Notes to memorise Flashcards

1
Q

What is the burden and standard of proof in criminal matters? (EA, s 141)

A

In a criminal proceeding, the burden of proof lies on the Prosecution and the standard of proof is beyond reasonable doubt (EA, s 141(1)). All that must be proved BRD are the elements of the offence and the absence of a defence (JDA, s 61).
The Court is to find the case of an Accused proved if it is satisfied it has been proved on the balance of probabilities (EA, s 141(2)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an indictable offence? (SA, 112)

A

An indictable offence is an offence under Victorian legislation described as being level 1-6 or punishable by level 1-6 imprisonment or fine or both (SA, s 112). Offences under the Crimes Act and Wrongs Act are deemed indictable unless the contrary intention appears. Indictable offences are usually more serious offences (e.g. rape, murder) though can also range to less serious offences (e.g. theft, some drug offences).
Indictable offences are ultimately determined in the indictable jurisdiction of the CCV or SCV. An Accused generally has a right for their indictable offence to be heard by a jury. Indictable offences attract higher penalties in recognition of their more serious nature and harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a summary offence? (SA, 112)

A

A summary offence is any offence under Victorian legislation which is not an indictable offence (SA, s 112). Summary offences are comparatively less serious offences (e.g. traffic offences, public nuisance). At first instance, they are determined in the MCV by a Magistrate (no jury). The maximum penalty available is 2 years imprisonment for 1 offence or 5 years for several offences (SA, ss 113A, 113B).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is an opinion? What is a fact?

A

Neither ‘opinion’ nor ‘fact’ are defined in the EA.
An opinion is an inference or conclusion drawn from observed and communicable data (Honeysett).
A fact is something that is known to have happened or to exist, something for which direct proof exists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the difference between a charge and an indictment?

A

A charge is a statement of the offence alleged to have been committed by the Accused that the Prosecution sets out to prove. To be valid, it must be stated in Accordance with Sch 1 of the CPA (s 6(3)).
In comparison, an indictment is a document that includes the charge(s) to be heard in the indictable jurisdiction of the CCV or SCV. It is filed by the DPP or Crown Prosecutor before a plea hearing or jury trial. To be valid, the indictment must be signed by the DPP (or Crown Prosecutor in the name of the DPP) and outline the charges in compliance with Sch 1 of the CPA (s 159(3)). It must also include the names of witnesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Within what timeframe must a proceeding for a summary offence be commenced? (CPA, s 7)

A

Within 12 months (CPA, s 7(1)).
The exceptions to this rule are where another timeframe is specified under another Act or where the Accused gives written consent and the DPP or a Crown Prosecutor consent to the proceeding being commenced after the expiry of that period (CPA, ss 7(1)(a) and (b)).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the burden and standard of proof in civil matters?

A

In a civil proceeding, the burden generally falls on the Plaintiff. If the Defence is not denying an issue of fact but arguing a point which, if established, is an avoidance of the Plaintiff’s claim, the burden is on the Defence with respect to that point.
The Court must find the case of a party proved if it is satisfied it has been proved on the balance of probabilities (EA, s 140). In determining whether it is satisfied on the balance of probabilities, the Court may consider the nature of the claims, subject matter, and gravity of matters alleged (EA, s 140(2); Briginshaw).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between a writ and an originating motion?

A

Civil proceedings must be commenced by either of the two available forms of originating process - a writ or originating motion (SCR, rr 4.04, 4.05).
Except in certain limited circumstances, every proceeding is to be commenced by writ (r 4.04). A writ shall be in Form 5A and indorsed by a statement of claim. A writ is appropriate for proceedings where there will be disputes of fact that require pleadings and discovery.
An originating motion is used when:
- there is no defendant (r 4.05(a));
- allowed under any Act or under the SCR (r 4.05(b) and (c)); or
- where there is likely to be no substantial factual dispute (e.g. judicial review).
At a trial commenced by OM, evidence is taken by affidavit as opposed to the usual process of oral evidence tested by XXN (r 45.02).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When can a civil proceeding have a jury? (r 47.02)

A

A proceeding commenced by writ and founded on contract or tort can be tried by jury (r 47.02(1)).
For this to occur, a Plaintiff must signify a request for a jury in the writ, or alternatively, the Defendant may signify a request in writing within 10 days after the last appearance (r 47.02(1)(a)). The prescribed jury fees must be paid.
If neither party makes a request, the proceeding will be heard by Judge alone unless the Court orders otherwise (r 47.02(2)).
A party who requests a jury should not be deprived of a trial by jury without good cause, and a jury is presumed capable of dealing with complex matters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the rule in Jones v Dunkel and when does it apply?

