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Neuroconditions Retention Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A 38 year old male patient suffered from TBI. The patient has difficulty with problem solving but responds to simple commands fairly consistently. What RLA level of cognitive functioning does the patient have.

a. IV
b. V
c. VIII
d. VI
e. VII

A

b. V

Code: 5imple command5

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2
Q
  1. The perfect score in Pediatric Glasgow Scale is:

a. 15
b. 14
c. 10
d. 12

A

a. 15

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3
Q
  1. Wheelchair for C4 tetraplegia except?

a. Sip and puff
b. Chin control
c. Hand control
d. Voice control

A

c. Hand control

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4
Q
  1. While you are treating a T4 level SCI patient, the patient had autonomic dysreflexia. The following are signs/symptoms of AD, EXCEPT:

a. Pounding headache
b. Tachycardia
c. Increased BP
d. Sweating
e. Miosis

A

b. Tachycardia

Bradycardia

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4
Q
  1. This is contraindicated for persons with moderate and severe TBI:

a. Hyperventilation
b. Hypertonic saline
c. Craniectomy
d. Corticosteroids

A

d. Corticosteroids

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5
Q
  1. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may be expected to result in:

a. Decreased blood pressure and increased cardiac contractility
b. Vasodilation and bradycardia
c. Vasodilation and tachycardia
d. Vasoconstriction and increased heart rate

A

b. Vasodilation and bradycardia

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6
Q
  1. Injury to this nerve produces this type of winging of the scapula. The medial border of the scapula is closer to the midline and the inferior angle is medially rotated.

a. Spinal accessory
b. Dorsal scapular
c. Long thoracic
d. Thoracodorsal

A

c. Long thoracic

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7
Q
  1. Injury to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen with result in:

a. Impaired lacrimation
b. Loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
c. Hyperacusis
d. Facial palsy

A

d. Facial palsy

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8
Q
  1. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in:

a. Buccinator
b. All of these
c. Tensor tympani
d. Posterior belly of digastric muscles

A

c. Tensor tympani

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9
Q
  1. The following statements apply to the 11th cranial nerve EXCEPT:

a. Lifting the shoulders up toward the ear then resisting the movement from above tests the trapezius
b. This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the trapezius muscles.
c. Testing the function of the 11th nerve also tests for involvement of functions by motor neuron disease and dystrophy.
d. Testing the function of the 11th nerve will detect weakness of either central or peripheral nuclei of origin
e. The nuclei of origin of the various parts of this nerve are not adjacent and differential paresis may occur from central nuclear lesions.

A

b. This combined motor and sensory nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and the upper portion of the trapezius muscles.

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10
Q
  1. What should be assessed for patient experiencing horizontal diplopia:
    a. CN 2
    b. CN 4
    c. CN 6
    d. All of the above
A

c. CN 6

Code: h6rizontal

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11
Q
  1. Gerstman’s syndrome which is lesion in the dominant parietal lobe, present the following symptoms, EXCEPT
    a. agraphia
    b. acalculia
    c. apraxia
    d. R-L confusion
A

c. apraxia

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12
Q
  1. Dsyphagia
    a. VI, VII
    b. XI, XII
    c. IX, X
    d. II, III
A

c. IX, X

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13
Q
  1. What lobe is affected in Gerstmann’s Syndrome?
    a. Frontal
    b. Temporal
    c. Parietal
    d. Occipital
A

c. Parietal

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14
Q
  1. A 50-year-old stroke patient with a lesion in the left posterior superior temporal region has fluent verbal output, impaired repetition and comprehension. Which type of aphasia does he have?

a. Conduction
b. Broca’s
c. Wernicke’s
d. Global

A

c. Wernicke’s

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15
Q
  1. You are given a stroke patient with good comprehension and repetition but has non-fluent speech. What aphasia is being described?

a. Broca’s
b. Transcortical motor
c. Wernicke’s
d. Transcortical sensory

A

b. Transcortical motor

Keywords: good comprehension and repetition, non-fluent speech

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16
Q
  1. Impaired pain and temperature sense involve which central tract?

a. Spinothalamic
b. Corticobulbar
c. Corticospinal
d. Spinocerebellar

A

a. Spinothalamic

Code: sPAINo TEMPlamic

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16
Q
  1. This motor neuron disease involves the lower motor neurons. Males are affected more than females. Weakness, muscle wasting, fasciculations, weight loss are the main features of this disease, along with mental deterioration and dementia. What is this disease?

