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RD Exam COPY COPY COPY > Nutrition care part 1 > Flashcards

Nutrition care part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In community surveys, a frequent symptom of malnutrition is:

a. scurvy
b. rickets
c. low serum albumin
d. low hemoglobin

A

d. low hemoglobin

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2
Q

Which is the least common symptom in the elderly?

a. osteomalacia
b. osteoporosis
c. obesity
d. hypertenstion

A

a. osteomalacia

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3
Q

What is included in the study of demographics?

A

age and sex of individuals, population statistics

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4
Q

Athletes should receive…

a. salt pills only during the summer months
b. extra protein
c. carbohydrate loading two weeks prior to an event
d. water during an event to replace lost fluids

A

d. water during an event to replace lost fluids

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5
Q

How many grams of protein would you receive on a 1500 calorie diet which is 20% protein?

a. 70
b. 75
c. 64
d. 300

A

b. 75

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6
Q

A patient is on a high protein, low carbohydrate diet. What advice should you offer?

a. increase fluid intake
b. decrease the intake of complex carbs
d. decrease fluid intake
d. decrease the intake of saturated fats

A

a. increase fluid intake

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7
Q

Nutritional prescription for a patient with cardiac cachexia includes:

a. < 1 liter fluid, low sodium
b. low sodium, low saturated fat, low cholesterol, high-calorie
c. restricted calorie, .8 g protein/kg, fluid restriction
d. normal protein, follow DASH diet

A

b. low sodium, low saturated fat, low cholesterol, high-calorie

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8
Q

Which infant is at the greatest risk?

a. 20 lbs hemoglobin 10
b. 22 lbs hemoglobin 10.5
c. 19 lbs hemoglobin 11
d. 30 lbs hemoglobin 9

A

d. 30 lbs hemoglobin 9

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9
Q

An alcoholic patient has a low serum albumin, low hemoglobin, high ammonia, abnormal liver function tests and ascites. Why is he on a 500 mg sodium diet?

a. secondary renal failure
b. hypoaldosteronsim
c. hypoalbuminemia
d. hyperammonemia

A

c. hypoalbuminemia

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10
Q

Which of the following should a patient with hypoalbuminemia, low hemoglobin, high ammonia, abnormal liver function tests and ascites have for lunch?

a. 4 oz cottage cheese
b. 1 ounce cheddar cheese
c. 1 ounce roast beef
d. 1 ounce cold cuts

A

c. 1 ounce roast beef

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11
Q

Which of the following should be included in the diet for celiac disease?
I. decrease intake of eggs II. use potato and rice flour III IM vitamin B12 and iron IV. low calorie, high fat, high protein
a. II, III
b. III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, IV

A

a. II, III

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12
Q

Who is most at risk for gestational diabetes?

a. BMI < 30
b. age <25, overweight
c. BMI > 30, history of GDM
d. conception within 10 months of last pregnancy

A

c. BMI > 30, history of GDM

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13
Q

A child is lethargic, irritable with diarrhea. The cause may be:

a. zinc toxicity
b. lead poisoning
c. iron overload
d. vitamin A toxicity

A

b. lead poisoning

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14
Q

How many calories are in 300 ml of a 5% dextrose soultion?

a. 51
b. 60
c. 15
d. 200

A

a. 51

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15
Q

A single 19 year old female is 6 months pregnant. She has not gained any weight and has not seen a physician. Hemoglobin is 9. Hematocrit is 30. What is the most important recommendation for her?

a. see a physcian immediately
b. apply for WIC immediately
c. join a teenage pregnancy support group
d. begin taking iron supplements

A

a. see a physcian immediately

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16
Q

A female, 5’7’’ tall, weighs 115 lbs. Six months agon she weighted 130 lbs. What is her percent of ideal body weight?

a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 81%
d. 87%

A

a. 85%

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17
Q

A vegan is allergic to milk. Which nutrients would you expect might be deficient in her intake?

a. protein, calories
b. vitamin B12, D
c. vitamin C, calcium
d. vitamin A, D

A

b. vitamin B12, D

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18
Q

A patient with Crohns disease needs the followig diet:
I. high fat, high calorie, high protein
II. low fat only with steatorrhea, vitamin C, B12
III. calories according to current BMI, high protein
IV. low calorie, low residue, fat soluble vitamins, B12
a. I
b. II, III
c. III, IV
d. V