A

The rule in Jones v Dunkel is that if a part does not call a witness who would have been expected to give evidence without reasonable explanation, it may be inferred that that W’s evidence would not have assisted the party’s case.
Common law rule applies in civil proceedings and civil penalty proceedings.
The common law rule does not apply in criminal proceedings (JDA, s 44), but effectively the same reasoning and directions can be sought against the Prosecution under JDA, s 43. This reasoning cannot be sought against the Accused (JDA, ss 41, 42), consistent with the right to silence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the rule in Browne v Dunn and what happens if it’s breached?

A

The rule in Browne v Dunn is a fundamental rule of fairness. Where a party proposes to lead evidence that contradicts or discredits a witness, it must be put to the witness in XXN so they have the opportunity to respond.
There is no single solution for a breach of this rule and the remedy will depend on the circumstances of the case. Possible remedies include seeking and being granted leave to recall the witness (EA, s 46), certain evidence being ruled inadmissible (ss 135, 137), or a direction that the failure to XXN bears upon the weight of the evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a voir dire?

A

A voir sure is a ‘trial within a trial’ process by which preliminary issues such as competence, compellability or admissibility are determined (EA, s 189).
A voir dire hearing is generally conducted in the jury’s absence.
The issues for determination will be assessed on the balance of probabilities (EA, s 142).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the requirements for a valid charge-sheet? (CPA, s 6)

A

For a charge-sheet to be valid it must be in writing, signed by the informant personally, and comply with Sch 1 (s 6(3)). Sch 1 provides, among other things, that a charge must state the offence the Accused is said to have committed and contain particulars necessary to give reasonable information as to the nature of the charge in ordinary language. An error in the charge-sheet won’t invalidate it (s 9) and it can be amended (s 8).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the cab rank principle?

A

The cab rank principle provides that Counsel has an ethical obligation to take any brief offered by a solicitor provided it is within their skill and experience, they are available, an acceptable fee is offered, and the barrister is not obliged or permitted to refuse the brief under rr 101, 103-105 (BR, r 17). This rule is intended to facilitate access to justice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is evidence relevant?

A

Evidence is relevant if, assuming accepted, it could rationally affect (directly or indirectly) the assessment of probability of a fact in issue (EA, s 55).
This is a low threshold (even more so for the Defence). It connotes a minimal logical connection where the credibility or reliability of the evidence is not considered (IMM).
The facts in issue may be the elements of the offence, mode of complicity, and any defence open to the Defence (Smith).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is probative value?

A

The probative value of evidence is the extent to which it rationally affects the probability of the existence of the fact in issue. This is assessed in the context of the other available evidence.
The evidence is taken at its highest, so its credibility or reliability is not considered (IMM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is prejudicial effect?

A

Prejudicial effect is the risk the jury/fact finder may misuse or overvalue the impugned evidence. Evidence is not unfairly prejudicial merely because it makes conviction more likely, there must be a real possibility the evidence might be used in an improper or unfair way (Bauer).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can an Accused appeal against sentence? (CPA, ss 278-281)

A

An Accused may apply for leave to appeal against sentence by filing a notice of application for leave in accordance with the rules of Court within 28 days of sentence (ss 278, 279).
The Court of Appeal may refuse leave if there are no reasonable grounds it would reduce the sentence (s 280).
The Accused will be successful on appeal if they satisfy the Court of Appeal that there is an error in the sentence (House v R) and that a different sentence should be imposed (s 281).
The Court of Appeal must warn the Accused if it is considering increasing the sentence (s 281).
The orders on a successful appeal are either to impose a new sentence or remit (s 282).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How can the DPP appeal against sentence? (CPA, ss 287-290)