a. Progressive bulbar palsy
b. Primary lateral sclerosis
c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
d. Progressive muscular atrophy

A

d. Progressive muscular atrophy

Keywords: LMN, Weakness, Muscle wasting

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17
Q
  1. Patient had loss of appetite after a traumatic brain injury. The cranial nerve that is affected is:

a. CN 1
b. CN 7
c. CN 5
d. CN 4
e. CN 12

A

a. CN 1

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18
Q
  1. A 68- year-old man who suffered a stroke 4 weeks ago (involving dominant hemisphere) presents with contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss (greater in the lower extremity than in the upper extremity), mental confusion and aphasia. What is the most likely location of the infarction?

a. MCA
b. ICA
c. PCA
d. ACA

A

d. ACA

Keywords: Contra hemiparesis, sensory loss, UE> LE, mental confusion, aphasia

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19
Q
  1. Left Hemispheric Strokes present with the following EXCEPT:

a. Apraxia
b. Difficulty processing visual cues
c. Difficulty with expression of positive emotions
d. Difficulty processing verbal cues

A

b. Difficulty processing visual cues

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20
Q
  1. Cranial nerve for phonation:

a. CN 4
b. CN 7
c. CN 8
d. CN 10

A

d. CN 10

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21
Q
  1. Horner’s syndrome

a. CN 2
b. CN 3
c. CN 4
d. CN 5

A

b. CN 3

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22
Q
  1. Broca’s aphasia, except:

a. Motor
b. Expressive
c. Posterior
d. NOTA

A

c. Posterior

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23
Q
  1. Damage to the sixth cranial nerve will produce which deficit in eye movement?

a. Inability to move the eyes in a vertical up-anddown motion
b. Inability to rotate the eyes within the eye socket
c. Inability to move the eyes laterally toward the midline
d. Inability to move the eyes laterally away from the midline
e. Vertical strabismus

A

d. Inability to move the eyes laterally away from the midline

Code: EOM3 SO4 LR6

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24
Q
  1. Motor function is preserved below the neurological level, and at least half of key muscles below the neurological level have a muscle grade of 3 or more,

a. ASIA A
b. ASIA B
c. ASIA C
d. ASIA D
e. ASIA E

A

d. ASIA D

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25
Q
  1. A 60-year-old man is taken to the physician because of a tremor in his hands, trouble sleeping, constipation, and dizziness. Physical examination shows a resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The man is alert, engaging, and optimistic. Which diagnosis is most likely?

a. Alzheimer’s disease
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Brain tumor
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Parkinson’s disease

A

e. Parkinson’s disease

Keywords: Resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia

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26
Q
  1. On examination of a cross section of the spinal cord of a cadaver, the examiner notes plaques. The finding is most characteristic of what condition?
    a. PD
    b. MG
    c. MS
    d. ALS
A

c. MS

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27
Q
  1. A man has a disease that destroyed only the motor neurons of the spinal cord below the thoracic region. Which aspect of sexual function would not be possible?

a. Arousal
b. Erection
c. Lubrication
d. Ejaculation

A

d. Ejaculation

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28
Q
  1. Patient demonstrates problems with imitation and bimanual tasks, apraxia. Which of the following structures is the most likely affected?

a. Supranuclear fibers to third cranial nerve
b. Ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus
c. Corpus callosum
d. Primary motor area

A

c. Corpus callosum

Keywords: Imitation and bimanual tasks, apraxia

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29
Q
  1. Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to:

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side
b. Paralysis of the contralateral side
c. Tremors of the ipsilateral side
d. Spasticity of the ipsilateral side
e. Paralysis of the ipsilateral side

A

b. Paralysis of the contralateral side

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30
Q
  1. Site of pure sensory stroke

a. Thalamus
b. Internal capsule
c. Both
d. NOTA

A

a. Thalamus

Code: Themperature

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31
Q
  1. Area of infarction of global aphasia:

a. Both Heschl’s gyri
b. Third frontal convolution
c. Angular gyrus
d. Posterior portion of temporal gyrus
e. Third frontal convolution and posterior portion of temporal gyrus

A
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32
Q
  1. Structure/s involved in bilateral homonymous hemianopsia:

a. ACA
b. PCA
c. ACA and PCA
d. MCA and ACA
e. PCA and MCA

A

e. PCA and MCA

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33
Q
  1. Global Aphasia

a. Anterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
b. Posterior Cerebral Artery Syndrome
c. Middle Cerebral Artery Syndrome
d. NOTA

