Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Role of an association

A

Links cortical regions within a cerebral hemisphere

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2
Q

Role of a commissure

A

Links corresponding cortical regions between 2 hemispheres

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3
Q

Role of projections

A

Links cortical and subcortical regions

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4
Q

Four association fibers

A

Superior longitudinal fasciculus
Inferior longitudinal fasciculus
Uncinate fasciculus
Cingulum

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5
Q

Pathway of the superior longitudinal fasciculus

A

Connects frontal and occipital lobes (plays major roles in language, attention, memory, and emotions)

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6
Q

Pathway of the arcuate fasciculus

A

Links gyri in frontal and temporal lobes (important for language function)

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7
Q

Pathway of inferior longitudinal fasciculus

A

Connects occipital and temporal poles (visual recognition)

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8
Q

Pathway of the uncinate fasciculus

A

Connects anterior and inferior parts of frontal lobe with temporal gyri (behavior regulation)

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9
Q

Pathway of the cingulum

A

Connects frontal and parietal lobes with parahippocampal and adjacent temporal gyri

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10
Q

Cingulum is involved in:

A

Emotions, motivation, executive function (including attention), pain, and memory (including spatial processing)

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11
Q

Commissural fibers (4 of them)

A

Corpus callosum
Anterior commissure
Posterior commissure
Hippocampal commissure

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12
Q

Principal projection fibers

A

Corona radiata

Internal capsule

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13
Q

Components of the allocortex

A

Archicortex

Paleocortex

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14
Q

Structures of the archiocortex

A

Hippocampus, uncut of parahippocampus, dentate gyrus

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15
Q

Structures of the paleocortex

A

Olfactory (piriform) cortex

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16
Q

Structures of the mesocortex

A

Cingulate gyrus and remainder of parahippocampal gyrus, orbitofrontal cortex, temporal pole, anterior insula

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17
Q

Structures of the neocortex

A

Remaining 90% of cerebral cortex

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18
Q

Limbic structures (definitive ones)

A
Parahippocampal gyrus
Cingulate gyrus 
Hippocampal formation
Amygdala
Septal area (nuclei)
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19
Q

Brodmann areas of the prefrontal cortex

A

BA 9, 10, 11, 12

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20
Q

Location of BA 4

A

Precentral gyrus, anterior paracentral lobule

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21
Q

Other names for the precentral gyrus and anterior paracentral lobule

A

Primary motor area; M1

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22
Q

Location of BA 6

A

Superior and middle frontal gyri, precentral gyrus

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23
Q

Other names for the superior and middle frontal gyri and precentral gyrus

A

Premotor area, supplementary motor area

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24
Q

Location of BA 44, 45

A

Inferior frontal gyrus (opercular and triangular parts)

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25
Q

Other names for the inferior frontal gyrus

A

Broca’s area (usually on left)

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26
Q

Location of BA 6, 8

A

Premotor cortex on the lateral convexity and extends anteriorly

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27
Q

Other name for the premotor cortex on the lateral convexity

A

Frontal eye field

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28
Q

Location of BA 11, 12

A

Gyrus rectus and orbital gyri

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29
Q

Other name for the gyrus rectus

A

Prefrontal association cortex

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30
Q

Other names for the orbital gyri

A

Orbitofrontal olfactory area; prefrontal association cortex

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31
Q

Divisions of the prefrontal cortex

A

Dorsolateral

Orbitoventromedial

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32
Q

Role of the dorsolateral region of the prefrontal cortex

A

Overall management of cognitive processes such as planning, cognitive flexibility, and working memory

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33
Q

Role of the orbitoventromedial region of the prefrontal cortex

A

Decision making

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34
Q

Location of BA 1, 2, 3

A

Post central gyrus, posterior paracentral lobule

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35
Q

Other names for the post central gyrus and posterior paracentral lobule

A

Primary somatosensory area; S1

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36
Q

Location of BA 5, 7

A

Superior parietal lobule

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37
Q

Other name for the superior parietal lobule

A

Somatosensory association area

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38
Q

Location of BA 39

A

Inferior parietal lobule

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39
Q

Other names of the inferior parietal lobule

A

Angular gyrus; parietal-temporal-occipital association cortex

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40
Q

Location of BA 40

A

Inferior parietal lobule

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41
Q

Supramarginal gyrus; parietal-temporal-occipital association complex

A

Other names for the inferior parietal lobule

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42
Q

Location of BA 17

A

Banks of calcarine sulcus

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43
Q

Other names for the banks of the calcarine sulcus

A

Primary visual area; V1

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44
Q

Location of BA 18, 19

A

Surrounding 17

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45
Q

Other names for the area surrounding BA 17

A

Visual association areas; V2, V3, V4, V5

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46
Q

Location of BA 41, 42

A

Superior temporal gyrus (transverse gyri of Heschl)

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47
Q

Other names for the superior temporal gyrus at BA 41

A

Primary auditory area; A1

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48
Q

Other names for the superior temporal gyrus at BA 42

A

Auditory association area; A2

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49
Q

Location of BA 22

A

Superior temporal gyrus

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50
Q

Other names for the superior temporal gyrus at BA 22

A

Auditory association area; posterior portion (on left) is Wernicke’s area

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51
Q

Location of BA 21

A

Middle temporal gyrus

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52
Q

Other names for the middle temporal gyrus

A

Visual infernotemporal area

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53
Q

Location of BA 20

A

Inferior temporal gyrus

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54
Q

Other names for inferior temporal gyrus

A

Visual inferotemporal area

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55
Q

Location of BA 43

A

Insular cortex, frontoparietal operculum

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56
Q

Other name for the insular cortex

A

Gustatory cortex

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57
Q

Components of the basal nuclei

A
Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Globus pallidus 
Subthalamic nucleus 
Substantia nigra
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58
Q

Branches of the anterior communicating artery (ACA)

A
Orbital
Frontopolar
Callosomarginal
Pericallosal
Internal parietal
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59
Q

Anatomical segments of the middle cerebral artery

A

M1 segment
M2 segment
M3 segment
M4 segment

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60
Q

Clinical relevance of the M1 segment of the middle cerebral artery

A

Aneurysms on MCA frequently arise at bifurcation

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61
Q

Clinical relevance of the M2 segment of the middle cerebral artery

A

Occlusion may result in issues with gustation and viscerosensory cognitive processing

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62
Q

Clinical relevance of the M4 segment of the middle cerebral artery

A

Serve trunk, upper extremity, and face areas of somatomotor and somatosensory cortex; occlusion may produce deficits affecting these body regions

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63
Q

Branches of the middle cerebral artery

A
Lenticulostriate branches
Orbitofrontal
Precentral 
Central
Anterior and posterior parietal 
Angular 
Anterior, middle, and posterior temporal
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64
Q

Clinical relevance of the anterior, middle, and posterior temporal branches of the middle cerebral artery

A

Occlusion of temporal vessels may result in deficits in auditory and associative functions

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65
Q

Clinical relevance of the calcarine artery

A

Occlusion would result in deficits of primary visual function and visual association

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66
Q

Ventral anterior nuclei proposed function

A

Relays basal nuclei and cerebellar input to cortex

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67
Q

Ventral lateral nuclei proposed function

A

Relays basal nuclei and cerebellar inputs to cortex

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68
Q

Ventral posterolateral nuclei proposed function

A

Relays somatosensory spinal inputs to cortex

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69
Q

Ventral posteromedial nuclei proposed function

A

Relays somatosensory cranial nerve inputs and taste to cortex

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70
Q

Lateral dorsal nuclei proposed function

A

Unclear function; limbic system?

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71
Q

Mediodorsal nuclei proposed function

A

Limbic pathways, major relay to frontal cortex

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72
Q

Pulvinar nuclei proposed function

A

Behavioral orientation toward relevant visual and other stimuli

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73
Q

Lateral geniculate nuclei proposed function

A

Relays visual inputs to cortex

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74
Q

Medial geniculate nuclei proposed function

A

Relays auditory inputs to cortex

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75
Q

Anterior nuclei function in the ____ pathways

A

Limbic

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76
Q

Properties of the intralaminar thalamic nuclei

A

Lie within internal medullary lamina
Receive inputs from numerous pathways including basal nuclei
Have reciprocal connections with the cortex
Outputs to basal nuclei

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77
Q

Properties of the reticular thalamic nuclei

A

Do not project to cerebral cortex
Receives input from cortex and other thalamic nuclei
Makes synaptic connections with other thalamic nuclei
Consists almost entirely of inhibitory GABAergic neurons
Regulates thalamic activity

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78
Q

Structures of the epithalamus

A

Habenula

Pineal gland

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79
Q

Functions of the habenula

A

Appears to serve as a possible relay by which limbic system and hypothalamus can influence activity of the midbrain

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80
Q

Structures of the subthalamus

A

Subthalamic nucleus

Zona incerta

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81
Q

Functions of the subthalamic nucleus

A

Maintains reciprocal connections with the globus pallidus

Plays important role in regulation of motor functions by basal nuclei

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82
Q

Function of the zona incerta

A

Uncertain

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83
Q

Hypothalamic nuclei can be divided into 3 areas:

A

Periventricular nuclei
Medial hypothalamic area
Lateral hypothalamic area

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84
Q

The lateral hypothalamic area is broken down into:

A

Lateral peroptic nuclei
Lateral hypothalamic nuclei
Medial forebrain bundle

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85
Q

The medial hypothalamic area can be broken down into:

A

Preoptic area
Anterior (supraoptic) region
Middle (tuberal) region
Posterior (mammillary) region

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86
Q

The preoptic area contains the ______

A

Medial preoptic nuclei

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87
Q

The anterior (supraoptic) region contains:

A

Anterior hypothalamic nuclei
Supraoptic nuclei
Paraventricular nuclei
Suprachiasmatic nuclei

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88
Q

The middle (tuberal) region contains:

A

Arcuate nuclei
Ventromedial nuclei
Dorsomedial nuclei

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89
Q

The posterior (mammillary) region contains:

A

Medial mammillary nuclei
Intermediate mammillary nuclei
Lateral mammillary nuclei
Posterior hypothalamic nuclei

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90
Q

Function of the periventricular nuclei

A

Produces somatostatin

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91
Q

Function of the medial preoptic nuclei (preoptic area)

A

REgulation of endocrine function and temperature (heat loss [cooling])

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92
Q

Function of the anterior hypothalamic nuclei

A

Regulates temperature (heat loss [cooling])

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93
Q

Function of the supraoptic nuclei

A

Produces ADH and oxytocin

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94
Q

Function of the paraventricular nuclei

A

Produces aDH, oxytocin, and gonadotropin-releasing hormone

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95
Q

Function of the suprachiasmatic nuclei

A

“Master clock” for circadian rhythms; receives direct input from retina

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96
Q

Function of the arcuate nuclei

A

Controls anterior pituitary

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97
Q

Function of the ventromedial nuclei

A

Induces satiety

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98
Q

Function of the dorsomedial nuclei

A

Involved in behavior control

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99
Q

Function of the mammillary nuclei

A

Input from hippocampal formation via for IX, projects to anterior thalamic nucleus

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100
Q

Function of the posterior nuclei

A

Involved in thermoregulation (heat conservation [warming])

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101
Q

Function of the lateral preoptic nuclei

A

GABA and galanine projections that promote sleep onset

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102
Q

Function of the lateral hypothalamic nuclei

A

Induces eating when stimulated

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103
Q

The anterior pituitary gland ____ hormones, while the posterior pituitary gland ____ hormones

A

Produces; releases

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104
Q

Hypothalamic nuclei that have been implicated in central control of CV function

A

Paraventricular nucleus
Lateral hypothalamic area
Dorsomedial nucleus
Arcuate nucleus

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105
Q

Functions of the limbic system

A

Homeostasis
Olfaction
Memory
Emotion

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106
Q

Hippocampal formation function

A

Memory (immediate, short-term, long-term, retrograde, anterograde)

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107
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy often results from a ______

A

Thiamine (B1) deficiency

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108
Q

Symptoms of Wernicke encephalopathy

A

Opthalmoparesis/nystagmus
Ataxia
Acute altered mental status

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109
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy is/is not reversible

A

Is

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110
Q

Korsakoff syndrome results from

A

Thiamine (B1) deficiency, is secondary to a history of Wernicke encephalopathy

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111
Q

Symptoms of Korsakoff syndrome

A

Short-term memory deficits
Long-term memory deficits
Confabulation

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112
Q

Korsakoff syndrome is/is not reversible

A

Is not

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113
Q

Predominant function of the amygdala

A

Aversion center

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114
Q

A lesion to the amygdala would lead to _____

A

Placidity
Hyperorality
Hyperphagia
Hypersexuality

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115
Q

Fear is the stimulation for the ______

A

Amygdala

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116
Q

Predominant function of the nucleus accumbens

A

Gratification center

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117
Q

Joy/pleasure is the stimulation for the ______

A

Nucleus accumbens

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118
Q

A lesion to the nucleus accumbens would lead to ______

A

Addiction

Impulsive behavior

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119
Q

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome presents with _____

A
Hyperorality
Hypermetamorphosis
Placidity 
Hyperphasia 
Hypersexuality
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120
Q