A

b. II, III

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19
Q

Which of the following diets is appropriate for reactive hypoglycemia?

a. reduce intake of concentrated carbohydrates, 5-6 small meals
b. increased complex carbohydrate, low fat, high protein
c. decreased complex carbohydrate, low fat
d. high protein, high fat, high carbohydrate

A

a. reduce intake of concentrated carbohydrates, 5-6 small meals

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20
Q

Which patient has marasumus?
Patient A (male)
serum albumin 3.5, transferrin 275, tricepts skinfold 3, MAMC 15
Patient B (female)
serum albumin 2.6, transferrin 125, triceps skinfold 16.8, MAMC 24.1, TLC 1000
Patient C (male)
serum albumin 4.0, transferrin, 450, tricepts skinfold 17, MAMC 28.1, TLC 3500
a. Patient A
b. Patient B
c. Patient C
d. Patient A, B

A

a. Patient A

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21
Q

When assessing nutritional status, which would be the most beneficial?

a. 24 hour recall, history of weight changes
b. medical history, diet order, socioeconomic status
c. clinical observation, weight status, cultural habits
d. diet intake info, clinical data, laboratory data

A

d. diet intake info, clinical data, laboratory data

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22
Q

The first function of the public health nutrtionist is:

a. assess the needs of the community
b. counsel patients with special dietary needs
c. write pamphlets for educational purposes
d. expand the role of Dietitians

A

a. assess the needs of the community

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23
Q

What nutrients most affect the renal solute load?

a. protein and carbohydrates
b. sodium and carbohydrates
c. protein and sodium
d. sodium and fat

A

c. protein and sodium

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24
Q

The elderly need how many ml of water per KG?

a. 35-40
b. 45
c. 25-30
d. 25

A

c. 25-30

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25
Q

According to the Diabetic Exchange Lists, when substituting 2% milf for fat-free milk, you must omit how many fat exchanges?

a. 1/2
b. 1
c. 1- 1/2
d. 2

A

b. 1

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26
Q

If a man normally consuming 2600 calories per day reduces his intake to 1500 calories per day, how much weight will he lose in one week?

a. 0.5 kg
b. 1.0 kg
c. 1.5 kg
d. 2.0 kg

A

b. 1.0 kg

NOTE: it says KG! convert lbs to KG by dividing by 2.2
3500 cal= 1 pound

2600-1500=1,100 cal x 7 days=7,700 cal/3500 cal= 2.2 lbs
2.2/2.2= 1 kg

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27
Q

For which of the following diseases is diet therapy the primary treatment?

a. peptic ulcer
b. diabetes
c. Wilsons disease
d. galactosemia

A

d. galactosemia

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28
Q

Which of the following best reflects protein status?

a. serum albumin
b. serum transferrin
c. retinol-binding protein
d. prealbumin

A

d. prealbumin

serum albumin- 3.5-5.0
hypoalbuminemia associated with edema, surgery. levels above normal likely due to dehydrateion. NOT reflect current protein intake

serum transferrin->= 200 mg/dl
rises with iron deficiency

retinol-binding protein- 3-6 mg/dl
circulateds with prealbumin, shortest 1/2 life (12 hrs). binds and transports retinol

29
Q

Following a Billroth II, steatorrhea often results. What is the likely cause?

a. bacterial overgrowth in the remaining loop
b. lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodental hormone secretion
c. a diet retricting simple carbohydrates
d. rapid absorption of simple carbohydrates

A

b. lack of pancreatic secretion due to less duodental hormone secretion

30
Q

Chemically defined formulas are used for:

a. short bowel syndrome
b. post chemotherapy treatment
c. hypermetabolism
d. galactosemia

A

a. short bowel syndrome

31
Q

A PEG feeding would be useful in a patient with:

a. head or neck cancer who will not be able to eat normally for weeks
b. short bowel syndrome
c. duodenal ulcers
d. pancreatitis

A

a. head or neck cancer who will not be able to eat normally for weeks

32
Q

A patient with hepatitis needs a high protein intake. Besides helping the liver to regerenate, wht other purpose is served?

a. it helps increase iron absorption
b. restores glycogen reserves
c. helps prevent fatty liver
d. help prevent necrosis of the liver