A

The DPP can appeal as of right if the DPP believes there is an error in the sentence and that it’s in the public interest to appeal (s 287).
The DPP must file a notice of appeal signed by the DPP within 28 days of sentence (s 288). A copy must be personally served on the Accused within 7 days and another copy must be provided to the Accused’s previous lawyers (s 288).
The DPP will be successful on appeal if the DPP satisfies the Court of Appeal that there is an error in the sentence (House v R) and that a different sentence should be imposed (s 289).
On a successful appeal, the Court of Appeal must set aside the sentence and impose the new sentence it considers appropriate (s 290).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an arraignment? (CPA, ss 210, 215, 217)

A

Arraignment is the process by which the Accused confirms their identity and is asked whether they plead guilty or not guilty to the charges. Arraignment must occur before the jury unless the Accused pleads guilty on all charges. The trial commenced upon arraignment in the presence of the jury (ss 210, 215, 217).

21
Q

What is character evidence and when can it be led? (EA, s 110)

A

Evidence of an Accused’s good character generally or in a particular respect is admissible, not being subject to the usual exclusionary rules of hearsay, opinion, tendency or coincidence (s 110(1)).
Where the Accused leads character evidence, the Prosecution may then lead evidence in rebuttal that the Accused is not of good character generally or in a particular respect (ss 110(2) and (3)). Leave is required for the Prosecution to XXN the Accused on character (s 112).

22
Q

What is an admission? (EA, ss 81-90)

A

An admission is an exception to hearsay rule (s 81). An admission is a statement against interest made or authorised by the party it is being admitted against (s 83). To be admissible, the admission must be first-hand hearsay (s 82, see s 62).

23
Q

What is an affidavit? (O 43)

A

An affidavit is a sworn written statement made by a person, the deponent, in accordance with the requirements of O43, including the form (r 43.01) and content (r 43.03) requirements. An affidavit must be confined to facts based on the deponent’s own knowledge unless an exception applies to allow facts based on information and belief (e.g. affidavits in interlocutory applications).
The purpose of an affidavit is to assist the Court to determine where the truth lays by setting out the relevant facts.

24
Q

What is an aggregate sentence? (SA, s 9)

A

An aggregate sentence is a single sentence for more than one offence, without the individual sentence for each sentence charge being specified.
A Court may impose an aggregate term of imprisonment where offences are founded on the same facts or form (or are part of) a series of offences of the same or a similar character (s 9(1)).
If a Court proposes to impose an aggregate term, it must announce that decision, the reason for it and the effect of it (s 9(3)).

25
Q

How can an Accused appeal against conviction? (ss 274-277)

A

An Accused may seek leave to appeal against conviction (s 274) by filing a notice of application for leave in accordance with the rules of Court within 28 days of sentence (s 275).
The Accused will only be successful on appeal if the Accused satisfies the Court of Appeal the verdict of the jury is unreasonable/cannot be supported on the evidence or there has been a substantial miscarriage of justice (s 276).
On a successful appeal, the Court of Appeal must set aside the conviction and make further orders as appropriate, such as order a new trial or acquit (s 277).

26
Q

What is client legal privilege CLP (EA, s 118)

A

Evidence is privileged where it is a confidential communication between a client and a lawyer, or a confidential document prepared for the dominant purpose of providing legal advice to the client (EA, s 118).
Privilege will be waived where a client acts inconsistently with the maintenance of that privilege (s 122).

27
Q

What is coincidence evidence? (EA, s 98)

A

Coincidence evidence is evidence 2 or more events occurred, adduced to prove a person did a particular act or had a particular state of mind, on the basis that having regard to any similarities, it is improbably they occurred coincidentally (s 98).
Coincidence evidence is admissible where notice is filed and served, evidence has SPV and, if Crown adducing, its PV substantially outweighs its PE (ss 98, 101).

