repeated muscle contractions lead to increased muscle strength* (in contrast to myasthenia gravis)
limb girdle weakness (affects lower limbs first)
hyporeflexia
autonomic symptoms: dry mouth, impotence, difficultly micturating
ophthalmoplegia and ptosis not commonly a feature (unlike in myasthenia gravis)

A

LEMS

371
Q

what would EMG show in LEMS?

A

incremental response to repetitive muscle stimulation

372
Q

Mx of Lambert Eaton?

A

treatment of underlying cancer
immunosuppression, (prednisolone +/ azathioprine
3,4-diaminopyridine currently trialled
IVIG and plasma exchange

373
Q

Painful third nerve palsy =

A

posterior communicating artery aneurysm

374
Q

complex focal seizure: how may it present?

A

Emotional disturbance and automatism are features of focal seizures with impaired awareness, which are followed by a post-ictal state during which the patient may be tired.

375
Q

Toperimate (migraine prophylaxis) during pregnancy?

A

no - cleft lip and palate

also reduces effectiveness of hormonal contraception

376
Q

first line radiological Ix for ?stroke?

A

Non-contrast CT head

377
Q

42-year-old teacher is admitted with a fall. An x-ray confirms a fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus. Which nerve is at risk?

A

Axillary nerve

378
Q

32-year-old window cleaner is admitted after falling off the roof. He reports that he had slipped off the top of the roof and was able to cling onto the gutter for a few seconds. The patient has Horner’s syndrome.
Nerve?

A

Brachial trunks C8-T1

379
Q

32-year-old rugby player is hit hard on the shoulder during a rough tackle. Clinically his arm is hanging loose on the side. It is pronated and medially rotated
which palsy and which nerve?

A

Erb’s palsy

Brachial trunks C5-C6

380
Q

43-year-old lady presents with symptoms of chronic ear discharge and a right sided facial nerve palsy. On examination she has foul smelling fluid draining from her right ear and a complete right sided facial nerve palsy.
cause?

A

cholestatoma

381
Q

You suspect a stroke. Which tool is used to assess a patient in this situation?

A

Rosier

382
Q

a stroke is likely if Rosier score >?

A

0

383
Q

In adjacent segment disease - what is initial mx?

A

again, refer to spinal surgeons / neurosx

384
Q

in syringomyelia, which sensory loss type commonly seen?

A

pain + temperature loss - spinothalamic

385
Q

‘cape-like’ (neck and arms) loss of sensation to temperature but preservation of light touch, proprioception and vibration. Classic examples are of patients who accidentally burn their hands without realising.

A

syringomyelia

386
Q

Ix: syringomyelia:

A

full spine MRI with contrast to exclude a tumour or tethered cord. A brain MRI is also needed to exclude a Chiari malformation.

387
Q

Mx : syringomyelia:

A

underlying cause

shunt into the syrinx

388
Q

TIA and intolerant of clopidogrel. What is the most appropriate therapy to help reduce his chance of having a further stroke?

A

aspirin and dipyridamole lifelong

389
Q

essential tremor: when is it worse?

A

on outstreched arm

390
Q

which test will be positive in MS (examination)

A

Hoffmans

391
Q

Obese, young female with headaches / blurred vision think

A

idiopathic intracranial HTN

392
Q

berry anuerysm>

A

SAH

393
Q

which drugs are associated to idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A

drugs*: oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracycline, vitamin A, lithium

394
Q

attacks of vertigo, tinnitus, sensorineural deafness and fullness of the ear.

A

Meniere’s

395
Q

Widespread convulsions without conscious impairment

A

pseudoseizure

396
Q

where do 5-HT3 antagonists (eg ondansetron) act?

A

medulla oblongata

397
Q

which type of seizure gradually builds up?

A

pseudoseizure

398
Q

with reduces Glasgow coma score, quadriplegia, miosis, and absent horizontal eye movements.

A

pontine haemorrhage

399
Q

72-year-old man develops visual problems. He is noted to have a left homonymous hemianopia with some macula sparing. where is lesion?

A

occipital cortex

400
Q

30-year-old man with a family history of early blindness is concerned that he is developing ‘tunnel vision’. lesion??

A

retina

401
Q

While an essential tremor is classically associated with a tremor present with sustained muscle tone (i.e. postural tremor) in the hands, where can it also affect?

A

vocal cords

402
Q

adhesive capsulitis initial mx:

A

refer to physios

403
Q

post-ictal weakness AKA?

A

Todd’s paresis

404
Q

who may experience todd’s paresis?