A

c. Middle Cerebral Artery Syndrome

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34
Q
  1. When evaluating a head injury patient in the neuro-intensive care unit, you are instructed to use the Glasgow Coma Scale. The therapist asks the patient a question but the patient responds with meaningless sounds, not understandable. What would you document in the patient’s chart?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

a: No response
c: Inappropriate
d: Disoriented

5: oriented

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34
Q
  1. Ashworth Scale Score 2
    a. slight increase in muscle tone, catch and release
    b. considerable increase in muscle tone, passive ROM difficult
    c. marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved
    d. limb rigid in flexion or extension
A

c. marked increase in muscle tone through most of ROM, but limb is easily moved

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35
Q
  1. Glasgow Coma Scale, what level would you classify a decerebrate response?

a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3

A

a. 2

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36
Q
  1. This is a syndrome caused by lesions to the thalamus

a. Kluver Bucy
b. Germann’s
c. Rathke
d. Dejerine-Rousy

A

d. Dejerine-Rousy

Tip: Yung tha sa thalamus basahin na “duh” kaya tha-jerine

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37
Q
  1. Hemiballismus is a movement disorder involving the ____:

a. Basal ganglia
b. subthalamic nucleus
c. Posterior limb of internal capsule
d. corpus callosum
e. Pyramidal tract

A

b. subthalamic nucleus

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38
Q
  1. The patient presents with flaccidity and there is no activation of the limb at all. You know that the pt is in this level of brunstromm stages of motor recovery

a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
e. Stage V

A

a. Stage I

39
Q
  1. A pure sensory stroke is most likely with damage to which of the following structures?

a. Internal capsule
b. Thalamus
c. Hippocampus
d. Globus pallidus
e. Pons

A

b. Thalamus

Code: Themperature

40
Q
  1. Modifiable Risk Factors for Stroke include the following, except:

a. HTN
b. Hypercholesterolemia
c. Race
d. Atrial Fibrillations
e. Smoking

A

c. Race

41
Q
  1. Memory impairment results from occlusion of what artery?

a. ACA
b. MCA
c. PCA
d. ICA
e. lenticulostriate

A

c. PCA

42
Q
  1. Following occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery the greatest amount of motor deficit is found in the:

a. Contralateral arm
b. Contralateral leg
c. Ipsilateral arm
d. Ipsilateral leg
e. Involvement will be equally severe in both legs

A

b. Contralateral leg

43
Q
  1. A posterior circulation stroke involves the:

a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Basal ganglia
d. Brainstem

A

d. Brainstem

44
Q
  1. In a CVA patient, if the greatest amount of deficit is in the contralateral arm and face, most probably the occlusion is in the:

a. ACA
b. MCA
c. PCA
d. ant. Cerebellar artery
e. VBA

A

b. MCA

44
Q
  1. The artery involved in Wallenburg Syndrome:

a. Superior cerebellar artery
b. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
c. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
d. Vertebrobasilar artery
e. None of these

A

c. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

45
Q
  1. Pure motor stroke is involvement of:

a. Anterior limb of the internal capsule
b. Posterior limb of the internal capsule
c. Thalamus
d. Subthalamic nucleus

A

b. Posterior limb of the internal capsule

46
Q
  1. In weber syndrome, where is the lesion?

a. Tegmentum of the brainstem
b. Basal midbrain
c. Lateral pons

A

b. Basal midbrain

47
Q
  1. All of the following are true about broca’s aphasia, except:

a. Patient’s has poor writing ability
b. Good reading comprehension
c. Patient can easily comprehend verbal commands
d. Lesion is in third frontal convolution
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

48
Q
  1. More marked increase in muscle tone through most of the range of motion but joint is easily moved.

a. 1
b. 1+
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

A

c. 2

49
Q
  1. All of the following are true about locked in syndrome except:

a. CST are affected on both sides
b. Long tracts of cranial nerve are also affected bilaterally
c. Pt may be in COMA
d. Cognition is spared
e. NOTA

A

e. NOTA

50
Q
  1. A patient cannot find his dentures when they are on his crowded bedside table. His visual acuity tests at 20/20 with the Snellen eye chart. The PT suspects problems with:

a. Figure-ground discrimination
b. Body scheme awareness
c. Agraphia
d. Vertical orientation