Function of the septal area

A

Serves as a relay between hippocampal formation and hypothalamus

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121
Q

Damage to the suprachiasmatic nucleus would lead to ______

A

Sleeping disorder

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122
Q

Damage to the lateral nucleus would lead to ______

A

Decreased eating

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123
Q

Damage to the ventromedial nucleus would lead to _____

A

Excessive eating

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124
Q

Damage to the dorsomedial nucleus would lead to _____

A

Stimulation: Rage
Destruction: decreased aggression

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125
Q

Separates the two hemispheres of the brain

A

Medial longitudinal fissure

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126
Q

Sulcus that creates the posterior border of the frontal lobe

A

Central sulcus

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127
Q

Sulcus that creates the lateral border of the frontal lobe, between the temporal and parietal lobes

A

Sylvian fissure

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128
Q

Sulcus that creates the posterior border of the parietal lobe, in between the parietal and occipital lobes

A

Parietal-occipital sulcus

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129
Q

Sulcus found in between the superior front gyrus and the middle frontal gyrus

A

Superior frontal sulcus

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130
Q

Sulcus found between the middle frontal gyrus and the inferior frontal gyrus

A

Inferior frontal sulcus

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131
Q

Sulcus found between the precentral gyrus and the middle frontal gyrus

A

Precentral sulcus

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132
Q

Also known as the Sylvian sulcus

A

Lateral sulcus

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133
Q

Two rami found within the inferior frontal gyrus

A
Anterior ramus (found more lateral)
Ascending ramus (found more medial)
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134
Q

The precentral gyrus corresponds with BA __

A

4

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135
Q

The inferior frontal gyrus is divided into three portions: _______, _______, and ____

A
Pars orbitalis (most anterior)
Pars triangularis (in between the other two portions)
Pars opercularis (most posterior)
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136
Q

Separates the pars orbitalis from the pars triangularis

A

Anterior ramus

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137
Q

Separates the pars triangularis from the pars opercularis

A

Ascending ramus

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138
Q

Broca’s area corresponds to BA ___ and ___

A

44 and 45

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139
Q

Sulcus that separates the superior temporal gyrus from the middle temporal gyrus

A

Superior temporal sulcus

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140
Q

Sulcus that separates the middle temporal gyrus from the inferior temporal gyrus

A

Inferior temporal sulcus

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141
Q

Sulcus that separates the inferior temporal gyrus from the fusiform gyrus

A

Occipital-temporal sulcus

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142
Q

Sulcus that separates the fusiform gyrus from the parahippocampal gyrus

A

Collateral sulcus

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143
Q

The parietal lobe is broken up into the ____, _____, and _____

A

Postcentral gyrus, inferior parietal lobe, and superior parietal lobe

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144
Q

Sulcus that separates the postcentral gyrus from the inferior parietal lobe

A

Postcentral sulcus

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145
Q

Sulcus that separates the postcentral gyrus from the superior parietal lobe

A

Marginal sulcus

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146
Q

Sulcus that separates the inferior and superior parietal lobes

A

Interparietal sulcus

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147
Q

Also known as the primary somatosensory cortex

A

The postcentral gyrus

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148
Q

The postcentral gyrus corresponds to BA __, ___, and __

A

3, 1, and 2

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149
Q

Located at the posterior end of the lateral fissure

A

Supramarginal gyrus

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150
Q

Located posteriorly to the supramarginal gyrus

A

Angular gyrus

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151
Q

Wernicke’s area corresponds to BA __, __, and __

A

40, 39, and 22

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152
Q

Occipital lobe corresponds to BA __, __, and __

A

17, 18, and 19

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153
Q

Also known as the “5th lobe”

A

Insular lobe

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154
Q

Sulcus that separates the frontal lobe from the insular lobe

A

Anterior peri-insular sulcus

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155
Q

Sulcus that separates the parietal lobe from the insular lobe

A

Superior peri-insular sulcus

Posterior peri-insular sulcus

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156
Q

Sulcus that separates the temporal lobe from the insular lobe

A

Inferior peri-insular sulcus

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157
Q

Sulcus that separates the anterior lobule of the insula from the posterior lobule of the insula

A

Central sulcus of the insula

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158
Q

Also known as the anterior lobule of the insula

A

Short gyri of the insula

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159
Q

Also known as the posterior lobule of the insula

A

Long gyri of the insula

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160
Q

Linen insula is the location where the ____ penetrates the insula and is a common site of infarcts

A

Middle cerebral artery (MCA)

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161
Q

The development of the corpus callosum begins with the ___ and then continues posteriorly along the body to the ____

A

Genu; splenium

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162
Q

Sulcus that separates the frontal lobe from the cingulate gyrus

A

Cingulate sulcus

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163
Q

Sulcus that separates the cingulate gyrus from the corpus callosum

A

Callosal sulcus

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164
Q

Sulcus that separates the gyrus rectus from the rostral gyrus

A

Rostral sulcus

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165
Q

The precuneus is found in the _____ lobe

A

Parietal

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166
Q

Sulcus that separates the cuneus from the lingual gyrus

A

Calcarine sulcus

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167
Q

Also known as the “6th lobe”

A

Limbic lobe (not a true lobe)

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168
Q

Located on the basal (bottom portion) side of the brain (11 components - both gyri and sulci)

A
Lingual gyrus
Parahippocampal gyrus 
Uncus 
Collateral sulcus 
Fusiform gyrus 
Occipitotemporal sulcus 
Inferior temporal gyrus 
Lateral sulcus 
Gyrus rectus 
Olfactory sulcus 
Orbital sulci
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169
Q

Gyri of the occipital lobe

A

Superior occipital gyrus
Lateral occipital gyrus
Inferior occipital gyrus

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170
Q

Location of the orbital gyrus

A

Located closest to the eye socket

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171
Q

The inferior parietal lobe is separated into the _____ and the _______

A

Angular gyrus and the supramarginal gyrus

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172
Q

Located on the medial aspect of the brain (11 - both gyri and lobules)

A
Superior frontal gyrus
Cingulate gyrus
Gyrus rectus 
Paracentral lobule
Precuneus
Cuneus 
Lingual gyrus
Parahippocampal gyrus
Fusiform gyrus 
Uncus 
Inferior and middle temporal gyri
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173
Q

Broca’s area is responsible for

A

Motor expression of speech

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174
Q

Role of the primary motor cortex

A

To generate neural impulses that control the execution of movement

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175
Q

Function of the supplemental motor area

A

Contributes to the control of movement

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176
Q

Functions of the premotor cortex

A

Diverse and not fully understood

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177
Q

Functions of the prefrontal cortex

A

Implicated in planning complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision making, and moderating social behavior

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178
Q

How would a patient present if the had a lesion to the primary motor cortex?

A

The person will typically present with poor coordination of movements and poor dexterity

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179
Q

How would a patient present with a lesion to the supplemental or premotor cortex?

A

They would exhibit apraxia, oral apraxia, and alien hand syndrome.

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180
Q

How would a patient present with a lesion to Broca’s area?

A

Inability to create speech. Able to comprehend speech, but difficult to physically produce the words

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181
Q

How would a patient present with a lesion to the prefrontal cortex?

A

Either they would have a loss of emotions or they would have overexpression of emotions

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182
Q

How would a patient present if they had a lesion to the primary somatosensory cortex?

A

Loss of sensation to the LE on the contralateral side

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183
Q

How would a patient present if they were to have a lesion to Wernicke’s area?

A

Unable to comprehend speech. Able to physically produce speech, but unable to comprehend what they hear or even what they say

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184
Q

How would a patient present if they had a lesion to the posterior parietal cortex?

A

Apraxia, agnosia, Gertzmann syndrome

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185
Q

What is the function of the dorsal stream?

A

Connects and analyzes motion (determines “where”)

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186
Q

What is the function of the ventral stream?

A

Analyzes forms, colors, and numbers (determines the “what”)

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187
Q

How would a patient present if they had a lesion to the primary visual cortex?

A

Contralateral loss of vision in the same field of vision

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188
Q

How would a patient present with a lesion to the secondary and tertiary visual cortex?

A

Visual agnosia and color agnosia

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189
Q

Function of the superior temporal gyri

A

Interprets noises and sounds, identifies what we are hearing

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190
Q

Function of the middle temporal gyri

A

Perception of moving objects

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191
Q

Function of the inferior temporal gyri

A

Recognition of faces and shapes

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192
Q

How would a patient present if they had a lesion to the superior temporal gyri?

A

Unable to interpret the sounds they are hearing (acoustic agnosia)

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193
Q

How would a patient present if they had a lesion to the middle temporal gyri?

A

Unable to distinguish between an object that is moving and an object that is stationary (movement agnosia)

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194
Q

How would a patient present if they were to have a lesion to the inferior temporal gyri?

A

They would be unable to recognize familiar faces

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195
Q

Function of lower motor neurons

A

Efferent neurons of the PNS that connect the CNS with the muscle to be innervated

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196
Q

Function of upper motor neurons

A

Control lower motor neurons

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197
Q

Location of lower motor neurons

A

Ventral horn of the spinal cord or the cranial nerve nuclei in the brainstem

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198
Q

Location of upper motor neurons

A

Cerebral cortex or the brainstem

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199
Q

Function of the basal ganglia

A

Modulate activity of neurons of motor regions of cerebral cortex

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200
Q

Function of the cerebellum

A

Principal integrator of motor function

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201
Q

Descending tracts

A
Lateral corticospinal
Anterior coticospinal 
Reticulospinal 
Vestibulospinal 
Tectospinal
Rubrospinal
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202
Q

Descending tracts that originate in the cerebral cortex

A

Lateral corticospinal

Anterior corticospinal

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203
Q

Site of origin of the lateral corticospinal tract

A

Primary motor cortex and other frontal and parietal areas

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204
Q

Site of decussation of the lateral corticospinal tract

A

Pyramidal decussation

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205
Q

Levels of termination of the lateral corticospinal tract

A

Entire cord

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206
Q

Function of the lateral corticospinal tract

A

Movement of contralateral limbs

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207
Q

Site of origin of the anterior corticospinal tract

A

Primary and supplemental motor cortices

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208
Q

Site of decussation of the anterior corticospinal tract

A

Does not decussate

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209
Q

Levels of termination of the anterior corticospinal tract

A

Cervical and upper thoracic cord

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210
Q

Function of the anterior corticospinal tract

A

Control of bilateral axial and girdle muscles

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211
Q

Neurons located more posterior innervate ______

A

Flexors

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212
Q

Neurons located more anterior innervate ____

A

Extensors

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213
Q

Neurons located medially innervate ______ and ______ musculature

A

Axial and limb girdle

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214
Q

Neurons located laterally innervate _____ parts of extremities

A

Distal

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215
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract arise?

A

Cerebral cortex

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216
Q

Descent of the corticospinal tract

A

Internal capsule of telencephalon
Cerebral peduncles
Base of brainstem to medullary pyramids

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217
Q

Majority of fibers cross at junction of ____ and ____ at pyramidal decussation to form lateral corticospinal tract

A

Medulla and spinal cord

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218
Q

Remaining fibers of the corticospinal tract remain uncrossed and descend as _______

A

Anterior corticospinal tract

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219
Q

The corticospinal tract originates from 3 cortical regions

A

Primary motor cortex
Primary somatosensory cortex
Supplementary motor area and premotor area

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220
Q

Axons of the corticospinal tract from the cortex enter ____ ____ and descend toward internal capsule

A

Corona radiata

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221
Q

Components of the internal capsule

A

Anterior limb
Genu (location of corticobulbar fibers)
Posterior limb (location of corticospinal fibers)

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222
Q

In the internal capsule, motor fibers from most anterior and medial to progressively posterior and lateral supply the:

A

Face
Arm
Trunk
Leg

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223
Q

Location of corticospinal fibers throughout the brainstem

A

Midbrain - middle third of cerebral peduncle
Basilar pons - fibers pass between masses of pontine nuclei
Medulla - fibers aggregate on ventral surface coursing within the pyramids

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224
Q

Crossed fibers form the ____ corticospinal tract

A

Lateral

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225
Q

Uncrossed fibers form the _____ corticospinal tract

A

Anterior

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226
Q

Lateral corticospinal fibers innervate ____ aspects of ventral horn and serve to control movements of the _____

A

Lateral; extremities

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227
Q

Anterior corticospinal tract fibers innervate ____ aspect of ventral horn to regulate _____ mechanisms

A

Medial; postural

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228
Q

Most of the corticobulbar fibers innervate the ____ bilaterally

A

Cranial nerve nuclei

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229
Q

Cranial nerve nuclei that are innervated contralaterally by the corticobulbar fibers

A

VII

XII

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230
Q

Connects the cerebral cortex to the red nucleus

A

Corticorubral fibers

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231
Q

Connects the cerebral cortex to pontine and medullary reticular formation nuclei

A

Cortcioreticular fibers

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232
Q

Connects vertebral cortex to pons

A

Corticopontine fibers

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233
Q

Descending pathways (8 of them)

A
Medial vestibulospinal tract 
Tectospinal tract
Lateral corticospinal tract
Rubrospinal tract
Medullary reticulospinal tract
Pontine reticulospinal tract
Lateral vestibulospinal tract
Anterior corticospinal tract
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234
Q

Signs of a lower motor neuron lesion

A

Flaccid paralysis followed eventually by atrophy
Fibrillations and fasciculations
Hypotonia
Hyporeflexia or areflexia

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235
Q

Signs of an upper motor neuron lesion

A

Muscles are initially weak and flaccid but eventually become spastic
Hypertonia
Hyperreflexia
Usually affect groups of muscles
Certain pathologic reflexes and signs often appear (e.g. Babinski sign)

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236
Q

Ascending tracts usually represent various types of ___ input

A

Sensory

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237
Q

Ascending tracts include:

A

Gracile and cuneate fasciculi = dorsal (posterior) columns

Anterolateral system = spinothalamic

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238
Q

Includes gracile and cuneate tracts which receive afferents carrying fine, discriminative touch (tactile), vibratory sense and proprioception

A

Posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway

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239
Q

Part of the dorsal column that carries sensory information from the lower body

A

Gracilis fascicle

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240
Q

Part of the dorsal column that carries sensory information from the upper body

A

Cuneate fascicle

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241
Q

The 1st order neurons in the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway travel ______ through the spinal cord

A

Ipsilaterally

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242
Q

Where do the 1st order neurons of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway synapse?