A

c. helps prevent fatty liver

33
Q

The additive influence of foods and constituents which when eaten have a beneficial effect on health refers to:

a. nutraceuticals
b. food synergy
c. positive corollaries
d. medical foods

A

b. food synergy

34
Q

Which set of conditions is most commonly seen in American children?

a. obesity, dental caries, anemia
b. hypertension, dental caries, rickets
c. hyperkinesis, anemia, dental caries
d. diabetes, obesity, anemia

A

a. obesity, dental caries, anemia

35
Q

a 1500 calorie diabetic diet with 45% of the calories from carbohydrate is prescribed. One third of the carbohydrate grams is met with 1/2 cup orange juice, 1 cup milk, and:

a. 1 slice toast
b. 2 slices toast
c. 2 slices toast and 1/2 cup oatmeal
d. 1/2 slice toast

A

b. 2 slices toast

Milk=12 grams (milk)
1/2 cup OJ= 15 grams (fruit)
1 slice toast= 15 grams (starch)
1/2 cup oatmeal= 15 grams (starch)

36
Q

Which of the following is a medium fat protein?

a. peanut butter
b. tuna packed in oil
c. corned beef
d. chicken without skin

A

b. tuna packed in oil

37
Q

Which government agency would you contact regarding food distribution?

a. USDA
b. FDA
c. HHS
d. FTC

A

a. USDA

38
Q

Which has the greatest effect on the renal solute load?

a. potassium
b. sodium
c. glucose
d. protein

A

d. protein

39
Q

Which is not a fiber in the diet?

a. cellulose
b. hemicellulose
c. amylose
d. pectin

A

c. amylose

40
Q

What is the diet for hypertension?

a. low sodium
b. low sodium, high potassium
c. low sodium, high calcium
d. low sodium, high potassium, high calcium

A

a. low sodium

41
Q

The NHANES study looks at which parameters?

a. nutritional
b. nutritional, clincial
c. nutritional, biochemical
d. nutritional, clinical, biochemical

A

d. nutritional, clinical, biochemical

42
Q

What is a major reason for constipation in the elderly?

a. diet low in high residue foods
b. diet high in low residue foods
c. decreased gastric motility
d. lack of physical exercise

A

d. lack of physical exercise

43
Q

The program that provides nutrition education training to teachers and food service personnel is the:

a. TEFAP
b. CACFP
c. EFNEP
d. NETP

A

d. NETP

NETP (nutrition education and training program)
TEFAP (the emergency food assistance program)
CACFP (child and adult care food care program)
EFNEP ( expanded food and nutrition eduation program)

44
Q

A 6’2’’ male, large frame, 230 lbs with type 2 diabetes should:

a. gain 5 lbs to be at desirable body weight
b. lose 20 lbs slowly following balanced diet
c. lost 20 lbs in 4 weeks on a 800 calorie diet
d. lost 10 lbs slowly by following a balaned diet

A

b. lose 20 lbs slowly following balanced diet

45
Q

A patient with chronic pancreatitis should consume oral pancreatic enzymes:

a. with large meals and fatty foods
b. only if steatorrhea increases
c. will all meals and snack
d. only if consuming a high fat, low proteint diet

A

c. will all meals and snack

46
Q

Following a cholecystectomy, bile is produced by the:

a. pancreas
b. liver
c. spleen
d. portal vein

A

b. liver

47
Q

How many calories are in 1.5 liters of a 25% dextrose solution?

a. 850
b. 1275
c. 1000
d. 1500

A

b. 1275

1.5L x 1000= 1500 ml
1500 ml x .25= 375 x 3.4 cal= 1275 calories

48
Q

Research suggests that in order to guard against cancer you should ingest:

a. carotene and vitamin C
b. vitamins C and B12
c. protein and vitamin A
d. vitamins E and K

A

a. carotene and vitamin C

49
Q

Which of the following may be the cause of loose stools in a tube fed patient?
I. feeding was administered at too rapid a rate
II. the osmolality of the feeding was too low
III. patient is constipated
IV. inadequate amount of intestinal surface area
a. I
b. I, II
c. II, III
d. I, IV

