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Human Physiology > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the specialised cells that underly the basis of nervous system communication?

A

Neurons

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2
Q

Information is conveyed between neurons in the form of a nerve impulse, otherwise known as what?

A

An action potential

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3
Q

The cell body of a neuron is called what?

A

The soma

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4
Q

The gaps between the myelin sheath of a neuron are called what?

A

Nodes of Ranvier

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5
Q

What does the central nervous system (CNS) consist of?

A

The brain and spinal cord

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6
Q

What is the main function of the CNS and PNS in relation to one another?

A

The CNS is the integrative control centre and the PNS is the communication network between the CNS and the rest of the body

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7
Q

Are the components of the CNS encased in bone?

A

Yes

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8
Q

What bone encases the brain?

A

The cranium (skull)

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9
Q

What bone encases the spinal cord?

A

The vertebral column (spine)

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10
Q

The CNS is protected by three associated membranes - what are they collectively known as?

A

The meninges

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11
Q

What are the three membranes known as the meninges?

A
  1. Dura mater
  2. Arachnoid membrane
  3. Pia mater
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12
Q

The subarachnoid space contains what?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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13
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is generated by what system?

A

The ventricular system

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14
Q

What are the four components that make up the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A
  1. 12 pairs of cranial nerves
  2. 31 pairs of spinal nerves
  3. Ganglia
  4. Sensory receptors and motor endings
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15
Q

Where do the cranial nerves emerge from and how many pairs are there?

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves that emerge from the brainstem

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16
Q

Where do the spinal nerves emerge from and how many pairs are there?

A

31 pairs of spinal nerves that emerge from the spinal cord

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17
Q

What are ganglia?

A

Ganglia are collections of peripheral nerve cells (neurons)

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18
Q

What two divisions is the PNS divided into?

A
  1. Sensory (afferent) division
  2. Motor (efferent) division
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19
Q

Does the afferent (sensory) division carry information to or from the CNS?

A

To the CNS

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20
Q

Does the efferent (motor) division carry information to or from the CNS?

A

From the CNS

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21
Q

What two systems is the motor (efferent) division of the PNS divided into?

A
  1. Somatic nervous system
  2. Autonomic (visceral) nervous system
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22
Q

What muscle types does the somatic nervous system innervate?

A

Skeletal muscle responsible for voluntary movement

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23
Q

What muscle types does the autonomic nervous system innervate?

A

Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands for regulating involuntary bodily functions

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24
Q

What are the three divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A
  1. The sympathetic system
  2. The parasympathetic system
  3. The enteric system
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25
Q

What response does the sympathetic system regulate?

A

The ‘fight or flight’ response

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26
Q

What response does the parasympathetic system regulate?

A

The ‘rest and digest’ response

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27
Q

What does the enteric system regulate?

A

The gastrointestinal (GI) tract

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28
Q

How are the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems alike?

A

They both target the same organ systems but elicit opposite effects. Both systems are not active at the same time

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29
Q

What nerve fibres make up the sensory (afferent) division?

A

Somatic and visceral sensory nerve fibres

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30
Q

What nerve fibres make up the motor (efferent) division?

A

Motor nerve fibres

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31
Q

What is the function of the sympathetic division?

A

To mobilise body systems during activity

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32
Q

What is the function of the parasympathetic division?

A

To conserve energy whilst promoting house-keeping functions during rest

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33
Q

What two types of matter make up nervous system tissue?

A
  1. Grey matter
  2. White matter
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34
Q

What does grey matter consist of?

A
  1. Neuronal cell bodies
  2. Dendrites
  3. Axon terminals
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35
Q

What does white matter consist of?

A

Nerve fibres (myelinated axons and connective tissue)

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36
Q

What are the four main parts that make up the entire brain?

A
  1. The cerebrum (cerebral cortex)
  2. The diencephalon
  3. The cerebellum
  4. The brainstem
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37
Q

The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain and is divided into two hemispheres. What lobes make up each hemisphere?

A
  1. Frontal lobe
  2. Parietal lobe
  3. Occipital lobe
  4. Temporal lobe
  5. Insula lobe
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38
Q

Four of the brain lobes can be seen from the lateral surface, whereas the insula is buried underneath the surface of what fissure?

A

The lateral fissure

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39
Q

The sulcus that falls in the middle of the brain separating the frontal and parietal lobe is called what?

A

The central sulcus

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40
Q

What is the most prevalent age-related neurodegenerative disease and the leading cause of dementia?