A
51
Q
  1. A px status post CVA has (R) hemisphere damage & a resultant (L) hemiplegia. W/c of the ff. presentation is NOT typical w/ this kind of px?

a. Poor judgment
b. Impulsive
c. Quick
d. Overly cautious

A

d. Overly cautious

52
Q
  1. The Most common site of occlusion in stroke:

a. MCA
b. ACA
c. PCA
d. Anterior communicating artery

A

a. MCA

Code: Most Common Artery site (MCA)

53
Q
  1. In the thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery, the following happens, EXCEPT:

a. Damage to spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sense
b. Sudden onset of symptom with severe pain
c. Involvement of bilateral corticospinal tract results in flaccid paraplegia
d. Produces bilateral atrophy and flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion

A

b. Sudden onset of symptom with severe pain

54
Q
  1. These regions of the brain appear to be directly responsible for the regulatory function of maintaining body temperature at 34 C:

a. Corticomedial amygdala
b. Preventricular zone of the hypothalamus
c. Preoptic and anterior hypothalamic area
d. Dentate gyrus and hippocampus

A

c. Preoptic and anterior hypothalamic area

Code: PREgulANtory

55
Q
  1. A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject’s inability to do what he or she wants to do:

a. Kinetic apraxia
b. ideational apraxia
c. Ideomotor apraxia
d. Gait apraxia

A

c. Ideomotor apraxia

keywords: inability to do what he or she wants to do

56
Q
  1. Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in the thalamic syndrome may result in the following, EXCEPT:

a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
b. Severe, burning, constant pain in the regions with limited sensation
c. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side
d. Sensation of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs

A

c. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side

57
Q
  1. Functional limitations observed in patients with cerebellar dysfunction may include the following, EXCEPT:

a. Hypertonicity
b. Gait ataxia
c. Fatigability and weakness
d. Dyssynergia
e. postural instability

A

a. Hypertonicity

58
Q
  1. A patient is referred to a physical therapist with a diagnosis of Bell’s palsy. Which cluster of examination findings below would the PT expect to find?

a. Decreased sensation to the forehead, cheek and jaw; absence of a gag reflex; and deviation of the tongue to one side
b. Ptosis, weakness in the temporalis and masseter muscles and deviation of the tongue to one side
c. Ptosis, decreased abduction of the eye and excessive tearing
d. Decreased closure of one eye, drooping of the mouth, and inability to raise the eyebrow

A

d. Decreased closure of one eye, drooping of the mouth, and inability to raise the eyebrow

59
Q
  1. The most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the cerebral cortex is:

a. Dopamine
b. Noradrenaline
c. Glycine
d. GABA
e. none of the above

A

d. GABA

60
Q
  1. Lesion of the seventh cranial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen results in the following conditions, EXCEPT:

a. Can still close the eye on the side of the paralysis
b. Bell’s palsy
c. The buccinators is paralyzed, and the cheek puff out during expiration
d. Total paralysis of facial expression muscles on that side

A

a. Can still close the eye on the side of the paralysis

61
Q
  1. Chiasmal lesions could result in the following visual defects, EXCEPT:

a. Lesion involving both the optic nerve and the optic chiasm produces (ipsilateral blindness and a temporal field defect in the other eye
b. Transaction of the optic nerve results in ipsilateral monocular blindness
c. Lesion on the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia
d. Chiasmal lesion produces bitemporal hemianopsia

A

c. Lesion on the right optic tract results in right homonymous hemianopsia

Dapat left HH

62
Q
  1. Lesion on the right optic tract would result to what visual field defect?

a. Right nasal and left temporal hemianopsia
b. Bilateral quadrantinopsia
c. Left nasal and temporal hemianopsia
d. Bilateral blindness

A

a. Right nasal and left temporal hemianopsia

63
Q
  1. An isolated lesion on this nerve result in vertical diplopia and tilting of head to align the eyes:

a. Trochlear nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Abducens nerve

A

a. Trochlear nerve

64
Q
  1. A 68 years old hemiplegic patient presents with contralateral grasp reflex, sucking reflex, gegenhalten and gait apraxia. What structure is involved?

a. MCA
b. PCA
c. ACA
d. VBA

A

c. ACA

65
Q
  1. Tumor located at the premotor cortex will give rise to:

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side
b. Paralysis of the contralateral side
c. Tremors of the Ipsilateral side
d. Spasticity of the Ipsilateral side

