OB/GYN Flashcards

1
Q

Implantation of the fertilized egg occurs day ______ of the pregnancy

A

20-23

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2
Q

_____ MSD should always demonstrate a fetal pole on TV U/S

A

> 16 mm

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3
Q

_____ MSD should always demonstrate a fetal pole with TA U/S

A

> 25 mm

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4
Q

With TV U/S, you should always see a gestational sac at _____ weeks

A

@ 4 weeks

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5
Q

With TV U/S, you should always see a yolk sac at ____ weeks

A

@ 5.5 weeks

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6
Q

With TV U/S, you should always see a heart at ____ weeks

A

@ 6 weeks

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7
Q

With TV US, a yolk sac should always be visualized in any gestational sac greater than _____ mm in size

A

8 mm

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8
Q

Using TA US, a yolk sac should always be identified in any gestational sac greater than ______ MSD

A

20 mm

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9
Q

If fertilization occurs, ______ will stop the regression of corpus luteum cyst so that it can produce progesterone to stimulate the decidual reaction

A

bhCG

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10
Q

The number of yolk sacs can be used to determine the ______ of a multifetal pregnancy

A

Amniocity

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11
Q

Regarding a twin pregnancy, if the zygote occurs BEFORE day 4 of gestation, this will result in ___/___ twins

A

Dichorionic/Diamniotic

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12
Q

If the division of zygote occurs between day 4 & 8 of gestation, this will result in ___/___ twins

A

Monochorionic/Diamniotic

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13
Q

If division of zygote occurs between day 8 & 13 of gestation, this will result in
___/___ twins

A

Monochromic/Monoamniotic

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14
Q

If the division of the zygote is not complete by day 13, this will result in ____ twins

A

Conjoined

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15
Q

Cardiac activity can first be identified in an embryo with a CRL of ____ @ 6 weeks gestation

A

5 mm

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16
Q

A yolk sac greater than _____ usually indicates a blighted ovum or fetal abnormalities of the fetal pole is detected

A

6 mm

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17
Q

______ & ______ produce progesterone

A

Corpus lute all cyst & placenta

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18
Q

The CSP is located ______ to the thalamus lobes

A

Anterior

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19
Q

Where is the 3rd ventricle located?

A

Between the 2 thalamus loves

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20
Q

________ refers to when the yolk sac persists into adulthood as a diverticulum in the ileum portion of bowel

A

Meckel’s Diverticulitis

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21
Q

Oxygenated blood flow path

A
  • umbilical vein
  • left portal vein (ductus venosus)
  • IVC
  • right atrium
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22
Q

The highest concentration of oxygenated blood in the heart is located in the _______

A

Right atrium

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23
Q

The fetal stomach should be routinely visualized by week _____

A

14

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24
Q

Up until 16 weeks, the ______ produce amniotic fluid until the baby takes over

A

Chorion, amnion & placenta

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25
Q

The vessels in the 3 vessels view

A

Pulmonary artery, aorta & SVC

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26
Q

Fetal heart chamber located most anterior

A

Right ventricle

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27
Q

How early can the fetal kidneys be identified?

A

12 weeks

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28
Q

The fetal bladder can be seen as early as ____?

A

10 weeks

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29
Q

Blood entering the fetus in the umbilical vein is divided between _______?

A

Ductus venosus & portal vein

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30
Q

The fetal umbilical arteries branch from the fetal ______

A

Internal iliac arteries

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31
Q

The normal corpus luteum cyst usually seems to regress by _________ & is often resolved by week 16

A

Week 14

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32
Q

_______ stimulates the cervix to produce mucous just prior to ovulation

A

Estrogen

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33
Q

The PROXIMAL femoral epiphyseal on US by week _______

A

35

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34
Q

The DISTAL femoral epiphyseal can be seen on US by week _____

A

33

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35
Q

At 26 weeks, the spinal cord tip can be seen at what level?

A

S1

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36
Q

Late in the 3rd trimester, the spinal cord tip can be seen at what level?

A

L3

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37
Q

The aqueduct of Sylvia’s connects the ?

A

3rd & 4th ventricles

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38
Q

What best describes the Doppler waveforms obtained from uterine artery of a gravid uterus ?

A

Low resistance, average velocity

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39
Q

I’m a normal pregnancy, the placenta should be equal to ?