A

sufferers of focal seizures

405
Q

Useful for managing tremor in drug-induced parkinsonism

A

procyclidine

406
Q

Parksinson’s drug ass with pulmonary fibrosis:

A

cabergoline

407
Q

which parkinsons drug decreases effectiveness over time?

A

Levodopa

408
Q

which GCS would you intubate below?

A

8

cuffed endotracheal tube

409
Q

‘port-wine stain’ of the forehead, learning disabilities, seizures and glaucoma.

A

Sturge weber syndrome

410
Q

known MS struggling with spasticity of legs - mx:

A

first line is baclofen or gabapentin

411
Q

74-year-old man presents to his GP with slowed movement and feeling off-balance. His wife has noticed that his right hand starts shaking when he is watching television.
What is the most appropriate action for the GP to take?

A

refer urgently to neuro

412
Q

first line investigations for patients with a suspected diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma

A

audiogram and gadolinium-enhanced MRI

413
Q
May be extension of infantile spasms (50% have hx)
onset 1-5 yrs
atypical absences, falls, jerks
90% moderate-severe mental handicap
EEG: slow spike
ketogenic diet may help
A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

414
Q

Shingles dx, with post-herpatic neuralgia: mx:

A

amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin first-line.

415
Q

75-year-old female presents with sudden onset weakness of her left arm and leg. She also reports visual problems. On examination you note left sided face, arm and leg weakness, and a left homonymous hemianopia. There is no aphasia, no hemispatial neglect, and no other deficits of higher function. You suspect a stroke and send her for an urgent CT.

A

right sided partial anterior circulation stroke

416
Q

which MND best prognosis?

A

progressive muscular atrophy

417
Q

which MND worst prognosis?

A

Progressive bulbar atrophy

418
Q

The tremor seen in Parkinson’s disease:

A

unilateral

improves on voluntary movement

419
Q

first seizure presents to GP - mx:

A

refer to epilepsy clinic only

only rarely would prescribe drugs before specialist consult

420
Q

which dementia is associated with MND?

A

FTD

421
Q

typical migraine aura include:

A

spreading scintillating scotoma (jagged crescent)

422
Q

62-year-old female inpatient, with a known history of epilepsy, who is having a seizure. The nurse who witnessed the seizure says it began by affecting her right hand before involving her entire right arm and then progressing to a loss of consciousness with her entire body shaking. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Jacksonian march with secondary generalisation

423
Q

64-yom presents for his annual diabetic review. He reports that in last few months he has developed tingling and numbness in his right ring finger and little finger. On examination there is paraesthesia and numbness of the right fourth and fifth digit, a right sided foot drop and a left sided facial weakness.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Mononeuritis multiplex

424
Q

looking forward, the patient’s right eye turn is deviated upwards and rotated outwards. On attempting to look to the patient’s left the double vision worsens.

A

R 4th nerve palsy

425
Q

11-year-old boy presents complaining of persistent headaches which have been getting progressively worse over the last few years. He mentions that he finds it difficult to concentrate in class as he is unable to see the board clearly. Visual examination reveals a bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. His parents are concerned as he is not growing in height. His height is calculated to be below the 10th centile for children in his age group. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

pituitary adenoma

426
Q

Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus/ophthalmoplegia→

A

give pabrinex urgently

427
Q

‘Saturday night palsy’ -

A

compression of the radial nerve against the humeral shaft leading to wrist drop

428
Q

which peripheral neuropathies have a glove and stocking distribution?

A

DM neuropathy,
GBS
CIDP

429
Q

UMN signs (3)

A
  • Hyperreflexia, Spasticity, Muscle weakness, Clonus, Babinski positive
430
Q

LMN signs (3)

A
  • Hyporeflexia, atrophy, flacid weakness, fasciculation, fibrillations, facial droop, slurred speech,
431
Q

3 causes of UMN lesions?

A
Stroke
CP
TBI
MS
MND
SOL
Parkinson's 
Huntingtons
432
Q

life expectancy MND?

A

2-3 years from dx

433
Q

primary mechanism behind Parkinsons disease?

A

lewy body accumulation in the substantia nigra, leading to reduced dopamine – less ‘dopinergic neurons’

434
Q

4 features of Parkinson’s disease? (TRAP)

A

Tremor
Rigidity
Akinesia (brady)
Postural instability

435
Q

3 non-motor Parkinson’s sx:

A
dementia
depression
Rem-sleep disturbance 
constipation
hallucinations 
orthostatic hypotension
436
Q

3 causes of ataxia:

A
wernicke's
miller-fisher
lateral medullary sydnrome 
acute alcohol use
li toxicity
gluten intolerance
meningitis/encephalitis 
b12 deficiency 
NPH
437
Q

who’s criteria for MS and what is included?