A

The medulla in their respective nuclei (gracilis or cuneate)

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243
Q

Where do the 2nd order neurons in the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway decussate?

A

Medulla

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244
Q

Where do the 2nd order neurons in the dorsal column-lemniscus pathway synapse?

A

The ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus

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245
Q

Where do the tertiary neurons of the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway synapse?

A

Primary somatosensory cortex

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246
Q

The spinothalamic tract relays information regarding: _____, ____, _____, and ______

A

Crude touch, pain, pressure, temperature

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247
Q

The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway carries information including: _____, _______, __________, and _____

A

Vibration, proprioception, two-point discrimination, and touch

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248
Q

Where do 1st order neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse?

A

In the posterior or dorsal horn

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249
Q

The anterior spinothalamic tract carries what type of information?

A

Crude touch and pressure

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250
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tract carries what type of information?

A

Pain and temperature

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251
Q

Where do the 2nd order neurons of the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

In the anterior commissure of the spinal cord

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252
Q

Neurons in the spinothalamic tract travel _______ through the spinal cord

A

Contralaterally

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253
Q

Where do 2nd order neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse?

A

The ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus

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254
Q

Where do 3rd order neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse?

A

Primary somatosensory cortex

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255
Q

What type of information does the spinocerebellar tract carry?

A

Helps coordinate muscles in trunk and limbs, unconscious proprioception sensations

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256
Q

Where do 1st order neurons of the spinocerebellar tract synapse?

A

In the ipsilateral gray matter of the spinal cord

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257
Q

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract fibers do/do not stay on the ipsilateral side of the spinal cord (on the side where the 1st order neurons synapse)

A

Do

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258
Q

Ventral spinocerebellar tract fibers do/do not stay on the ipsilateral side of the spinal cord (from where the 1st order neurons synapse)

A

Do not

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259
Q

The ventral spinocerebellar tract will decussate a second time at what location?

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

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260
Q

Where do the neurons of the ventral spinocerebellar tract synapse?

A

Ipsilateral cerebellar cortex

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261
Q

Where do the fibers off the dorsal spinocerebellar tract travel to?

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

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262
Q

Where do the neurons in the dorsal spinocerebellar tract synapse?

A

Ipsilateral cerebellar cortex

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263
Q

Descending tracts (motor pathways) only have how many neurons within a tract?

A

Two (upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons)

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264
Q

Where are the upper motor neurons located?

A

Cerebral cortex

Deep nuclei of brainstem

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265
Q

Where are lower motor neurons located?

A

Anterior or ventral horns of spinal cord

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266
Q

Direct motor pathways are also known as _____

A

Pyramidal tracts

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267
Q

What information do the pyramidal tracts carry?

A

Fine, conscious muscle movements

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268
Q

What are the upper motor neurons of the pyramidal tracts?

A

Pyramidal cells

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269
Q

Where are pyramidal cells located?

A

Primary motor cortex

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270
Q

What is the role of the anterior corticospinal tract?

A

Controls muscle of trunk

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271
Q

What portions of the brain does the anterior corticospinal tract travel through?

A

Internal capsule

Cerebral peduncle

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272
Q

Where do the neurons in the anterior corticospinal tract decussate?

A

In the anterior commissure at the desired spinal level

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273
Q

Where do upper motor neurons of the anterior corticospinal tract synapse with lower motor neurons?

A

In the ventral horn of the spinal cord

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274
Q

What structures in the brain do the fibers of the lateral corticospinal tract travel through?

A

Internal capsule

Cerebral peduncle

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275
Q

Where do the neurons of the lateral corticospinal tract decussate

A

At the decussation of pyramids in the medulla

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276
Q

Where do upper motor neurons of the lateral corticospinal tract synapse with lower motor neurons?

A

At the ventral horn of the spinal cord, contralateral side

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277
Q

The upper motor neurons of the corticobulbar pathway synapse, in the brainstem, with contralateral lower motor neurons for: __, __, __, and __

A

CN V, CN VII, CN XI, and CN XII

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278
Q

What information do the extra pyramidal tracts carry?

A

Innervate larger muscles

Balance, body posture, coarse movements

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279
Q

Upper neurons of the extrapyramidal tracts originate from the _____

A

Deep nuclei of the brainstem

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280
Q

What information do the fibers of the lateral vestibulospinal tract carry?

A

Help provide inputs to promote balance of the extensor muscles of trunk and extremities

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281
Q

Within the medulla, there are four vestibular nuclei: ____, ____, ____, and ____

A

Superior, medial, lateral, and inferior

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282
Q

The lateral vestibular nucleus contains upper motor neurons that make up the _________ tract

A

Vestibulospinal tract

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283
Q

What is the role of the four vestibular nuclei in the medulla?

A

They gather information about balance

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284
Q

What information do the fibers of the reticulospinal tract carry?

A

Transmit motor input for extensor muscles, to help maintain balance

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285
Q

The reticular formation is in charge of: ____, _____, ______, and _____

A

Sleep, alter ness, cardiovascular control, and motor control

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286
Q

The fibers of the pontine (medial) reticulospinal tract descend to _____ spinal cord

A

Ipsilateral

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287
Q

The neurons of the pontine (medial) reticulospinal tract directly.indirectly activate lower motor neurons

A

Indirectly

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288
Q

The fibers of the medullary (lateral) reticulospinal tract directly or indirectly ____ lower motor neurons

A

Inhibit

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289
Q

Role fo the tectospinal tract

A

Transmits motor impulses for neck muscles

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290
Q

Role of the rubrospinal tract

A

Transmits motor impulses for flexor muscles of extremities

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291
Q

The ___ _____ houses the upper motor neurons of the rubrospinal tract

A

Red nucleus

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292
Q

Motor areas of the brain

A

Primary motor cortex
Premotor cortex
Frontal eye field
Broca’s area

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293
Q

Functions of the prefrontal cortex

A

Working memory for spatial tasks
Executive area for task management
Working memory for object-recall tasks
Solving complex multi-task problems

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294
Q

Somatic sensation areas

A

Primary somatosensory cortex

Somatosensory association cortex

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295
Q

Functions is related to taste

A

Gustatory cortex

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296
Q

The corpus callosum is the ____ commissure

A

Largest

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297
Q

Function of the corpus callosum

A

Connects the right and left hemispheres of the brain

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298
Q

Ascending tracts

A

Dorsal columns

Spinothalamic

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299
Q

What are the fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus a part of?

A

Dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway

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300
Q

Where do the secondary neurons of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway synapse?

A

Ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus

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301
Q

The fasciculus gracilis conveys info from _____

A

Lower limbs

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302
Q

The fasciculus cuneatus conveys info from ____

A

Upper limbs

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303
Q

This pathway shifts its position as it ascends through the brainstem but maintains somatotopic organization

A

Medial lemniscus

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304
Q

Neurons, in the posterior dorsal-medial lemniscal pathway, from the primary somatosensory cortex then send info to _____________ and __________

A

Secondary somatosensory association cortex

Superior parietal lobule

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305
Q

What nuclei provide sensory systems for the face and head?

A

Chief (main or principal) trigeminal sensory nucleus

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

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306
Q

Trigeminal lemniscus arises from _____

A

Chief sensory nucleus

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307
Q

Trigeminothalamic tract arises from _______

A

Spinal trigeminal tract

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308
Q

Where do the first order neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse on second order neurons?

A

In laminae I and V

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309
Q

Where do the neurons of the spinothalamic tract synapse in the thalamus?

A

Ventral posterolateral nucleus

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310
Q

In the dorsal columns, the more medial you are correlates to what part of the body?

A

Lower part of the body

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311
Q

In the anterolateral system, the more medial you are in the spinal cord corresponds to what portion of the body?

A

The upper portion (e.g. neck and then descends as you progress laterally)

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312
Q

What symptoms would you expect to see with an upper motor neuron lesion? (E.g. Brown-Sequard Syndrome)

A

Weakness, hyperreflexia, and increased tone

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313
Q

What symptoms would you expect to see with a lower motor neuron lesion? (E.g. Brown-Sequard Syndrome)

A

Weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, hyporeflexia, decreased tone

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314
Q

Motor function of the cerebral cortex

A

Most important source of upper motor neurons

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315
Q

Motor function of the basal nuclei

A

Modulate activity of neurons of motor regions of cerebral cortex

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316
Q

Motor function of cerebellum

A

Principal integrator of motor function

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317
Q

Motor function of brainstem

A

Upper motor neurons give rise to spinal tracts that exert different influences on spinal motor neurons

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318
Q

Descending tracts

A

Lateral corticospinal

Anterior corticospinal

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319
Q

Descending tracts that originate in the cerebral cortex

A

Lateral corticospinal

Anterior corticospinal

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320
Q

Descending tracts that originate in the brainstem

A

Reticulospinal
Vestibulospinal
Tectospinal
Rubrospinal

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321
Q

Traditional naming for somatic motor nerve modality

A

General somatic efferent (GSE)

Special somatic efferent (SSE)

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322
Q

Traditional name for visceral motor (PS) nerve modality

A

General visceral efferent (GVE)

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323
Q

Traditional name for branchial (“somatic”) motor nerve modality

A

Special visceral efferent (SVE)

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324
Q

Traditional name for somatic sensory nerve modality

A

General somatic afferent (GSA)

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325
Q

Traditional name for visceral sensory nerve modality

A

General visceral afferent (GVA)

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326
Q

Traditional name for special (visceral) sensory (taste, smell) nerve modalities

A

Special visceral afferent (SVA)

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327
Q

Traditional name for special (somatic) sensory (vision, hearing, equilibrium) nerve modalities

A

Special somatic afferent (SSA)

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328
Q

Cranial nerves that are classified as somatic motor (GSE) nerves

A

CN III, IV, VI, XII

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329
Q

Cranial nerves that are classified as branchial motor (SVE) nerves

A

CN V, VII, IX, X, XI

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330
Q

Cranial nerves that are classified as parasympathetic (GVE) nerves

A

CN III, VII, IX, X

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331
Q

Brainstem nuclei for CN III, IV, VI, XII

A

Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, and hypoglossal

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332
Q

Brainstem nuclei for CN V

A

Motor nucleus of CN V

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333
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN VII

A

Facial nucleus

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334
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN IX, X

A

Nucleus ambiguus

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335
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN XI

A

Accessory spinal nucleus

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336
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN III

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

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337
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN VII

A

Superior salivatory nucleus

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338
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN IX

A

Inferior salivatory nucleus

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339
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN X

A

Dorsal motor nucleus of CN X

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340
Q

Cranial nerves classified as visceral sensory (SVA) nerves

A

CN VII, IX, X

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341
Q

Cranial nerves classified as visceral sensory (GVA) nerves

A

CN IX, X

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342
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN VII, IX, X

A

Nucleus solitarius (rostral portion, gustatory nucleus)

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343
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN IX, X

A

Nucleus solitarius (caudal portion, cardiorespiratory nucleus)

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344
Q

Cranial nerves classified as general somatic sensory (GSA) nerves

A

CN V, VII, IX, X

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345
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN V, VII, IX, X