28
Q

What are compelling reasons (BA, s 4C)

A

A must show compelling reasons for bail where charged with a Sch 2 offence or offence other than Sch 1 or 2 and has a terrorism record or risk (s 4AA(3) & (4)).
BDM will consider all relevant surrounding circumstances (s 3AAA), such as strength of P’s case, A’s personal circumstances and criminal history. A synthesis of all factors must compel the conclusion detention is not justified (Re Ceylan).

29
Q

What is credibility evidence (ss 101A-108)

A

Credibility evidence includes evidence relevant to a person’s honesty, reliability, or recollection, including their ability to observe and remember facts (Dict, s 101A).
Credibility evidence about a W is not admissible (s 102) unless an exception applies (ss 103-108).

30
Q

What is the purpose and mechanisms of discovery? (CPA, ss 26, 54-55; SCR O29)

A

Parties must discover documents in accordance with the SCR (CPA, s 54).
A party must, after a reasonable search, discover any documents in its possession which it relies on, adversely affect its case, or supports or adversely affects another party’s case (r 29.01.1). What constitutes a reasonable search will depend on the circumstances including the volume of documents and their significance (r 29.01.1(5)).
Parties have an overarching obligation to disclose the existence of critical documents (CPA, s 26).

31
Q

What are exceptional circumstances (BA, s 4A)?

A

A must show exceptional circumstances for bail where charged with a Sch 1 offence or Sch 2 offence and has a terrorism record or risk or already on bail, summons, awaiting trial etc (s 4AA(1)&(2)).
BDM will consider all relevant surrounding circumstances (s 3AAA), such as strength of P’s case, A’s personal circumstances and absence of unacceptable risk. It is a high hurdle but not an impossible standard (Re CT).

32
Q

What is hearsay?

A

Hearsay is a previous representation used to prove the truth of its contents. It is prima facie inadmissible (s 59).
The purpose of the rule is to ensure the best evidence available is received, balancing the quality of the evidence and it’s availability. The rule enhances fact finding and so enhances the fairness of the trial.

33
Q

What is incriminating conduct evidence (JDA, ss 19-23)?

A

ICE is evidence of A’s lies or conduct after alleged offence which amounts to an implied admission of having committed the offence (or element thereof) charged or negates a defence (s 18).
ICE is only admissible where P gives 28 days notice and the Court has given leave (ss 19, 20).
If P leads ICE, judge must give direction under s 21 and may give direction under s 22.

34
Q

What is opinion evidence? (EA, s 76)

A

Evidence of an opinion is not admissible to prove a fact about which the opinion is expressed (s 76), unless an exception applies (ss 78, 79).
‘Opinion’ is not defined in the EA. An opinion is an inference or conclusion drawn from observed and communicable data (Honeysett).

35
Q

What is tendency evidence (EA, s 97)?

A

Tendency evidence is evidence of the character, reputation or conduct of a person or a tendency a person has or had to act in a particular way or have a particular state of mind (s 97).
Tendency evidence is admissible where notice is filed and served, evidence has SPV (2 stage test in Hughes) and (when Crown adducing the evidence) its PV substantially outweighs its PE (ss 97, 101).

36
Q

What are counsel’s ethical obligations when advising on pleas? (BR, r 39 and 40)

A

Counsel must advise the client about any plea generally and make it clear the client has complete responsibility and freedom in choosing the plea to enter (r 39).
Counsel may advise in strong terms that the client is unlikely to escape conviction and a guilty plea is generally treated as a mitigating factor (r 40).

37
Q

What is the cab rank rule (BR, r 17)?

A

Counsel has an ethical obligation to take any brief offered by a solicitor provided it is within their skill and experience, they are available, an acceptable fee is offered and Counsel is not obliged or permitted to refuse the brief under rr 101, 103-105 (BR, r 17). This rule is intended to facilitate access to justice.

38
Q

Can Counsel comment to media generally (BR, r 76)?

A

Counsel must not publish any inaccurate material, confidential information, or express any opinion on the merits of a current or potential proceeding (other than in genuine educational or academic discussion) (r 76).

39
Q

Can Counsel comment to media on briefed matters? (BR, r 77)

A

Counsel must not publish any material on a matter Counsel is briefed in other than, in responding to questions, the identity of parties or witnesses already called, nature of the issues, and nature of orders or judgment including reasons (BR, r 77).
At request of client or solicitor, Counsel may provide pleadings, affidavits, transcripts and exhibits read in open court.