A

McDonald’s

dissemination in time and space

438
Q

4 investigations to dx MS:

A
  • MRI non-contrast, GAD contrast one – spine and brain – high signal T2 lesion, periventricular plaques, dawsons fingers – FLAIR
  • Visual evoked potentials – EEG on occipital cortex and shows images and one side is slower than other
  • NCS – slower MCV, normal amplitude
  • CSF – oligoclonal bands, intrathecal IgG increased
  • Ddx – bloods – b12 deficiency
439
Q

acute head injury - eg cricket ball. Convex lens haemorrhage on CT:

A

extradural haemorrhage

440
Q

inferior homonymous quadrantanopia: where is the lesion?

A

Baum’s loop

441
Q

marcus gunn pupil - ix?

A

swinging light test +ve

442
Q

name a contraindication to thrombectomy?

A

oesophageal varices

443
Q

thumb adduction nerve?

A

ulnar

444
Q

Unilateral loss ddx:

A
CRAO - amaurosis fugax
CRVO
retinal detachment - floaters 
vitreous haemorrhage - floaters DM/macular degen
acute glaucoma - pain/red n/v
Optic neuritis
GCA
445
Q

Optic neuritis sx:

A

reduced acuity over days
opthalmoplegia (pain on movt)
Uhtoff’s
Afferent pupillary defect - Marcus Gunn

446
Q

optic neuritis causes:

A

MS
DM
Syphilis

447
Q

ON mx:

A

steroids - gets better over 6 weeks

448
Q

features typical of MS:

A
ON
pyramidal weakness, spastic paraparesis 
sensory disturbance
cerebellar sx
bladder/sex dysfunction
fatigue
449
Q

when do you give statin after stroke?

A

48 hours

450
Q

when do you give aspirin after thrombolysis?

A

24 hours after

451
Q

if stroke pt has AF, which drug give instead of clopidogrel?

A

NOAC - RIvaroxiban

452
Q

Ix for stroke location??

A

MRI angio day 1

453
Q

raised ICP mx?

A

mannitol IV - osmotic diuretic

raise bed to 30 degree (head)

454
Q

muscles typically spared in MND?

A

occular muscles

455
Q

typically presents with muscle wasting of the hands, numbness and tingling and possibly autonomic symptoms - eg swimmer getting tired more easily with known cervical rib?

A

neurogenic thoracic outlet syndrome

456
Q

If there is a weakness to one side of the face with forehead sparing, this is typically caused by an?

A

upper motor neurone lesion of the contralateral side to the weakness

457
Q

recommend for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours?

A

combo of thrombolysis AND thrombectomy

458
Q

Controlled hyperventilation may be used in patients with raised ICP. ?mechanism?

A

hyperventilation > reduce co2 > vasoconstriction of cerebral arteries > reduce ICP

459
Q

Drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as?

A

monotherapy - switch - do not add

460
Q

benign tumours that develop from the dura mater of the meninges? - well-defined border between the tumour and the brain parenchyma.

A

meningioma

461
Q

62M neuro clinic worsening ataxia and paraesthesia in his feet. He describes losing his footing very easily and he has had multiple falls in the last few weeks. He has a past medical history of gout and hypertension. Loss of joint position and vibration sense. He has brisk knee reflexes and absent ankle jerks. There is no muscle weakness. dx?

A

SCDC

dorsal and lateral columns affected

462
Q

widening pulse pressure
bradycardia
irregular breathing
triad?

A

cushings triad seen in ICP

worrying sign

463
Q

If a patient is on warfarin/a DOAC/ or has a bleeding disorder and they are suspected of having a TIA - mx?

A

ED urgently for imaging to r/o haemorrhage

464
Q

Barthel index is a scale that measures?

A

disability or dependence in ADLs in stroke pts

465
Q

A 23-year-old male presents to you in neurology clinic complaining of excessive daytime somnolence. He describes episodes of sudden onset sleep during the day, and at night often wakes with episodes where he is unable to move his arms or legs and describes seeing figures in the far corner of his bedroom. dx, ix?

A

narcolepsy

first line - multiple sleep latency eeg

466
Q

tx for cerebral oedema caused by brain tumour?