A

Trigeminal nuclei

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346
Q

Cranial nerves classified as special somatic sensory (SSA) nerves

A

CN VIII

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347
Q

Brainstem nuclei of CN VIII

A

Cochlear nuclei, vestibular nuclei

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348
Q

Motor nuclei are generally located _____, while sensory nuclei are generally located _____

A

Medially; laterally

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349
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the hypoglossal nerve presents with:

A

Ipsilateral tongue weakness (tongue deviates to affected side when protruded)

350
Q

LMN clinical disorder of spinal accessory nerve presents with:

A

Ipsilateral weakness of shoulder shrug and weakness to turn head to opposite side of lesion

351
Q

The superior vagal ganglion provide somatic sensory innervation to the :

A

Pharynx, larynx above vocal folds, small area of ear, part of EAM, posterior dura

352
Q

Inferior vagal ganglion provides innervation to:

A

Visceral in neck, thorax, abdomen

353
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the vagus nerve would present with:

A

Paralysis of laryngeal muscles, paresis of pharynx, uvula deviated toward unaffected side, hoarseness and difficulty swallowing, a phobia and stridor (if bilateral)

354
Q

Superior ganglion of glossopharyngeal nerve provides innervation to:

A

Small area of pinna, Eustachian tube, inner tympanic membrane, mucosa of middle ear, upper pharynx, tonsils, posterior 1/3 of tongue

355
Q

Inferior ganglion of the glossopharyngeal nerve provides innervation to:

A

Parotid gland, oropharynx, carotid body and sinus

356
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the glossopharyngeal nerve would present with:

A

Loss of taste sensation from posterior 1/3 of tongue, loss of secretion of parotid gland, sore throat

357
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the facial nerve would present with:

A

Loss of facial expression on affected side, unable to close eye on affected side, hyperacusis, loss of taste sensation from anterior 2/3 of tongue, loss of general sensation to back of ear and EAM

358
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the abducens nerve would present with:

A

Strabismus (inability of eyes to align), diplopia, affected eye cannot abduct and will lie medially due to unopposed medial rectus

359
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the trochlear nerve would present with:

A

Strabismus, diplopia, difficulty in attempting to look down and in

360
Q

LMN clinical disorder of the oculomotor nerve would present with:

A

Loss of function of muscles supplied, loss of pupillary light reflex and accommodation

361
Q

Anterior to the central sulcus is the ______

A

Frontal lobe

362
Q

Posterior to the central sulcus is the ______

A

Parietal lobe

363
Q

The front of the corpus callosum is called the _____

A

Genu

364
Q

The posterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the _____

A

Splenium

365
Q

The _____ is the smaller myelinated area that is found inferior to the corpus callosum

A

Fornix

366
Q

Function of the fornix

A

Carries nerves from the hippocampus

367
Q

Found in between the corpus callosum and the fornix

A

Septum pellucidum

368
Q

What is the function of the pineal glad?

A

Produces melatonin to help regulate sleep cycle

369
Q

Where is the thalamus located?

A

In the wall of the third ventricle

370
Q

What is the role of the thalamus?

A

Acts as a relay station for information coming in from the body

371
Q

Where is the hypothalamus located?

A

Below the thalamus

372
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Maintains homeostasis

373
Q

Where is the pituitary gland located?

A

Anterior and inferior to the hypothalamus (connected to the hypothalamus via a connecting stalk)

374
Q

A tumor in the pituitary gland tends to impinge on what?

A

The optic chiasm

375
Q

Function of the calliculi

A

Allow us to change our head position, but still have our eyes face forward

376
Q

Function of mammillary bodies

A

Involved in memory

377
Q

Function of glial cells

A

Supporting cells for the neurons

378
Q

The cerebellum is connected to all three portions of the ______

A

Brainstem

379
Q

The superior calliculi are associated with the _____ cortex

A

Visual

380
Q

The inferior calliculi are associated with _____

A

Muscles in the neck, react to sounds and direct you to turn towards the sound

381
Q

Function of the Substantia nigra

A

Contain dopamnergic nerves

382
Q

The pons is connected to the cerebellum by the _____

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

383
Q

the fourth ventricle is found at the level of the ____

A

Pons

384
Q

The medulla is attached to the cerebellum by the _____

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

385
Q

The olive is located ____

A

On the lateral aspect of the medulla

386
Q

The fibers found in the olive are associated with _______ and ______

A

Movement and hearing

387
Q

List the structures from medial to lateral:
Spinal nucleus (CN V)
Hypoglossal nuclei
Nucleus ambiguus

A

Hypoglossal nuclei
Nucleus ambiguus
Spinal nucleus (CN V)

388
Q

At a secondary caudal level of the medulla, what is located most posterolateral?

A

Accessory cuneate nucleus

389
Q

At a secondary caudal level of the medulla, what two structures are located medial to the accessory cuneate nucleus?

A

Spinal tract (CN V) and spinal nucleus (CN V)

390
Q

At a secondary caudal level of the medulla, what is located most medial?

A

Hypoglossal nucleus

391
Q

At a secondary level of the medulla, what is located most anterior?

A

Decussation of medial lemniscus

392
Q

At the primary rostral level of the medulla, what is located most posterolateral?

A

Nucleus spinal tract of trigemnial nerve

393
Q

At the primary rostral level of the medulla, what is located anterior and medial to the nucleus spinal tract of trigemnial nerve?

A

Nucleus ambiguus

394
Q

At the primary rostral level of the medulla, what is located anterior and lateral of the nucleus ambiguus?

A

Spinothalamic tract

395
Q

When more rostral in the medulla, the spinothalamic tract is located _______ from the side it travels in the spinal cord

A

Contralaterally

396
Q

When more rostral in the medulla, the hypoglossal nerve is found _______ from where it is found more caudal in the medulla

A

Contralaterally

397
Q

What supplies the posterolateral portion of the medulla?

A

Vertebral artery and PICA

398
Q

What supplies the anterolateral portion of the medulla?

A

Vertebral artery

399
Q

What supplies the medial portion of the medulla?

A

Vertebral artery (paramedical branches) and anterior spinal artery

400
Q

Cause of medial medullary syndrome (Dejerine’s syndrome)

A

Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery or paramedical branches of the vertebral artery

401
Q

Structures involved in medial medullary syndrome

A

Pyramid (corticospinal tract)
Medial lemniscus
Hypoglossal nerve

402
Q

Presentation of medial medullary syndrome

A

Contralateral weakness of body (hemiplagia)
Contralateral loss of vibration, position, and discriminatory touch
Ipsilateral weakness of tongue

403
Q

Cause of lateral medullary syndrome

A

Disruption of the vertebral artery or posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)

404
Q

Structures involved in lateral medullary syndrome

A

Spinal trigeminal tract and nucleus
Nucleus ambiguus
Vestibular nuclei
Anterolateral system (spinothalamic tact)
Hypothalamospinal fibers (sympathetic fibers)

405
Q

Presentation of lateral medullary syndrome

A

Ipsilateral loss of pain and thermal sense of the face
Nystagmus, vertigo, nausea, ataxia
Contralateral loss of pain and thermal sense of the body (sparing the face)
Horner’s syndrome

406
Q

When there is deviation of the uvula, what side does the uvula deviate towards?

A

The contralateral side of the lesion

407
Q

The sympathetic tract runs alongside the ______ tract

A

Spinothalamic

408
Q

What deficit is seen is the hypoglossal nerve/nucleus is damaged?

A

Ipsilateral paralysis of tongue (tongue deviates towards side of lesion)

409
Q

What deficit is seen if the corticospinal fibers are damaged?

A

Contralateral hemiplegia

410
Q

What deficit is seen if the medial lemniscus is damaged?

A

Contralateral loss of discriminative touch, vibratory and position sense on UE, trunk, and LE

411
Q

What deficit is seen if the spinal trigemnial tract and nucleus are damaged?

A

Ipsilateral loss of pain and thermal sense on face

412
Q

What deficit is seen if the nucleus ambiguus is damaged?

A

Dysphagia, hoarseness, deviation of uvula to contralateral side

413
Q

What deficit is seen if the vestibular nuclei are damaged?

A

Nystagmus, vertigo, nausea

414
Q

What deficit is seen if the anterolateral system (spinothalamic tract) is damaged?

A

Contralateral loss of pain and thermal sense on UE, trunk, and LE

415
Q

What deficit is seen is the hypothalamospinal fibers are damaged?

A

Horner’s syndrome

416
Q

What is the dorsal portion of the pons called?

A

Tegmentum

417
Q

What is the ventral portion of the pons called?

A

Basilar

418
Q

In the most inferior portion of the pons, what structure is posterolateral?

A

Vestibular nuclei

419
Q

In the inferior portion of the pons, what is located medial to the spinothalamic tract?

A

Facial nucleus

420
Q

In the inferior portion of the pons, where is the corticospinal tract located?

A

Anteriorly

421
Q

In the middle portion of the pons, what is located medial to the middle cerebellar peduncle?

A

Motor nucleus of trigeminal nerve

422
Q

In the middle portion of the pons, what is located anterior and medial to the MLF?

A

Medial lemniscus

423
Q

In the superior portion of the pons, the middle cerebellar peduncle is replaced by the ______

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

424
Q

What supply’s the medial portion of the pons?

A

Basilar artery (paramedian branches)

425
Q

What supplies the lateral portion of the rostral pons?

A

Basilar artery (circumferential branches = lateral pontine arteries)

426
Q

What supplies the dorsal portion of the rostral pons?

A

Superior cerebellar artery (SCA)

427
Q

What supplies the lateral portion of the caudal pons?

A

AICA and basilar artery (circumferential branches = lateral pontine arteries)

428
Q

What causes medial pontine syndrome?

A

Occlusion of the paramedian branches of basilar artery

429
Q

What structures are involved in medial pontine syndrome?

A

Corticospinal tract
Medial Lemniscus
CN VI (abducens nerve) fibers
Pontine gaze center

430
Q

What is the general presentation of medial pontine syndrome?

A

Contralateral hemiplegia
Contralateral loss of position and vibratory sense of body
Ipsilateral lateral rectus muscle paralysis
Paralysis of conjugate gaze toward side of lesion; diplopia

431
Q

Medial pontine syndrome is also known as _____ or ______ syndrome

A

Foville; Raymond

432
Q

What causes lateral pontine syndrome?

A

Disruption of the blood supply through the circumferential branches of basilar artery or AICA

433
Q

What structures are involved in lateral pontine syndrome?

A

Middle and superior cerebellar peduncles
Vestibular and cochlear nerves and nuclei (caudal)
+/- CN VII motor nucleus (caudal)
+/- CN V motor nucleus (mid/rostral)
Descending hypothalamospinal fibers
Spinal trigeminal tract and nucleus (mid)
Spinothalamic tract

434
Q

What is the presentation for lateral pontine syndrome?

A

Ataxia, unsteady gait, falling towards the side of lesion
Vertigo, nausea, nystagmus, deafness, tinnitus
+/- ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles
+/- ipsilateral paralysis of masticatory muscles
Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome
Ipsilateral loss of pain and thermal sense from face
Contralateral loss of pain and thermal sense from body (excluding face)

435
Q

Also know as Millard-Gubier

A

Lateral pontine syndrome

436
Q

Generally, when the caudal portion of the pons is damaged, what structures will be affected?

A

CN VI and VII

Vestibulocochlear nerve fibers

437
Q

Generally, is the rostral portion of the pons is damaged, what structures will be affected?

A

Spinal trigeminal tract and motor nucleus CN V

438
Q

Generally, is the medial portion of the pons is damaged, what structure will be affected?

A

CN VI

439
Q

Generally, is the lateral portion of the pons is damaged, what structures will be affected?

A

Vestibulocochlear function
CN V
CN VII

440
Q

What part of the pons is involved in one-and-a-half syndrome?

A

Dorsomedian pontine tegmentum

441
Q

What structures are involved in one-and-a-half syndrome?

A

Abducens nucleus
MLF
Paramedian pontine reticular formation

442
Q

What causes one-and-a-half syndrome?

A

Damage due to lack of blood flow from the paramedian branches of basilar artery or demyelinating disease

443
Q

What is the presentation for one-and-a-half syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral lateral gaze paralysis
Paralysis of conjugate gaze toward side of lesion
Ipsilateral medial gaze paralysis

444
Q

The basilar pons is usually damaged unilaterally/bilaterally in locked-in syndrome

A

Bilaterally

445
Q

Locked-in syndrome is caused by

A

Clot or stroke that cuts off blood supply from the bilateral basilar artery

446
Q

What structures are involved in locked-in syndrome?

A

Corticospinal tract

Corticobulbular tract

447
Q

What is the presentation of locked-in syndrome?