A

a. Incoordination of the contralateral side

Premotor cortex: Coordijnation

66
Q
  1. Component of UE flexor synergy in a stroke patient, EXCEPT:

a. Shoulder ER
b. Shoulder abduction
c. Elbow flexion
d. Wrist and finger flexion
e. None of the these

A

e. None of the these

67
Q
  1. The following are manifestations of ICA stroke, EXCEPT:

a. Aphasia
b. Dysarthria
c. One sided weakness
d. Monocular blindness

A

b. Dysarthria

68
Q
  1. An important tiny branch of ICA, which would differentiate from other stroke with the presence of Amaurosis Fugax:

a. MCA
b. Opthalmic artery
c. Anterior communicating artery
d. Basilar artery

A

b. Opthalmic artery

69
Q
  1. A CVA in the primary visual area of the left cerebral hemisphere results in:

a. Ipsilateral homonymous hemianopsia
b. Binasal heteronymous hemianopsia
c. Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia
d. Bitemporal heteronymous hemianopsia

A

c. Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia

70
Q
  1. What will be the manifestation of a localized lesion in the postcentral gyrus?

a. Absent sensation
b. Motor problem
c. Agraphia
d. Apraxia
e. Problems in judgment

A

a. Absent sensation

Code: CENTsation

71
Q
  1. Type of aphasia described as telegraphic with function words and grammatical infections omitted:

a. Semantic aphasia
b. Pure aphasia
c. Global aphasia
d. Jargon aphasia
e. Syntactic aphasia

A
72
Q
  1. In this phase of MS, the disease appears clinically quiescent without progressive neurologic deficit:

a. Relapsing remitting
b. Plateau
c. Primary progressive
d. Secondary progressive

A

a. Relapsing remitting

73
Q
  1. This condition is characterized by fluent but incomprehensible speech due to severity of paraphasias:

a. Echolalia
b. Neologisms
c. Jargon
d. Agrammatism

A

c. Jargon

74
Q
  1. A complication of stroke when there is a severe burning pain sensation noted on the hemiplegic side:

a. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
b. Thalamic syndrome
c. Cortical syndrome
d. Topographical disorientation

A

b. Thalamic syndrome

Code: Themperature

75
Q
  1. This is characteristic of a right CVA patient:

a. Distorted awareness and impression of self
b. Unable to plan serial activities
c. Unable to do simple computations
d. Lacks functional speech

A

a. Distorted awareness and impression of self

“I am not right”

76
Q
  1. In a stroke patient elevation of the hemiplegic arm above the horizontal may produce an extension and abduction response of the fingers. This reaction is called:
    a. Raimiste’s phenomenon
    b. Protective extension phenomenon
    c. Souque’s phenomenon
    d. Reflex sympathetic phenomenon
A

c. Souque’s phenomenon

a: Resisted hip abd/add of uninvoled = same motion in involved leg

77
Q
  1. The emergence of primitive reflexes often results from injury to this part of the brain:

a. Occipital
b. Frontal
c. Cerebellum
d. Temporal

A

b. Frontal

78
Q
  1. The following are present in cerebellar dysfunction, EXCEPT:

a. Dysmetria
b. Postural instability
c. Gait ataxia
d. Hypertonicity
e. Dyssynergia

A

d. Hypertonicity

79
Q
  1. The following statements describe ataxia, EXCEPT:

a. Can result from damage to the dorsal and ventricular spinocerebellar pathways and pontine nuclei.
b. Can result from damage to the afferent pontine of peripheral nerves and the dorsal column of the spinal cord.
c. Can result from damage to several different motor or sensory regions of the central nervous system.
d. Can result in high amplitude tremor that accompanies movement,
e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is manifested contralateral to the lesion

A

e. Damage in one cerebellar hemisphere is manifested contralateral to the lesion

80
Q
  1. A patient had TBI. What bone is fractured if there is loss of function of olfactory nerve?

a. Vomer
b. Cribriform plate of ethmoid
c. Sphenoid
d. Superior orbital fissure

A

b. Cribriform plate of ethmoid

81
Q
  1. A TBI patient has visual aphasia, alexia, receptive, aphasia. What area of the brain was most likely injured?

a. Area 4 and 6
b. Area 5 and 7
c. Area 40
d. Area 39

A

d. Area 39

Angular Gyrus

B: Association

82
Q
  1. Glove and stocking distribution in the hand:

a. DM
b. TPS
c. CTS
d. Ulnar neuropathy

A

a. DM

83
Q
  1. Demyelinating disease of the CNS include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. MS
b. Nelman-Pick disease
c. Alzheimer’s Disease
d. Schilder’s Disease