A

dedxamethasone

467
Q

brain mets - commonest primary>

A

lung

468
Q

38F medication review. Headaches were regular and debilitating but short-lasting (minutes) boring pain to the right side of her face, behind her eye. Right-sided tearing and nasal congestion, but no photophobia. The attacks had occurred over thirty times and could occur up to eight times a day. The neurologist recommended indomethacin. She would like a repeat prescription as since taking indomethacin the attacks have stopped. dx?

A

paroxysmal hemicrania

469
Q

The definition of a TIA is now??

A

tissue based not time based - a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction

470
Q

pt presented like meningitis but then had an absence seizure - on broad spec abx already - mx?

A

?encephalitis - start aciclovir IV in addition to abx

471
Q

Progressively worsening headache with higher cognitive function impaired =

A

urgent imaging required - ca

472
Q

isolated result of high protein in the CSF

A

GBS

473
Q

A facial palsy caused by an upper motor neuron lesion ‘spares’ the upper face i.e. forehead. also otalgia?

A

ramsay hunt syndrome

474
Q

hyponatraemia in post-op pt for subarachnoid haemorrhage pt given lots of IV fluids?

A

SIADH - cx of sah

475
Q

A 21-year-old man is hit on the left side of his face during a rugby game. He complains of double vision when both eyes are open, and it is painful to open his mouth. dx?

A

depressed # of zygoma

476
Q

NICE Head injury Head CT criteria: < 8hrs

A

with loss of consciousness or amnesia, and who are aged over 65 years old
bleeding or clotting disorder hx / on warfarin
dangerous mechanism of injury

477
Q

NICE head injury head CT criteria <1h:

A

GCS < 13 on initial assessment
GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury
suspected open or depressed skull fracture.
any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign).
post-traumatic seizure.
focal neurological deficit.
more than 1 episode of vomiting

478
Q

Elderly, alcoholic, head injury, insidiuous onset symptom -

A

subdural haematoma

479
Q

A 22-year-old male falls of a ladder. He complains of neck pain and cannot feel his legs. His GCS suddenly deteriorates and a CT head confirms an extradural haematoma. What is the best imaging for his neck?

A

ct c-spine

480
Q

An 18-year-old student is shot in the back of the head.

imaging/mx?

A

NS review even before CT head

also this if GCS<8

481
Q

will present with increased head circumferences, a bulging fontanelle and sunsetting of the eyes???

A

infants with hydrocephalus

482
Q

A 25-year-old cyclist is hit by a bus traveling at 30mph. He was not wearing a helmet. He arrives with a GCS of 3/15 and is intubated. A CT scan shows evidence of cerebral contusion but no localising clinical signs are present. What is the most appropriate course of action?

A

insertion of ICP monitoring device

ICP should raise over next few days

483
Q

diffuse axonal injury ix?

A

MRI brain

484
Q

There are 6 tests to confirm brain death;

A

pupillary reflex, corneal reflex, oculo-vestibular reflex, cough reflex, absent response to supraorbital pressure, and no spontaneous respiratory effort

485
Q

subarachnoid haemorrhage Ix?

A

CT head

if normal -> LP in 12h

486
Q

Extradural or subdural haemorrhage?

A

Extradural = lucid period, usually following major head injury. Subdural = fluctuating consciousness, often following trivial injury in the elderly or alcoholics

487
Q

Neonatal deterioration in premature babies is not infrequently due to?

A

intraventricular haemorrhage

488
Q

periorbital bruising referring to the bruising around the eye that is otherwise known as Raccoon eyes, and post-auricular bruising referring to bruising of the mastoid otherwise known as Battle’s sign. dx?

A

basilar skull #

489
Q

A 32-year-old rugby player is crushed in a scrum. He is briefly concussed but then regains consciousness. He then collapses and is brought to ED. His GCS on arrival is 6/15 and his left pupil is dilated. What is the best course of definitive management?

A

pariotemporal decompression

likely extradural

490
Q

Patients with intracranial bleeds, who become unresponsive should be managed?

A

brain CT to check for hydrocephalus (particularly with intraventricular haemorrhage)

491
Q

Following a subarachnoid haemorrhage, most intracranial aneurysms are now treated with a?

A

coil

492
Q

A 33-year-old lady develops a thunderclap headache and collapses. A CT scan shows that she has developed a subarachnoid haemorrhage. She currently has no evidence of raised intracranial pressure. Which of the following drugs should be administered?

A

nimodipine

to prevent vasospasm in aneurysmal SAHs

493
Q

presence of what in CSF indicates SAH?

A

breakdown of RBC - not RBC itself (traumatic tap)

eg bilirubin

494
Q

number 1 priority in GCS of 8 pts?

A

AIRWAY