A

Paralysis of extremities
Paralysis of most cranial nerves
Preservation of blinking and some eye movements (CN III and IV are unaffected)

448
Q

Cerebellum function (5 of them)

A

Helps in maintenance of balance and posture
Regulation of eye movements
Coordination of ongoing movement including sequencing of movements in time and space
Motor planning and motor learning
Contributes to coordination and sequencing of cognitive processing

449
Q

Cerebellar lesions fo not lead to paralysis but lead to ____

A

Ataxia

450
Q

Overall term to describe the work of the cerebellum:

A

Sensorimotor integration

451
Q

Bundle contains mainly fibers that arise in spinal cord and medulla that form reciprocal connections between cerebellum and vestibular structures (mostly afferents to cerebellum)

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

452
Q

Continuous with basilar pons (exiting roots of trigeminal nerve mark boundary), mainly conveys pontocerebellar fibers that arise from pontine nuclei (mostly afferents to cerebellum)

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

453
Q

Contains predominantly cerebellar efferent fibers that originate in cerebellar nuclei then travel to brainstem and diencephalon, decussate in midbrain

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

454
Q

Cerebellar lobes (3 of them)

A
Anterior lobe (spinocerebellum)
Posterior lobe (pontocerebellum)
Flocculonodular lobe (vestibulocerebellum)
455
Q

Lays immediately adjacent to midline, functionally related to vermis zone, projects bilaterally through inferior cerebellar peduncles to brainstem and inhibits target (GABA)

A

Fastigial nucleus

456
Q

Functionally related to intermediate zone

A

Globose nucleus and emboliform nucleus (interposed nucleus)

457
Q

Appears as large, undulating sheet of cells; functionally related to lateral zone

A

Dentate nucleus

458
Q

Three laters in cerebellar cortex:

A

A superficial molecular layer
An intermediate layer of large cells: Purkinje cell layer
Deep layer of densely packed cells: Granule cell layer

459
Q

Large, goblet-shaped cell body

Fan-shaped dendritic tree extending into the molecular layer

A

Purkinje cells

460
Q

Axons of ____ cells are the only fibers to exit the cerebellar cortex

A

Purkinje cells

461
Q

Arise from numerous regions
Ascend through cerebellar white matter to form excitatory synapses onto dendrites of granule cells and Golgi cells (Golgi cell axons form inhibitory synapse on granule cells)

A

Mossy fibers

462
Q

Arise exclusively from neurons in contralateral inferior Oliver’s nucleus
Wrap around cell body and dendrites of Purkinje cells
Each climbing fiber form excitatory synapses with 1 Purkinje cell

A

Climbing fibers

463
Q

Input to cerebellum is from _____ and _______ from spinocerebellar/brainstem sources and inferior olive, respectively

A

Mossy; climbing fibers

464
Q

Output from cerebellar cortex to deep cerebellar nuclei is via _____

A

Purkinje cells

465
Q

Output from deep cerebellar nuclei to descending motor systems is via _____ ______ ______

A

Deep cerebellar neurons

466
Q

Provides proprioception info from lower limb and lower trunk

A

Posterior spinocerebellar tract

467
Q

Provides proprioception info from upper limb

A

Cuneocerebellar tract

468
Q

Conveys info about whole lower limb movements and postural adjustments to cerebellum

A

Anterior spinocerebellar tract

469
Q

Conveys info about whole upper limb movements and postural adjustments to cerebellum

A

Rostral spinocerebellar tract

470
Q

Pathway of afferents from cerebral cortex

A

Cerebral cortex -> internal capsule -> deep pontine nuclei -> transverse pontine fibers -> contralateral middle cerebellar peduncle -> anterior and posterior cerebellar lobes

471
Q

Info transmitted by frontopontine fibers

A

Motor from cortical motor regions

472
Q

Info transmitted by parietopontine fibers

A

Planning and programming

473
Q

Info transmitted by temporopontine fibers

A

Auditory information

474
Q

Info transmitted by occipitopontine fibers

A

Visual information

475
Q

Afferent sources to cerebellum from brainstem

A

Olivocerebellar fibers

Pontocerebellar fibers

476
Q

Inputs to inferior oligarchs nucleus:

A

Spinal cord and cerebral cortex

477
Q

Reticular formation function

A

Modulates spinal reflexes, principally extensor muscles

478
Q

____ cells transmit information from the cerebellar cortex to the deep cerebellar nuclei

A

Purkinje

479
Q

Purkinje cells associated with spinocerebellum and vestibulocerebellum project to ______ nucleus

A

Fastigial

480
Q

Purkinje cells associated with pontocerebellum project to ____ and ____ nuclei

A

Interposed; dentate

481
Q

Role of vestibular-cerebellar feedback pathway

A

Enables the cerebellum to regulate the activity of neurons in the medial and lateral vestibular nucleus that control motor neuron activity within the spinal cord and brainstem
Regulates balance and eye movements

482
Q

Provides excitatory inputs via the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

Fastigial neurons

483
Q

Spinocerebellum output

A

Purkinje cell axons in the anterior lobe play an important role in extensor motor tone and general control over axial muscles and limb extensors
Regulates body and limb movements

484
Q

Corresponding anatomy to the vestibulocerebellum

A

Flocculonodular lobe

485
Q

Cerebellar nuclei of the vestibulocerebellum

A

Fastigial nucleus

486
Q

A lesion to the vestibulocerebellum would lead to _____

A

Problems with balance, gait and eye movements, titubation, truncated ataxia

487
Q

Corresponding anatomy to spinocerebellum

A

Anterior lobe

488
Q

Cerebellar nuclei of spinocerebellum

A

Fastigial nucleus

489
Q

A lesion to the spinocerebellum would lead to _____

A

Movement disorders, gait instability

490
Q

Corresponding anatomy for pontocerebellum

A

Posterior lobe

491
Q

Cerebellar nuclei of pontocerebellum

A

Dentate nucleus and interposed nuclei

492
Q

A lesion to the pontocerebellum would lead to _____

A

Dysmetria and breakdown of motor timing, hypotonia, decrease in deep tendon reflexes, ataxia in the extremities, unsteady gait and tendency to lean or fall to the side of the lesion

493
Q

Input for vestibulocerebellum

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncles

494
Q

Output for vestibulocerebellum

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncles

495
Q

Input for spinocerebellum

A

Inferior and superior cerebellar peduncles

496
Q

Output for spinocerebellum

A

Superior cerebellar peduncles

497
Q

Input for pontocerebellum

A

Middle cerebellar peduncles

498
Q

Output for pontocerebellum

A

Superior cerebellar peduncles

499
Q

Where the 4th ventricle narrows to central canal

A

Obex

500
Q

Floor of 4th ventricle

A

Rhomboid fossa

501
Q

Contain corresponding nuclei

A

Trigones

502
Q

Overlies spinal tract of trigeminal nerve

A

Tuberculum cinereum

503
Q

Blood supply to the medial medulla

A

Vertebral artery (paramedian branches) and anterior spinal artery

504
Q

Blood supply to the anterolateral medulla

A

Vertebral artery

505
Q

Blood supply to the posterolateral medulla

A

Vertebral artery and PICA

506
Q

The dorsal portion of the midbrain is called the ____

A

Rectus

507
Q

Receives ascending inputs via the lateral lemniscus from the superior Oliver your nuclei

A

Inferior colliculus

508
Q

Represents an important relay component of the auditory pathway

A

Inferior colliculus

509
Q

Sends projections to cervical spinal cord via tectospinal tract to produce reflex movements of the head and neck in response to sensory inputs
Contributes to the regulation of oculomotor responses

A

Superior colliculus

510
Q

Role of the periaqueductal gray

A

Regulation of autonomic functions
Affective and emotional processes (e.g. fear and anxiety)
Modulation of pain impulses

511
Q

Function of pars compacta of substantia nigra

A

Synthesize and release dopamine

512
Q

Function of the pars reticulata of the substantia nigra

A

Synthesize and release GABA

513
Q

Associated with loss of dopamine-containing cells in pars compacta of substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s disease

514
Q

Supplies the posterior portion of the midbrain

A

SCA and proximal PCA

515
Q

Supplies the anteriolateral portion of the midbrain

A

Proximal PCA

516
Q

Supplies the anteriomedial portion of the midbrain

A

Paramedian branches at top basilar artery (interpeduncular fossa)

517
Q

Found at the anterior portion of the PAG in the caudal midbrain

A

CN IV

518
Q

Found in the medial portion of the caudal midbrain

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

519
Q

Found medial to the crus cerebri in the caudal midbrain

A

Substantia nigra

520
Q

Found on the posterior aspect of the rostral midbrain

A

Superior colliculus

521
Q

Found on the anterior portion of the PAG in the rostral midbrain

A

CN III

522
Q

Found within the crus cerebri

A

Corticospinal fibers

Corticobulbar fibers

523
Q

Also known as Weber’s syndrome

A

Medial midbrain syndrome

524
Q

What causes medial midbrain syndrome?

A

Damage to the paramedian branches of PCA

525
Q

Structures involved in medial midbrain syndrome

A

Corticospinal fibers in crus cerebri
Corticobulbar fibers in crus cerebri
Oculomotor nerve

526
Q

Presentation of medial midbrain syndrome

A

Contralateral hemiplegia of UE, trunk, and LE
Tongue deviates away from lesion; facial weakness contralateral side of lesion
Ipsilateral partial paralysis of eye movement; eye oriented down and out and pupil dilated and fixed

527
Q

Also known as Claude syndrome

A

Central midbrain

528
Q

What causes central midbrain syndrome?

A

Occlusion of branches of PCA

529
Q

What structures are involved in central midbrain syndrome?

A

Oculomotor nerve

Cerebellothalamic fibers +/- red nucleus

530
Q

Presentation of central midbrain syndrome

A

Ipsilateral paralysis of eye movement; eye oriented down and out and pupil dilated and fixed
Contralateral ataxia and tremor of cerebellar origin

531
Q

What causes Benedikt syndrome?

A

Occlusion of the branches of PCA (stroke)

532
Q

A combination of central and medial midbrain syndrome in larger midbrain lesions

A

Benedikt syndrome

533
Q

Structures involved in Benedikt syndrome

A

Corticospinal fibers
Oculomotor nerve
Red nucleus

534
Q

Presentation of Benedikt syndrome

A

Contralateral hemiplegia
Ipsilateral partial paralysis of eye movement with dilated pupil
Ataxia

535
Q

Damage to the corticospinal fibers would lead to ____

A

Contralateral hemiplegia

536
Q

Damage to the oculomotor fibers would lead to _____

A

Ipsilateral oculomotor paralysis, diplopia, dilated pupil, ptosis

537
Q

Damage to the corticonuclear fibers would lead to ____

A

Contralateral weakness of facial muscles on lower face, deviation of tongue to contralateral side on protrusion, ipsilateral trapezius and SCM weakness

538
Q

Damage to cerebellothalamic fibers would lead to ____

A

Contralateral ataxia, tremor, + red nucleus hyperkinesia

539
Q

Also known as Parinaud’s syndrome

A

Dorsal midbrain syndrome

540
Q

What causes dorsal midbrain syndrome?

A

Many things: pineal tumor, occlusions, etc.

541
Q

Structures involved in dorsal midbrain syndrome

A

Superior collicuclus
Cerebral aqueduct
CN III and IV

542
Q

Presentation of dorsal midbrain syndrome

A

Paralysis of up gaze
Hydrocephalus
Opthalmoparesis, large fixed pupil

543
Q

What is the main difference between pyramidal and extrapyramidal tracts?

A

Extrapyramidal use interneurons to communicate between upper motor neurons and lower motor neurons

544
Q

Function of the lateral corticospinal tract

A

Controls muscles of limbs

545
Q

Function of anterior corticospinal tract

A

Controls muscles of trunk

546
Q

Synapse with contralateral lower motor neurons for CN V, VII, XI, XII

A

Corticobulbar pathway

547
Q

CN V, VII (upper half of face), and XI receive motor innervation from the ipsilateral/contralateral/bilateral side

A

Bilateral

548
Q

CN VII (lower part of face) and XII receive motor input from ipsilateral/contralateral/bilateral side

A

Contralateral

549
Q

Extrapyramidal tracts start in ______

A

Nuclei in the brainstem

550
Q

The pontine reticulospinal tract travels on the ipsilateral side and directly acts on ____

A

Interneurons

551
Q

Function of the pontine reticulospinal tract

A

Indirectly activates lower motor neurons that innervate extensor muscles in trunk and limbs

552
Q

Function of the medullary reticulospinal tract

A

Travels ipsilaterally and contralaterally to either directly of indirectly inhibit lower motor neurons that control extensor muscles of the limbs

553
Q

The medullary reticulospinal tract has excitatory/inhibitory neurons?