A

d. I, IV

50
Q

An elevated T4 indicates:

a. galactosemia
b. hypothyroidsim
c. hyperthyroidism
d. ketonuria

A

c. hyperthyroidism

51
Q

Before discontinuing a parenteral feeding, provide enteral support to prevent:

a. development of a fatty liver
b. ketoacidosis
c. hypoglycemia
d. hepatic encephalopathy

A

c. hypoglycemia

52
Q

An example of a positive nutrition care outcome is:

a. increased intake of foods high in iron and vitamin C
b. increase in the number of participants in a weight management class
c. increase in physician referrals to the outpatient department
d. decrease in the number of complaints regarding low sodium meals

A

a. increased intake of foods high in iron and vitamin C

53
Q

Iron deficiency anemia has the following characteristics:

a. large cells laden with hemoglobin, hypochromic, microcytic
b. small, pale cells, hypochromic, microcytic
c. large cells laden with hemoglobin, macrocytic, megaloblastic
d. small, pale cells, macrocytic megaloblastic

A

b. small, pale cells, hypochromic, microcytic

54
Q

Which hormone moves milk through the mammary ducts?

a. prolactic
b. progesterone
c. estrogen
d. oxytocin

A

d. oxytocin

55
Q

Which anthropometric measurements are useful in assessing adults?

a. triceps skinfold, head circumference, arm muscle circumference
b. head circumference, arm muscle circumference, height, weight
c. serum albumin, triceps skinfold
d. triceps skinfold, arm muscle circumberence, height, weight

A

d. triceps skinfold, arm muscle circumberence, height, weight

56
Q

Which is a measure of somatic protein?

a. serum albumin
b. serum transferrin
c. mid-arm circumference
d. triceps skinfold

A

c. mid-arm circumference

triceps skinfold- measures body fat reserves; measures calorie reserves

57
Q

Muscle mass is determined using the:

a. triceps skinfold and arm circumference
b. skinfold caliper
c. BEE
d. urinary creatinine measurement

A

a. triceps skinfold and arm circumference

58
Q

Gastric irritants include:

a. black pepper, chili powder, caffeine, alcohol, cocoa
b. seeds, nuts, chili powder, black pepper, alcohol
c. caffeine, black pepper, nuts, alcohol
d. orange juice, black pepper, chili powder, alcohol

A

a. black pepper, chili powder, caffeine, alcohol, cocoa

59
Q

Good advice for a patient with a hiatal hernia is to:

a. increase the intake of complex carbs
b. lower the fat content of the diet
c. dont eat before bed
d. avoid coffee

A

c. dont eat before bed

60
Q 
The dumping syndrome:
I. follows a gastrectomy II. is secondary to carbodhydrate overload III. draws fluid into the intestine IV. needs a high carbohydrate diet
a. I, III, IV
b. II, III, IV
c. I
d.  I, II, III
A

d. I, II, III

61
Q

Nutritional therapy for hepatitiis includes:

a. high protein high carb, moderate fat, high calories
b. high protein, low carb, low fat, moderate calories
c. low protein, high carb, low fat, high calories
d. low protein, high carb, low fat, low calories

A

a. high protein high carb, moderate fat, high calories

62
Q

Esophageal varices may be caused by:

a. portal hypotension
b. portal hypertension
c. high fiber diet
d. high fiber, high residue diet

A

b. portal hypertension

63
Q

The diet for hepatic coma is low in protein due to:

a. low ammonia levels
b. high cholesterol levels
c. high ammonia levels
d. high LDL

A

c. high ammonia levels

64
Q

In cystic fibrosis, the most impaired nutrient is:

a. protein
b. disaccharides
c. electrolytes
d. fat

A

d. fat

65
Q

Hormones that control blood pressure and blood components are produced in:

a. heart
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. lungs

A

c. kidneys

66
Q

An acid ash would be created by ingesting:

a. corn, cranberries
b. milk
c. vegetables
d. fruits

A

a.corn, cranberries

67
Q

of nephrosis include:

a. dehydration, hypocholesterolemia
b. albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia
c. edema, hypocholesterolemia
d. hypotension, hyperabluminemia

A

b. albuminuria, hypercholesterolemia

68
Q

The catecholamines released during stress cause:

a. hypertension
b. hyperglycemia
c. diuresis
d. elevated BUN

A

b. hyperglycemia

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