A

c. Alzheimer’s Disease

84
Q
  1. This condition is a result of viral infection that attacks the anterior horn cells causing lower motor neuron paralysis:

a. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease
b. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
c. Poliomyelitis
d. Rabies

A

c. Poliomyelitis

85
Q
  1. Following statements characterize amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, EXCEPT:

a. Characterized by degeneration of neurons in the motor nucli of the cranial nerves and anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
b. A combined upper and lower motor neuron lesion that may involve the spinal or bulbar levels or both.
c. Sensory disturbance is an integral part of the disorder.
d. Involvement of the nuclei of the lower cranial nerves results in speaking and swallowing difficulty
e. Progressively fatal disease of unknown origin

A

c. Sensory disturbance is an integral part of the disorder.

86
Q
  1. Lou Gehrig’s disease is what type of motor neuron disease?

a. Upper motor neuron
b. Lower motor neuron
c. Upper and lower
d. Basal ganglion

A

c. Upper and lower

AKA: ALS

87
Q
  1. In what disease do you see a cadaveric hand?

a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
b. Cerebrovasuclar accident
c. Guillain-Barre Syndrome
d. Multiple sclerosis
e. Parkinsons’s Disease

A

a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Code:

88
Q
  1. Which of the following describes the general function of a person with Stage 4 Parkinson’s disease?

a. One-sided resting tremors, little or no functional limitations
b. Totally wheelchair dependent
c. Impaired balance with mild to moderate functional limitations
d. Walks with decreased balance; poor dexterity for personal ADLS

A

d. Walks with decreased balance; poor dexterity for personal ADLS

a: Stage I
b: Stage V

89
Q
  1. When the therapist resists patient’s abduction or adduction on the left lower extremity, and the right lower extremity also reacts, this is called?

a. Associated reaction
b. Raimiste’s phenomenon
c. Synkinesis
d. Walski phenomenon

A

b. Raimiste’s phenomenon

90
Q
  1. It is a disturbance in the normal fluency and time patterning of speech that is inappropriate for the individual’s age. This disturbance is characterized by frequent repetitions or prolongations of sounds or syllables and by other types of speech dysfluencies such as circumlocutions and audible or silent blocking.

a. Tourette’s disorder
b. Cluttering
c. Stuttering

A

c. Stuttering

91
Q
  1. Failure to drive specific brain functions can lead to functional degradation.

a. Use It Or Lose It
b. Use It And Improve It
c. Specificity
d. Repetition Matters

A
92
Q
  1. Patient appears appropriate and oriented within the hospital and home settings; goes through daily routine automatically, but frequently robot-like. Patient shows minimal to no confusion and has shallow recall of activities. Judgement remains impaired.

a. Purposeful appropriate
b. Automatic appropriate
c. Localized response
d. Confused inappropriate
e. Confused appropriate

A

b. Automatic appropriate

93
Q
  1. Which of the following is a negative feature of an upper motor neuron syndrome

a. Paresis
b. Paralysis
c. Fatigue
d. AOTA

A

d. AOTA

94
Q
  1. Evaluation of a patient reveals the following deficits: (1) decreased aggressiveness and ambition and inappropriate social responses; (2) inability to process sequential thoughts in order to solve a problem; and (3) inability to process multiple bits of information that could then be recalled instantaneously to complete a thought or solve a problem. Damage to which brain region could be responsible for such deficits?

a. Premotor cortex
b. Parieto-occipital cortex in the nondominant hemisphere
c. Broca’s area
d. Limbic association cortex
e. Prefrontal association cortex

A

e. Prefrontal association cortex

95
Q
  1. A 67-year-old man has a stroke. One week later, he experiences sudden and uncontrolled flailing, ballistic movements of his limbs. Which part of the man’s brain is most likely to have been damaged by the stroke?

a. Globus pallidus
b. Lateral hypothalamus
c. Red nucleus
d. Subthalamic nucleus
e. Ventrobasal complex of thalamus

A

d. Subthalamic nucleus

96
Q
  1. In Middle Cebrebral Antery syndrome, contralateral hemiparesis involving the upper extremity and face more than the lower extremity concerns:

a. Wernicke’s cortical area
b. Broca’s cortical area
c. Parietal lobe
d. Internal capsule and primary motor cortex

A

d. Internal capsule and primary motor cortex

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