A

Inhibitory

554
Q

Regulates lower motor neurons that control breathing muscles

A

Medullary reticulospinal tract

555
Q

Function of the lateral vestibulospinal tract

A

Sends neurons on ipsilateral side to interneurons that activate lower motor neurons that control the extensor muscles of the lower limbs and butt

556
Q

Originates in the red nucleus

A

Rubrospinal tract

557
Q

Function of the rubrospinal tract

A

Sends neurons contralaterally that synapse with interneurons that activate flexor muscles and inhibit extensor muscles

558
Q

Controls speed in movement

A

Rubrospinal tract

559
Q

Make up the spinocerebellum

A

Vermis and adjacent area

560
Q

Make up the cerebrocerebellum

A

Lateral portions of cerebellar hemispheres

561
Q

Makes up the vestibulocerebellum

A

Flocculonodular lobe

562
Q

Coordinates muscles in the trunk and limbs

Receives sensory input about position

A

Spinocerebellum

563
Q

Stays in ipsilateral spinal cord

Travels through inferior peduncle

A

Dorsal spinocerebellar tract

564
Q

Crosses to contralateral side of spinal cord
Travels through superior peduncle
Crosses over again in cerebellum

A

Ventral spinocerebellar tract

565
Q

A stroke in the right cerebellar hemisphere would lead to dysmetria and dysdiadochokinesia on the left/right?

A

Right

566
Q

Most of the neurons in the spinocerebellar tract synapse with the ____ and ____ nuclei

A

Fastigial; interposed

567
Q

Fastigial nucleus sends axons bilateral through ____ to _____

A

Inferior peduncle; reticular formation

568
Q

Axons from the fastigial nucleus reach the _____ tract

A

Reticulospinal

569
Q

Interposed nuclei send axons through superior peduncle that cross to contralateral ____ in midbrain

A

Red nucleus

570
Q

Axons from the red nucleus cross back over and become ______ tract

A

Rubrospinal

571
Q

In charge of initiating movements
Coordinates fine motor control
Involved in motor learning

A

Cerebrocerebellum

572
Q

Inputs for the cerebrocerebellum come from the _____

A

Cerebral cortex

573
Q

Neurons pass through the thalamus to middle cerebellar peduncle and then synapse on contralateral _______. Axons then go to the contralateral cerebral hemisphere through _____

A

Dentate nucleus; superior peduncle

574
Q

Maintains balance (controls muscles of neck and back, receives information from semicircular canals and vestibule)

A

Vestibulocerebellum

575
Q

Located on anterior surface of medulla along the midline; is continuous with anterior median fissure on spinal cord although it is interrupted in the medulla by the pyramidal decussation

A

Anterior median fissure

576
Q

Circumventricular area where BBB is missing; serves as vomiting center

A

Area postrema

577
Q

Anterior surface of the pons that is an important link between the cerebrum and cerebellum

A

Basilar pons

578
Q

Groove that runs along the midline of the basilar pons, which is formed by the basilar artery

A

Basilar sulcus

579
Q

Connects third and fourth ventricles

A

Cerebral aqueduct

580
Q

Contains massive bundles of descending axons from cerebral cortex

A

Cerebral peduncle

581
Q

Overlies nucleus cuneatus

A

Cuneate tubercle

582
Q

Swelling in the floor of the rhomboid fossa caused by the underlying internal genu of the facial nerve looping around the abducens nucleus

A

Facial colliculus

583
Q

Found in pons and medulla

A

Fourth ventricle

584
Q

Overlies nucleus gracilis

A

Gracile tubercle

585
Q

Small elevation in rhomboid fossa caused by the hypoglossal nucleus

A

Hypoglossal trigone

586
Q

Major input route to cerebellum, containing olivocerebellar fibers, posterior spinocerebellar fibers, cuneocerebellar fibers, vestibulocerebellar fibers and other cerebellar afferents

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

587
Q

Located in caudal midbrain; major link in the auditory system

A

Inferior colliculus

588
Q

Depression on anterior aspect of midbrain between the 2 crura cerebri

A

Interpenduncular fossa

589
Q

Most caudal portion of brainstem

A

Medulla

590
Q

Most rostral portion of the brainstem

A

Midbrain

591
Q

Largest of the cerebellar peduncles; contains fibers that arise in the basal pons

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

592
Q

Where 4th ventricle narrows to central canal

A

Obex

593
Q

Protuberance on lateral aspect of rostral medulla, just dorsolateral to pyramid, caused by underlying inferior olivary nucleus

A

Olive

594
Q

Second portion of brainstem in between midbrain and medulla

A

Pons

595
Q

Transverse groove on the ventral aspect of the brainstem that demarcates the pons from the medulla oblongata; where the sixth, seventh, and eighth cranial nerves emerge

A

Pontomedullary sulcus

596
Q

Found posterior to olive; contains rootless of accessory, vagus, and glossopharyngeal nerves

A

Postolivary sulcus

597
Q

Prominent furrow in the midline of the posterior medulla and spinal cord

A

Posterior median sulcus

598
Q

Contains rollers of hypoglossal nerve; separates olive and pyramids

A

Preolivary sulcus

599
Q

Located at spinomedullary junction; where most corticospinal fibers cross to form the lateral corticospinal tract

A

Pyramidal decussation

600
Q

Found on ventral surface of medulla and is formed by corticospinal fibers

A

Pyramids (medullary)

601
Q

Located in midbrain; contains nucleus of the rubrospinal tract which facilitates spinal cord flexor motor neuron activity

A

Red Nucleus

602
Q

Floor of 4th ventricle

A

Rhomboid fossa

603
Q

Nucleus found in midbrain packed with dopaminergic neurons that project to striatum and other neurons that receive inputs from striatum and projecting to thalamus

A

Substantia nigra

604
Q

Groove in the floor of the rhomboid fossa that separates motor nuclei (medial) and sensory nuclei (lateral) of cranial nerves

A

Sulcus limitans

605
Q

Major efferent route from cerebellum (contains projections from deep cerebellar nuclei on their way to the red nucleus and the thalamus)

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle (brachium conjunctiva)

606
Q

Located in caudal midbrain; plays role in visual attention and control of eye movements

A

Superior colliculus

607
Q

Anatomical term for the area anterior to ventricular spaces of medulla, pons, and midbrain; includes reticular formation, nuclei of cranial nerves, and most ascending and descending tracts

A

Tegmentum (of pons, midbrain, and medulla)

608
Q

Small elevation in rhomboid fossa caused by the dorsal motor vagal nucleus

A

Vagal trigone

609
Q

All of cerebellum anterior primary fissure (partly hemisphere, partly vermis)

A

Cerebellum: anterior lobe

610
Q

Large paired lateral parts, important for coordination of the limbs

A

Cerebellum: hemispheres

611
Q

All of the cerebellum, except for the flocculonodular lobe, posterior to the primary fissure (partly hemisphere, partly vermis)

A

Cerebellum: posterior lobe

612
Q

Largest and most lateral of the deep cerebellar nuclei; efferents emerging from here form most of the superior cerebellar peduncle

A

Dentate nucleus

613
Q

Most medial of the deep cerebellar nuclei that receives its input from Purkinje cells in vermis

A

Fastigial nucleus

614
Q

Hemispheral component of flocculonodular lobe; particularly concerned with the vestibular system and eye movements

A

Flocculus

615
Q

Largest and deepest fissure of the cerebellum (does not separate the anterior and posterior lobes)

A

Horizontal fissure

616
Q

Composed of the emboliform and globose nuclei

A

Interposed nuclei

617
Q

Vernal component of flocculonodular lobe; particularly concerned with the vestibular system and eye movements

A

Nodulus

618
Q

Separates anterior and posterior lobes of cerebellum

A

Primary fissure

619
Q

Medial, inferior part of posterior lobe hemisphere of cerebellum, adjacent to medulla as it passes through the foramen magnum; herniation often causes damage to medulla

A

Tonsil

620
Q

Most medial zone of the cerebellum, straddling the midline; extends through the anterior, posterior, and flocculonodular lobes

A

Vermis

621
Q

Somatic motor cranial nerve nucleus located in dorsal aspect of the caudal pons; contains the motor neurons that innervate the lateral rectus muscle

A

Abducens nucleus

622
Q

Tract conveys nociceptive and thermal information from the face to second-order neurons in spinal nucleus of the trigeminal complex

A

Anterolateral system (spinothalamic tract)

623
Q

Continuation of the 4th ventricle in the medulla and spinal cord

A

Central canal

624
Q

Connection between 3rd and 4th ventricles

A

Cerebral aqueduct

625
Q

Principal target of the auditory component of the vestibulocochlear nerve, comprising a set of nuclei adjacent to the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

Cochlear nuclei

626
Q

Fibers from upper motor neurons for voluntary motor control to the body and face, respectively

A

Corticospinal and corticobulbar fibers

627
Q

Bundle of fibers that convey tactile sensation and proprioception from the upper half of the body

A

Cuneate fascicle

628
Q

Nucleus containing the second order neurons that relay tactile sensory and proprioception from the upper half of the body

A

Cuneate nucleus

629
Q

Cranial nerve nucleus containing preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that innervate the thoracic and upper abdominal viscera; located in the rostral medulla

A

Dorsal motor nucleus of vagus

630
Q

Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that mediate the pupillary light and near reflexes; located in the midbrain adjacent to the oculomotor nucleus

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

631
Q

Cranial nerve nucleus containing motor neurons that give rise to fibers which innervate the muscles of facial expression; located in the pons

A

Facial nucleus

632
Q

Portion of the ventricular system that lies between the pons and the cerebellum

A

Fourth ventricle

633
Q

Bundle of fibers that convey tactile sensation and proprioception from the lower half of the body

A

Gracile fascicle

634
Q

Nucleus containing the second order neurons that relay tactile sensory and proprioception from the lower half of the body

A

Gracile nucleus

635
Q

Somatic motor cranial nerve nucleus that sits above the medial longitudinal fasciculus in the medulla and innervated the muscle of the tongue via CN XII

A

Hypoglossal nucleus

636
Q

Prominent brainstem fiber bundle that provides major source of afferent inputs to the cerebellum from the lower pons, medulla, and spinal cord, including inputs from vestibular nuclei, the inferior olive, the external cuneate nucleus, and the dorsal nucleus of Clarke

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

637
Q

Serve as primary relays in auditory pathway; located in rectus of midbrain

A

Inferior colliculus

638
Q

Prominent nucleus in the ventral medulla located just lateral and dorsal to the medullary pyramids; source of climbing fibers that provide a critical input to the cerebellum involved in Purkinje cell plasticity and motor learning

A

Inferior olivary nucleus

639
Q

Formed by axonal fibers from the secondary neurons of the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway

A

Internal arcuate fibers

640
Q

Portion of ascending auditory projections in the dorsal aspect of the rostral pons, arising from the cochlear nuclei and superior olivary complex

A

Lateral lemniscus

641
Q

Ascending axonal tract in the brainstem that carries tactile and proprioceptive information from the posterior column to the ventral posterior lateral thalamic nucleus

A

Medial lemniscus

642
Q

Fiber tract near the dorsal midline of the brainstem that connects the nuclei that control eye movements with one another and the vestibular nuclei

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

643
Q

Division of trigeminal nuclear complex that runs along lateral edge of periaqueductal gray in the midbrain; mediates proprioception derived form the muscles of mastication, the tongue, and the extraocular muscles

A

Mesencephallic trigeminal nucleus

644
Q

The largest of the fiber bundles connecting the brainstem to the cerebellum; formed by axons from the contralateral pontine nuclei that project to the cerebellum

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

645
Q

Branchial motor nucleus of CN V; located in the upper pons, this nucleus provides innervation to the muscles of mastication

A

Motor trigeminal nucleus

646
Q

Cranial nerve nucleus located in the medullary tegmentum, which provides bronchiomotor efferent input to the muscles of the pharynx and larynx and parasympathetic preganglionic input to cardiac ganglia

A

Nucleus ambiguus

647
Q

Somatic motor nucleus located near the dorsal midline in the midbrain, which innervates the inferior rectus, inferior oblique, medial rectus, and superior rectus

A

Oculomotor nucleus

648
Q

Gray matter surrounding the cerebral aqueduct in the midbrain; contains groups of cells that perform a variety of functions, including modulation of pain transmission in the spinal cord and the regulation of certain visceral motor activities

A

Periaqueductal gray

649
Q

Large collections of cells between the longitudinal and transverse fibers of the ventral pons that give rise to pontocerebellar fibers, which innervate the contralateral cerebellum via the middle cerebellar peduncle

A

Pontine nuclei

650
Q

Cranial nerve nucleus in the upper pons, which receives mechanosensory information from the face via the trigeminal nerve

A

Principal sensory trigeminal nucleus

651
Q

Prominent column of white matter on the ventral-medial margin of the medulla containing axons of the corticospinal tract

A

Pyramid

652
Q

Prominent nucleus located in the tegmentum on the rostral midbrain; contains group of neurons that gives rise to rubrospinal tract and another group of neurons that send input from the cerebral cortex to the inferior olivary nucleus to modulate activity in the cerebellum

A

Red nucleus

653
Q

Cranial nerve nucleus in the dorsal aspect of the rostral medulla and caudal pons; rostral portion = gustatory nucleus, caudal portion = cardiorespiratory nucleus