A

Alzheimer’s disease (AD)

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41
Q

Alzheimer’s disease involves progressive degeneration of the cerebral cortex, with degeneration initially localised to what part of the brain?

A

The medial temporal lobe

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42
Q

What disease is characterised by beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles consist of hyper-phosphorylated tau?

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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43
Q

What are the components of the diencephalon?

A
  1. Epithalamus
  2. Thalamus
  3. Subthalamus
  4. Hypothalamus
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44
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

Functions as a sensory integration hub of the brain

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45
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

The regulation of emotional behaviour and whole-body homeostasis

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46
Q

What part of the diencephalon is a key central regulator of the autonomic nervous system?

A

The hypothalamus

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47
Q

The hypothalamus regulates endocrine function by innervating what gland?

A

The pituitary gland

48
Q

The brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord and consists of what three parts?

A
  1. Midbrain
  2. Pons
  3. Medulla oblongata
49
Q

The brainstem contains the origins of the cranial nerves. What is its other functions?

A

Involved in the regulation of motor function, and regulates essential processes such as breathing, blood circulation and consciousness

50
Q

What is the second most prevalent neurodegenerative disease?

A

Parkinson’s disease (PD)

51
Q

Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by the loss of what neurons in the Substantia Nigra pars compacta (SNpc) of the midbrain?

A

Dopaminergic neurons

52
Q

The loss of SNpc neurons in Parkinson’s disease diminishes dopaminergic innervation of what?

A

The striatum (basal ganglia) - subcortical nuclei that are involved in the regulation of movement

53
Q

What disease is characterised by resting tremors, muscular rigidity, and postural & gait impairment?

A

Parkinson’s disease (PD)

54
Q

Parkinson’s disease is characterised by proteinaceous aggregates known as what?

A

Lewy bodies

55
Q

The cerebellum is the largest structure of the hindbrain and is connected to the dorsal brainstem by what?

A

Cerebellar peduncles

56
Q

The cerebellum consists of two hemispheres joined at the midline by a structure called what?

A

The vermis

57
Q

The outer cortical layer of grey matter of the cerebellum that surrounds the inner white matter is called what?

A

The cerebellar cortex

58
Q

What part of the brain is involved entirely in the unconscious regulation of movement such as equilibrium (balance), coordination, and posture?

A

The cerebellum

59
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are made from grey matter?

A

The dorsal, lateral, and ventral horns

60
Q

What parts of the spinal cord are made from white matter?

A

The dorsal, lateral, and ventral columns

61
Q

In which direction does the Dorsal spinal cord relay sensory information?

A

From the periphery to the brain (ascending pathway)

62
Q

In which direction does the Ventral spinal cord relay motor information?

A

Form the brain to the periphery (descending pathway)

63
Q

What disease is characterised by the degeneration of ventral horn motor neurons, causing the progressive loss of ability to move, speak, swallow, and breathe?

A

Motor neuron disease/Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

64
Q

Each axon in a nerve is surrounded by what connective tissue?

A

Endoneurium

65
Q

What connective tissue binds groups of axons into fascicles?

A

Perineurium

66
Q

All of the fascicles are bound in what connective tissue to form a nerve?

A

Epineurium

67
Q

What type of receptor is found in the skin and responds to painful (nociceptive) stimuli, temperature, touch, and pressure?

A

Exteroceptor

68
Q

Interoceptors respond to mechanical and chemical stimuli. Where are they found?

A

In the viscera

69
Q

Proprioceptors are located in muscles, joints, and tendons. What do they promote?

A

Postural awareness and movement

70
Q

In the autonomic nervous system, are the postganglionic or preganglionic neurons found in the CNS?

A

Preganglionic neurons are found in the CNS

71
Q

Where do the preganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system emerge from?

A

The thoracic and lumbar portions of the spinal cord

72
Q

The preganglionic axons of what system of the ANS emerge from the brainstem and sacral portion of the spinal cord?

A

The parasympathetic nervous system

73
Q

Information is conducted along neurons in the form of what?

A

An electrical impulse - an action potential

74
Q

What is the definition of an action potential?

A

The action potential is a self-regenerating wave of electrochemical activity that allows nerve cells to carry signals throughout the nervous system

75
Q

Neurons are the specialised cells of the nervous system. What is their function?

A

They are responsible for conductive nerve impulses and releasing neurotransmitters

76
Q

Glia are a group of specialised cells that are essential for what?