40
Q

What are Counsel’s duties of confidentiality (BR, rr 114 and 115)?

A

Counsel must not disclose or use confidential information obtained in the course of practice unless the information is later obtained from another person not bound by confidentiality obligations or the client has consented to sharing the information (rr 114, 115).

41
Q

Can Counsel act for more than one party to a proceeding? (BR, r 119)

A

Counsel can represent more than one party to a proceeding where satisfied there is no real possibility the interests of the clients may conflict (r 119).
Counsel must be satisfied there is no real risk that the confidential information of one party may prejudice Counsel’s ability to continue to represent another party.
This assessment must be undertaken ASAP so that Counsel may return the brief to one or more parties (as required) with sufficient time to enable another Counsel to be briefed (r 110).

42
Q

When can Counsel act on a direct access basis (BR, rr 21, 22, 101(k), 105(a))?

A

Counsel is not required to act on a direct access basis, however may do so effectively where there is no possibility the client would suffer serious prejudice (BR, rr 21, 22, 101(k), 105(a)).
Counsel must advise the client (and obtain written acknowledgment) in relation to matters in BR 22 (work of a barrister rules, the fact that the client may need to retain an IS at short notice, any disadvantage the client may suffer without an IS, relative capacity of Counsel to perform work compared to Counsel and solicitor team, and a fair description of Counsel’s experience.
Counsel must not accept the brief if they believe, on reasonable grounds, there is a real possibility not having a solicitor would prejudice their ability to advance and protect client’s interests (BR, r 101(k)).
Counsel must disclose costs directly to client and retain the file for 7 years.

43
Q

What is Counsel’s duty to the client? (BR, r 35)

A

Counsel must promote and fearlessly protect their client’s best interests without regard to their own interests or any consequences (BR, r 35).

44
Q

What is Counsel’s duty to the Court? (BR, rr 23, 24, 25)

A

Counsel has an overriding duty to the Court to act with independence in the interests of the administration of justice (BR, r 23).
Counsel must not mislead or deceive the Court (BR, r 24) and must correct any misleading statement ASAP (BR, r 25).

45
Q

What are Counsel’s duties to the opponent (BR, rr 49, 50, 51)?

A

Counsel must now knowingly make a false or misleading statement to an opponent (BR, r 49) and must correct any such statement ASAP (BR, r 50).
Counsel does not breach this rule by failing to correct an error stated by an opponent (BR, r 51).

46
Q

What are Counsel’s obligations of independence (BR, rr 42, 43)?

A

Counsel must not act as a mere mouthpiece and must exercise independent forensic judgment (BR, r 42).
Counsel does not breach their duty to their client by choosing to, contrary to client’s wishes, confine any hearing to the real issues, present their case quickly and simply, or inform the Court of persuasive authority against the client’s case (BR, r 43).

47
Q

What are Counsel’s ethical obligations about integrity of evidence (BR, rr 69, 70)?

A

Counsel must not suggest a W five false or misleading evidence or coach answers (r 69).
Counsel does not breach this rule by encouraging Ws to tell the truth or questioning/testing their evidence (including re any inconsistencies) (r 70).

48
Q

What are the Prosecutor’s duties (BR, rr 83, 84, 85, 85)

A

A Prosecutor must fairly assist the Court to arrive at the truth and seek impartially to have the whole of the relevant evidence out before the Court (BR, r 83).
A Prosecutor must not press their case beyond a full and firm presentation (r 84) and must not argue any law or fact without a proper basis (r 86).
A Prosecutor must not inflame or bias the Court against A by language or conduct (r 85).

49
Q

What is the duty of responsible use of Court privilege? (BR, rr 60, 61)

A

Counsel must ensure their advice to invoke the Court’s coercive powers is reasonably justified, appropriate for advancing client’s case, not used to harass or embarrass and not principally to gain a collateral advantage (r 60).
Counsel’s allegations against any person must be reasonably justified, appropriate for advancing client’s case, and not used to harass or embarrass (BR, r 61).