A

Solitary nucleus

654
Q

Cell column medial to the spinal trigeminal tract that extends from the caudal medulla to the mid-pons; this nucleus receives nociceptive and thermal information from the face via the spinal trigeminal tract, which is formed by the central processes of first-order trigeminal ganglion neurons

A

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

655
Q

Brainstem tract formed by the central processes of first-order, trigeminal ganglion neurons that extends from caudal medulla to mid-pons; tract convert nociceptive and thermal information from the face via the spinal trigeminal tract, which is formed by the central processes of first-order trigeminal ganglion neurons

A

Spinal trigeminal tract

656
Q

Nucleus at the base of the midbrain comprising a region of compactly organized dopaminergic cells, which innervate the striatum or cerebral cortex, and a region containing more loosely organized cells that is a pallidal division of the basal ganglia and sens its output to the thalamus and superior colliculus

A

Substantia nigra

657
Q

Prominent white matter structure that connects the cerebellum with the rostral pons and provides the major pathway by which ascending information flows out of the cerebellum

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

658
Q

Paired hillocks on the dorsal surface of the midbrain overlying the cerebral aqueduct, which are involved in orienting movements of the head and eyes

A

Superior colliculus

659
Q

Ascending axonal tract in the brainstem that carries tactile and proprioceptive information from the contralateral principal sensory trigeminal nucleus to the central posteromedial thalamic nucleus

A

Trigeminal lemniscus

660
Q

White matter pathway in the tegmentum of the brainstem formed by the axons of neurons in the spinal trigeminal nucleus that cross the midline near their origin and course rostrally until their termination in the ventral posteromedial nucleus; analogous to spinothalamic tract which has similar function for the body below the face

A

Trigeminothalamic tract

661
Q

Somatic cranial nerve nucleus located in the dorsal-medial margin of the caudal midbrain that gives rise to the trochlear nerve

A

Trochlear nucleus

662
Q

Nucleus in the medulla-pons junction that receives input from CN VIII

A

Vestibular nuclei

663
Q

Fibers from the right vestibular nucleus cross over to the left _____ nucleus

A

Abducens

664
Q

Fibers from the left abducens nucleus can cross over and act as internurons at the right _____ nucleus

A

Oculomotor

665
Q

Nystagmus

A

Involuntary eye movement

666
Q

CN I

A

Olfactory nerve

667
Q

CN II

A

Optic nerve

668
Q

CN III

A

Oculomotor nerve

669
Q

CN IV

A

Trochlear nerve

670
Q

CN V

A

Trigeminal nerve

671
Q

CN VI

A

Abducens nerve

672
Q

CN VII

A

Facial nerve

673
Q

CN VIII

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

674
Q

CN IX

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

675
Q

CN X

A

Vagus nerve

676
Q

CN XI

A

Accessory nerve

677
Q

CN XII

A

Hypoglossal nerve

678
Q

Nerve that arises from the primary olfactory cortex in the temporal lobe

A

CN I

679
Q

Place where partial decussation of the optic information occurs

A

Optic chiasm

680
Q

Location of the suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

Hypothalamus

681
Q

Role of the fibers in the suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

Help regulate sleep/wake cycle

682
Q

Location of the pretectal nucleus

A

Midbrain

683
Q

Fibers from the pretectal nucleus help with _____

A

Controlling eye movement s

684
Q

Location of the lateral geniculate nucleus

A

Thalamus

685
Q

Fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus travel to the occipital visual cortex via _____

A

Optic radiations

686
Q

Role of the occipital visual cortex

A

Interprets the input coming from the optic radiations

687
Q

Nerve that arises from the ventral midbrain

A

Oculomotor nerve

688
Q

Nerve that arises from the dorsal midbrain

A

Trochlear nerve

689
Q

Nerve that emerges from the pons

A

Abducens nerve

690
Q

Nerve that emerges from the pons and then travels to the trigeminal ganglion

A

CN V

691
Q

Nerve that emerges from the pons and then enters the temporal bone to go towards the geniculate ganglion

A

CN VII

692
Q

Emerges from the pons and exits the skull through the internal acoustic meatus

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

693
Q

Nerve that arises from the medulla and exits the skull through the jugular foramen

A

CN IX

694
Q

Emerges from the medulla and then dips down into the thorax and abdomen

A

CN X

695
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN III

A

Mesencephalon

696
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN IV

A

Metencephalon

697
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN V

A

Metencephalon

698
Q

Sensory nuclei location for CN V

A

Originates within metencephalon and myelencepahlon

699
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN VI

A

Located in metencephalon, but its unclear whether originated in the metencephalon or myelencephalon

700
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN VII

A

Located in metencephalon, but its unclear whether it originated in metencephalon or myelencephalon

701
Q

Sensory nuclei location for CN VII

A

Located mostly in metencephalon, but its uncertain whether it originated in metencephalon or myelencephalon

702
Q

Sensory nuclei location for CN VIII

A

Located mostly in myelencephalon

703
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN IX

A

Myelencephalon

704
Q

Sensory nuclei location for CN IX

A

Myelencephalon

705
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN X

A

Myelencephalon

706
Q

Sensory nuclei location for CN X

A

Myelencephalon

707
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN XI

A

Located in the LMC of the upper spinal cord (C1-4)

708
Q

Motor nuclei location for CN XII

A

Myelencephalon

709
Q

The lateral ventricles and the interventricular foramen are derived from neural canal of ______

A

Telencephalon

710
Q

The Third ventricle is derived from neural canal of _____

A

Diencephalon

711
Q

The cerebral aqueduct is derived from neural canal of _____

A

Mesencephalon

712
Q

The fourth ventricle, lateral apertures, and medial aperture are derived from neural canal of ______

A

Metencephalon and myelencephalon (rhombencephalon)

713
Q

Non-communicating hydroencephaly is caused by and _____

A

Obstruction

714
Q

Communicating hydroencephaly is considered _____

A

Non-obstructive

715
Q

Contains stellate and basket neurons, parallel fibers (of granule cells), and dendrites of Purkinje with associated climbing fibers

A

Molecular layer of the cerebellum

716
Q

Contains Purkinje cell bodies and projections from basket cells

A

Purkinje cell layer of the cerebellum

717
Q

Contains Golgi and granule neurons and is the site where mossy fibers synapse on granule cells

A

Granular layer of the cerebellum

718
Q

Contains deep cerebellar nuclei, Purkinje cell axons (efferent fibers), and mossy and climbing fibers (afferent fibers)

A

Subcortical white matter of the cerebellum

719
Q

Travel to and terminate in the cortex of the same cerebral hemisphere; maybe within the same lobe(short) of another lobe (long)

A

Association fibers

720
Q

Decussate either through the corpus callosum to terminate in the cortex of the opposite cerebral hemisphere

A

Callosal fibers

721
Q

Descend to subcortical targets in the forebrain, brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord

A

Projection fibers

722
Q

The most common neural tube defects involved the ____ end of the neural tube

A

Posterior

723
Q

Failure of the posterior neuropore to close leads to _____

A

Spina bifida

724
Q

Malformation of the anterior end of the neural tube that leads to the absence of the forebrain and the top of the skull is called _____

A

Anencephaly

725
Q

A diverticulum of malformed CNS tissue extending through a defect in the cranium is called _____

A

Encephalocele

726
Q

Encephalocele most often occurs in the _____ or the _____

A

Occipital region; posterior fossa

727
Q

Encephalocele can also extend ____, where the brain tissue mat extend into the sinuses

A

Anteriorly

728
Q

A decrease in the generation of neurons destined for the cerebral cortex is commonly seen in _____

A

Microencephaly

729
Q

Virus that will affected neuronal cells and not allow them to grow (leads to microencephaly)

A

Zika virus

730
Q

Malformations that can cause issues with the ventricles, can lead to hydrocephalus and other issues

A

Microencephaly and holoprosencephaly

731
Q

In severe forms of holoprosencephaly, the brain is not divided into hemispheres or lobes, and there may be facial midline defects such as _____

A

Cyclopia

732
Q

Lissencephaly

A

Complete loss of gyri

733
Q

Polymicrogyria

A

Increased number of irregularly formed gyri

734
Q

Posterior fossa abnormalities

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation (Chiari type II malformation)
Chiari type I malformation
Dandy-Walker malformation

735
Q

Combination of a small posterior fossa with a misshapen midline cerebellum and downward extension of the vermis through the foramen magnum; hydrocephalus and a lumber myelomeningocele are also usually present

A

Chiari type II malformation

736
Q

Displays with low lying cerebellar tonsil that extends through the foramen magnum

A

Chiari type I malformation

737
Q

Characterized by an enlarged posterior fossa, absence of the cerebellar vermis, and a large midline cyst

A

Dandy-Walker malformation

738
Q

Non-progressive neurologic motor defects characterized by spasticity, dystonia, ataxia or athetosis, and paresis

A

Cerebral palsy

739
Q

Two major types of injury that occur in the perinatal period

A

Hemorrhages and infarcts

740
Q

Telencephalon

A

Cerebral hemispheres (cerebral cortex, subcortical white matter, basal ganglia, basal forebrain nuclei)

741
Q

Diencephalon

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus

742
Q

Mesencephalon (midbrain)

A

Cerebral peduncles, midbrain tectum, midbrain tegmentum

743
Q

Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

A

Metencephalon (pons and cerebellum) and myelencephalon (medulla)

744
Q

The right hemisphere is typically responsible for _____

A

Musical abilities, recognition, and vision

745
Q

The right hemisphere is typically responsible for _____

A

Speech, hearing, vision, math

746
Q

Function of the primary motor cortex

A

Integrates motor inputs from other parts of the brain

747
Q

Function of the supplemental motor area and premotor cortex

A

Coordination of complicated skills, motor planning

748
Q

Function of the primary somatosensory cortex

A

Takes inputs from thalamus and sends it to other parts of the brain

749
Q

Function of Wernicke’s area

A

Responsible for the ability to understand/organize language

750
Q

Function of the posterior parietal cortex

A

Involved in the sensation of visual signals and spatial arrangement

751
Q

Important because they produce serotonin that is distributed to wide regions of the brain and spinal cord

A

Raphe nuclei

752
Q

Gives rise to noradrenergic projections

A

Locus ceruleus

753
Q

Cholinergic neurons that project to forebrain

A

Pedunculopontine nucleus

754
Q

Function of parvocellular regions of the brainstem

A

Receive afferent fibers

755
Q

Function of the magnocellular region of the brainstem

A

Gives rise to effector fibers

756
Q

The pontomesencephalic reticular formation (rostral reticular formation) projects to:

A

Thalamus (intralaminar nuclei)
Hypothalamus
Basal forebrain

757
Q

Damage to the rostral reticular formation can lead to ____

A

Coma

758
Q

Site where baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and cardiopulmonary sensory neurons make 1st synapse

A

Nucleus of the solitary tract

759
Q

Relay nucleus for mediating baroreflex and cardiopulmonary reflex, contains GABAergic neurons that project to RVLM causing inhibition, results in a decrease in BP and HR

A

Central ventrolateral medullary depressor area (CVLM)

760
Q

Relay nucleus for mediating chemoreflex, involved in maintenance of sympathetic tone, send direct monosynaptic projection to IML

A

Rostral ventrolateral medullary pressor area (RVLM)

761
Q

Receives direct of indirect projections from the NTS

A

Nucleus ambiguus

762
Q

Location of sympathetic pregnaglionic neurons in the thoracolumbar spinal cord

A

Intermediolateral cell column (IML)

763
Q

Receives input from pulmonary stretch receptors

A

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

764
Q

Divided into 3 functionally different parts:
Caudal VRG contains mostly expiratory neurons
Immediately rostral to VRG contains mostly inspirations neurons
Botzinger complex contains mostly expiratory neurons

A

Ventral respiratory group (VRG)

765
Q

Function of the pre-Botzinger complex

A

Pacemaker for respiration

766
Q

Function of the projections from medullary reticular formation that run in the lateral reticulospinal tract

A

Powerful suppressors of extensor reflex activity

767
Q

Function of the projections from pontine reticular formation that run in the medial reticulospinal tract

A

Facilitate extensor spinal reflexes

768
Q

Lateral reticulospinal tract projects ____

A

Bilaterally

769
Q

Medial reticulospinal tract projects _____

A

Ipsilaterally

770
Q

Function of the second fiber system of the reticulospinal tract

A

Mediates autonomic function

771
Q

Function of third fiber system of the reticulospinal tract

A

Modulates pain impulses that ascend in spinothalamic tract

772
Q

Is uncrossed and descends the entire length of the spinal cord
Innervated interneurons for motor neurons of extensors of trunk and ipsilateral limb
Main functions are to control muscles that maintain upright posture and balance

A

Lateral vestibulospinal tract

773
Q

Is both crossed and uncrossed (projects bilaterally)
Ends in cervical spinal cord
Main function is to adjust the position of the head in response to postural changes