A

Maintaining the neural environment and nervous system communication

77
Q

How many billion neurons are in the brain?

A

Roughly 85 billion neurons

78
Q

Neurons are post-mitotic. What does this mean?

A

They do not replicate

79
Q

Neurites are any projection from the cell body of a neuron. Give two examples.

A
  1. Axon
  2. Dendrite
80
Q

Axons are single, long processes of uniform diameter. They can branch to form what?

A

Axon collaterals

81
Q

How long are axons?

A

Some can be less than 1mm, and others can extend as far as 1m long

82
Q

Are axons myelinated or unmyelinated?

A

Axons can be either myelinated or unmyelinated

83
Q

What is the function of axons?

A

To conduct action potentials

84
Q

Dendrites often present as many in a complex, branching network. How long are they?

A

Rarely longer than 2mm

85
Q

Are dendrites myelinated or unmyelinated?

A

Only unmyelinated

86
Q

What are the functions of dendrites?

A

To receive electrochemical signals from axons

87
Q

Proper axonal transport is essential for neuronal function. These processes rely on the integrity of what transport components?

A
  1. Microtubules
  2. Motor proteins
88
Q

What microtubule protein is dysfunctional in Alzheimer’s disease and other degenerative conditions?

A

Tau

89
Q

What is a synapse?

A

The places where neurons connect and communicate with each other

90
Q

What are the most abundant glial cell?

A

Astrocytes

91
Q

What glial cell is essential for the formation and maintenance of synapses?

A

Astrocytes

92
Q

Astrocytes buffer extracellular potassium ions and supply metabolites to neurons. What is their other function?

A

To take up and metabolise neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft

93
Q

Astrocytes regulate blood flow and form part of what barrier?

A

The blood-brain-barrier

94
Q

What type of astrocyte is prevalent along myelinated nerve fibres in the white matter of the CNS?

A

Fibrous astrocytes

95
Q

What type of matter are protoplasmic astrocytes present in?

A

Grey matter of the CNS

96
Q

What type of glial cell are the innate immune cells of the CNS?

A

Microglia

97
Q

What percentage of cells in the brain make up microglia?

A

Around 15%

98
Q

Microglia are first responders to injury and infection and phagocytose cellular debris. What do they secrete to support neurons?

A

They secrete cytokines and growth factors

99
Q

What is the main function of Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells?

A

To myelinate axon membranes

100
Q

What is the purpose of myelination?

A

To increase the speed of action potential propagation

101
Q

Where in the nervous system do Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons, and how many do they myelinate?

A
  1. In the CNS
  2. Myelinate 40-50 axons
102
Q

Where in the nervous system do Schwann cells myelinate axons, and how many do they myelinate?

A
  1. In the PNS
  2. Myelinate 1 axon
103
Q

What part of the CNS do ependymal cells line?

A

The ventricles

104
Q

What structure do ependymal cells form that generate CSF?

A

The Choroid Plexus

105
Q

CSF flows through the ventricular system into the subarachnoid space to bathe the brain and spinal cord. What is its function?

A
  1. Supply the CNS with metabolites
  2. Clear waste products as it is reabsorbed into the blood
106
Q

Explain what membrane potential means?

A

Voltage across the neuronal membrane at any moment

107
Q

Explain what equilibrium potential means?

A

Voltage that exactly balances an ionic concentration gradient

108
Q

What is meant by the resting potential?

A

The neuronal membrane potential when action potentials aren’t being generated - in the absence of sufficient stimulus

109
Q

At resting membrane potential, there is an uneven distribution of ions. What is this?

A
  1. More potassium ions inside the cell
  2. More sodium ions outside the cell
110
Q

Is the inside of the neuronal membrane at resting membrane potential more negative or positive, relative to the outside?

A

More negative

111
Q

What is the resting membrane potential in mv?

A

-62 mv

112
Q

Is the intensity of a stimulus of an action potential reflected in frequency or amplitude?

A

Frequency of action potentials

113
Q

Synaptic transmission is either excitatory or inhibitory. What does excitatory transmission do?

A

Depolarise the post synaptic cell

114
Q

Synaptic transmission is either excitatory or inhibitory. What does inhibitory transmission do?

A

Hyperpolarises the post synaptic cell

115
Q

The sum of what determines whether the post synaptic membrane depolarisation passes the ‘all or nothing’ threshold for action potential firing?

A

Sum of all excitatory and inhibitory inputs

Human Physiology (6 decks)

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