A

Medial vestibulospinal tract

774
Q

Main functions are to control muscles that maintain upright posture and balance

A

Lateral vestibulospinal tract

775
Q

Main function is to adjust the position of the head in response to postural changes

A

Medial vestibulospinal tract

776
Q

Originate from vestibular nuclei of the rostral medulla

A

Lateral and medial vestbiulospinal tracts

777
Q

Tracts that originate in the midbrain

A

Rubrospinal tract and tectospinal tract

778
Q

Cell bodies are in red nucleus
Fibers decussate in midbrain and descend to lateral funiculars of spinal white matter
Function of tract is to facilitate flexor motor neurons and inhibit extensor motor neurons

A

Rubrospinal tract

779
Q

Function of tract is to facilitate flexor motor neurons and inhibit extensor motor neurons

A

Rubrospinal tract

780
Q

Cell bodies are in superior colliculus
Fibers decussate in midbrain and project to cervical spinal cord
Tract participates in orientation of head in response to visual stimuli

A

Tectospinal tract

781
Q

Tract participates in orientation of head in response to visual stimuli

A

Tectospinal tract

782
Q

Decorticate posturing

A

Excessive action of rubrospinal tract causes the upper limb flexion (less severe)

783
Q

Decerebrate posturing

A

All descending cortical systems and rubrospinal tract are lost
Unopposed hyperactivity of extensor muscles on all four extremities is observed (more severe)

784
Q

Location of the oculomotor nucleus, trochlear nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, trigeminal sensory: mesencephalic nucleus

A

Midbrain

785
Q

Location of the abducens nucleus, trigeminal motor nucleus, facial nucleus, superior salivatory nucleus, inferior salivatory nucleus, trigeminal sensory: principal nucleus, part of the trigeminal sensory: spinal nucleus, part of the vestibular nuclei and cochlear nuclei, part of the nucleus of the solitary tract

A

Pons

786
Q

Location of the hypoglossal nucleus, nucleus ambiguus, spinal accessory nucleus, dorsal motor nucleus of vagus, part of the trigeminal sensory: spinal nucleus, part of the vestibular nuclei and cochlear nuclei, part of the nucleus of the solitary tract

A

Medulla

787
Q

Motor nuclei are generally located ____

A

Medially

788
Q

Sensory nuclei are generally located ____

A

Laterally

789
Q

Most CN nuclei project to or receive inputs from predominantly one CN, expect for:

A

Solitary nucleus, nucleus ambiguus, trigeminal nuclei

790
Q

Somatic motor columns

A

Oculomotor nucleus
Trochlear nucleus
Abducens nucleus
Hypoglossal nucleus

791
Q

Parasympathetic motor columns

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus, superior salivatory nucleus, inferior salivatory nucleus, dorsal motor nucleus of vagus

792
Q

Branchial motor column

A

Trigeminal motor nucleus, facial nucleus, nucleus ambiguus, spinal accessory nucleus

793
Q

Sensory column involved in visceral sensory

A

Solitary tract

794
Q

Involved in taste

A

Rostral (gustatory) solitary nucleus

795
Q

Caudal (cardiorespiratory) solitary nucleus

A

CN IX, X

796
Q

Special somatic sensory column

A

Medial and inferior (spinal) vestibular nuclei, superior and inferior vestibular nuclei, anterior and posterior cochlear nuclei

797
Q

Main cranial nerve of the special somatic sensory column

A

CN VIII

798
Q

Sensory column: trigeminal sensory system

A

Spinal trigeminal nucleus
Principal sensory nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus

799
Q

Part of the sensory column: trigeminal sensory system that runs from the medulla to caudal pons

A

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

800
Q

Part of the sensory column: trigeminal sensory system that travels to the midpontine level

A

Principal sensory nucleus

801
Q

Part of the sensory column: trigeminal sensory system that travels from the rostral pons to the midbrain

A

Mesencephalic nucleus

802
Q

Location of the hypoglossal nucleus

A

Dorsomedial medulla

803
Q

The vagus nerve is associated with 4 CN nuclei:

A

Nucleus ambiguus, dorsal motor nucleus, solitary nucleus, spinal trigeminal nucleus

804
Q

Cranial nerve associated with the superior salivatory nucleus

A

CN VII

805
Q

Cranial nerve associated with the inferior salivatory nucleus

A

CN IX

806
Q

Sensory component of CN IX

A

Superior ganglion - somatic sensation

Inferior ganglion - visceral sensation

807
Q

Most lateral nerve that emerges from pons-medulla junction

A

CN VIII

808
Q

CN VII is associated with 4 CN nuclei:

A

Facial motor nucleus
Superior salivatory nucleus
Solitary nucleus
Spinal trigeminal nucleus

809
Q

Branchial motor to muscles of facial expression

A

Facial motor nucleus

810
Q

Fibers conveying pain, thermal sensation, and crude touch travel to the ____

A

Spinal trigeminal nucleus

811
Q

Fibers conveying discriminative touch travel to the _____

A

Principal sensory nucleus

812
Q

Fibers conveying proprioceptive info from masticatory muscles, extraocular muscles, periodontal ligaments travel via _______ to the _____

A

Mesencephalic tract; trigeminal motor nucleus

813
Q

Jaw-Jerk reflex tests for the reflex of CN ___

A

V

814
Q

The only cranial nerve to pass on the dorsal side of the brainstem

A

CN IV

815
Q

Nucleus associated with visceral motor fibers that go to the pupillary sphincter and ciliary body

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus

816
Q

Lateral input from one eye will travel ipsilaterally/contralaterally through the optic chiasm

A

Ipsilaterally

817
Q

Medial input from one eye will travel ipsilaterally/contralaterally through the optic chiasm

A

Contralaterally

818
Q

The ___ nerve is an extension of the diencephalon

A

Optic

819
Q

The ____ nerve is an extension of the telencephalon

A

Olfactory

820
Q

Output from the posterior parietal cortex do/does not contribute to the corticospinal tract but does modulate its activity

A

Does not

821
Q

The ____ of the internal capsule houses fibers that will go to the face (e.g. corticobulbar fibers which end at the cranial nerve nuclei)

A

Genu

822
Q

The ____ limb of the internal capsule houses the corticospinal fibers

A

Posterior

823
Q

As you travel from medial to lateral in the cerebral peduncle of the midbrain, the somatotopic organization of the corticospinal tract is:

A

Face, Arm, Trunk, Leg

824
Q

Within the internal capsule, the somatotopic organization of the corticospinal tract is the same/different from other areas such as the midbrain

A

The same

825
Q

Location of corticospinal fibers in the midbrain

A

Middle third of cerebral peduncle

826
Q

Location of corticospinal fibers in the basilar pons

A

Fibers pass between masses of pontine nuclei

827
Q

Location of corticospinal fibers in the medulla

A

Fibers aggregate on ventral surface causing within the pyramids

828
Q

Lateral corticospinal fibers go on to synapse with lower motor neurons that control ____

A

The limbs

829
Q

Anterior corticospinal fibers go on to synapse with lower motor neurons that control ____

A

The trunk

830
Q

Influence movements of striated muscles innervated by motor cranial nerve nuclei

A

Corticobulbar fibers

831
Q

Most of the corticobulbar fibers innervate the cranial nerve nuclei bilaterally except for ______ and _____

A
CN VII to lower face (contralaterally)
CN XII (contralaterally)
832
Q

Fibers that run from the cerebral cortex to the red nucleus

A

Corticorubral fibers

833
Q

Fibers that arise in the cerebral cortex and run to the pontine and medullary reticular formation nuclei

A

Corticoreticular fibers

834
Q

Fibers that run from the cerebral cortex to the pons

A

Corticopontine fibers

835
Q

Site where the PCMLP travels to in the thalamus

A

Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus

836
Q

At the level of the medulla, the medial lemniscus is oriented so that from anterior to posterior it goes:

A

LE, T, UE

837
Q

At the level of the medulla-pons junction, the medial lemniscus starts to shift so that going from medial to lateral looks like:

A

LE, T, UE

838
Q

At the level of the midbrain, the medial lemniscus rotates against that the arrangement is most anteriomedial to most posterolateral

A

UE, T, LE

839
Q

Tract that conveys touch sensation from the face to the primary somatosensory cortex via ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPM) of the thalamus

A

Trigeminothalamic tract

840
Q

This tract is similar to the PCMLP, however, it provides sensory information from the face while the PCMLP provides sensory information from the body

A

Trigeminothalamic tract

841
Q

Where do the spinothalamic axons synapse in the thalamus?

A

Ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus

842
Q

Tract that conveys information about individual muscles and groups of muscles in lower limbs and caudal trunk (nonconscious proprioception)

A

Posterior spinocerebellar tract

843
Q

Tract that conveys same information as posterior spinocerebellar tract except for upper limb

A

Cuneocerebellar tract

844
Q

Tract that conveys info about whole lower limb movements and postural adjustments to cerebellum

A

Anterior spinocerebellar tract

845
Q

Tract that conveys info about whole upper limb movements and postural adjustments to cerebellum

A

Rostral spinocerebellar tract

846
Q

Medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) essential coordinates the conjugate movement of both of the ___

A

Eyes

847
Q

Plays important roles in:
Regulation of autonomic functions
Affective and emotional processes (such as fear and anxiety)
Modulation of pain impulses

A

Periaqueductal gray matter

848
Q

Two structures that bring mostly afferents to the cerebellum

A

Inferior and middle cerebellar peduncle

849
Q

Contains predominantly cerebellar efferent fibers that originate in cerebellar nuclei then travel to brainstem and diencephalon

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

850
Q

If you were to lose the vertebral artery and PICA, what structures in the medulla would likely be affected?

A

Solitary nucleus, vestibular nucleus, dorsal motor vagal nucleus, nucleus ambiguus, spinal trigeminal nucleus and tract, spinothalamic tract

851
Q

If the vertebral artery (paramedian branches) we’re working be occluded, what structures in the medulla would be affected?

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus, medial lemniscus, hypoglossal nucleus, corticospinal tract (pyramidal tracts)

852
Q

If the vertebral artery alone were to be occluded, what part of the medulla would be affected?

A

Inferior olivary nucleus

853
Q

If the basilar artery (paramedian branches) were to be occluded in the caudal pons, what structures would be affected?

A

Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts, pontine nuclei, medial longitudinal fasciculus, abducens nucleus

854
Q

If the AICA and basilar artery were occluded in the caudal pons, what structures would be affected?

A

Vestibular nuclei, facial nuclei, spinal tirgeminal nucleus and tract, middle cerebellar peduncle, descending sympathetic fibers, spinothalamic tract

855
Q

If the basilar artery (paramedian branches) were occluded in the rostral pons, what structures would be affected?

A

Pyramidal tracts, part of the reticular formation, part of the medial lemniscus

856
Q

If the basilar artery were occluded in the rostral pons, what structures would be affected?

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle, medial lemniscus, reticular formation, spinothalamic tract, descending sympathetic fibers, trigeminal nerve

857
Q

If the superior cerebellar artery were occluded in the rostral pons, what structure would be affected?

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

858
Q

If the paramedian branches of the top basilar artery are occluded in the midbrain, what structures are affected?

A

Oculomotor nerve and nucleus, part of the substantia nigra, part of the red nucleus

859
Q

If the SCA and proximal PCA are occluded in the midbrain, what structure is affected?

A

Superior colliculus

860
Q

If the proximal PCA is occluded in the midbrain, what structures are affected?

A

Cerebral peduncle (pyramidal tracts), substantia nigra, red nucleus, medial lemniscus, descending sympathetic fibers, spinothalamic tract, reticular formation

861
Q

Function of the globose nucleus

A

Receives proprioception, auditory, and visual inputs and projects it back to the spinal cord via the red nucleus

862
Q

Function of the fastigial nucleus

A

Receives input from vestibular nuclei and contributes to vestibular neuronal activity

863
Q

Function of the emboliform nucleus

A

Regulates precision of limb movements

864
Q

Function of the dentate nucleus

A

Regulates fine control of voluntary movements, cognition, language, and sensory functions

865
Q

Lesions to the cerebellum would lead to defects on the ipsilateral/contralateral side

A

Ipsilateral

866
Q

The rostral part of the cerebellum receives blood supply from ___

A

SCA

867
Q

The anterior portion of the cerebellum receives blood supply form ____

A

AICA

868
Q

The caudal portion of the cerebellum receives blood supply from ____

A

PICA

869
Q

What part of the cerebellum is especially affected by chronic alcohol abuse?

A

Vermis

870
Q

Autosomal recessive disease; GAA trinucleotide repeat expansion; leads to degeneration of spinocerebellar, posterior columns, and corticospinal tracts as well as the cerebellar Purkinje cells

A

Fredrich’s ataxia

871
Q

Presents with ataxia of trunk and limbs, muscle weakness, nystagmus; usually diagnosed in late childhood

A

Fredrich’s ataxia