A

Weeks of gestation + 10mm

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40
Q

Butt down with legs straight in front of abdomen

A

Frank breech

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41
Q

Butt down, legs folded, knees bent, ankles crossed

A

Complete breech

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42
Q

Feet down with baby feet on cervix

A

Footling breech

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43
Q

_____ refers to normal finding of sebum & epithelial cells that cause white free floating within amniotic fluid late in pregnancy

A

Vernix

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44
Q

Blood from the SVC & IVC enters the ?

A

Right atrium

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45
Q

The fetal kidneys begin producing fluid by week 12 & completely take over by week ____

A

16

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46
Q

Uterine wall layer composed of muscle & is involved in delivery

A

Myometrium

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47
Q

UT & CX displaced to the left

A

Levoposition

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48
Q

Cx is ML while uterine body is flexed to the left

A

Levoflexion

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49
Q

UT & CX displaced to the right

A

Dextroposition

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50
Q

CX is ML while uterine body is flexed to the right

A

Dextroflexion

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51
Q

AKA intramural part of Fallopian tube

MOST DANGEROUS SPOT FOR ECTOPIC!!!!

A

Interstitial

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52
Q

Widest & longest portion of tube.

Egg fertilization normally occurs

here. Most ectopics occurs here

A

Ampulla

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53
Q

Part of tube that contains fimbria

Trumpet shaped end opens up into pelvic peritoneal cavity

A

Infundibulum

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54
Q

Portion of the peritoneum connecting anterior ovary to posterior broad ligament

A

Broad ligament

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55
Q

Fibromuscular bands extending from interns to labia majora and helps maintain normal uterine position

A

Cardinal ligament

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56
Q

Free margin of broad ligament where Fallopian tubes travel

A

Mesosalpinx

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57
Q

Muscles of the greater pelvis

A
  • rectus abdominus
  • transverse abdominus
  • psoas major
  • iliopsoas
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58
Q

______ is responsible for stimulating contraction of Fallopian tubes to propel egg toward uterine cavity

A

Estrogen

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59
Q

The suspensory ligament & broad ligament are composed of _____

A

Peritoneum

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60
Q

The ovary is normally found in the fossa of _____

A

Waldeyer

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61
Q

________ can sometimes be mistaken for the ovaries

A

Normal piriformis & iliopsoas muscles

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62
Q

If fertilization does not occur after ovulation, the corpus luteum becomes ?

A

Corpus albicans

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63
Q

Which hormone causes the endometrium to thicken during the proliferative phase?

A

Estrogen

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64
Q

______ produce progesterone & bhCG in early pregnancy. These cells develop into chorionic villi of placenta

A

Trophoblastic cells

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65
Q

Rigid structure that firmly holds the uterus in position in the pelvic cavity

A

Broad ligament

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66
Q

A surge of _____ causes ovulation

A

Luteinizing hormone

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67
Q

_______ of the brain produce hormones that influence the ovaries

A

Pituitary gland & hypothalamus

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68
Q

Oral contraceptives suppress the production of _______ to prevent follicular maturation

A

FSH

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69
Q

Doppler waveforms from a normal ovary

A

Low resistance, low velocity

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70
Q

Which pelvis muscles form the lateral pelvic walls

A

Obturator internus

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71
Q

Average size of a nulliparous uterus

A

8 x 5 x 3 cm

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72
Q

Normal ovary measurement

A

3 x 2 x 1 cm with a volume of 6-13 cc

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73
Q

? Refers to a woman who has had 5 or more infants who achieved 24 weeks or more

A

Grand multiparity

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74
Q

Woman who are grand multiparity have an increased risk for ?

A
  • placenta previa or accreta
  • hemorrhage
  • uterine rupture
  • dysfunctional labor
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75
Q

______ muscles form the pelvis floor

A

Levator ani & coccygeus

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76
Q

Greater pelvis is AKA

A

False pelvis

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77
Q

Flat muscle extending laterally on both sides of vaginal cuff

A

Levator ani

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78
Q

Non-dominant follicles do no usually exceed ?

A

11 mm

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79
Q

Gonadatropin Releasing Hormone (GRH) is produced by the ?

A

Hypothalamus

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80
Q

A dominant follicle will usually reach a diameter of ______ just prior to ovulation

A

2.5 cm

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81
Q

? stimulates the endometrial proliferation in the secretory phase, after ovulation occurs.

A

Progesterone

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82
Q

Most commonly a unilateral finding of a hypoechoic mass in a postmenopausal woman.

It is benign & produces estrogen

A

Granulosa cell tumor

AKA theca cell tumor

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83
Q

Most common type of Müllerian duct anomaly

A

Separate uterus

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84
Q

U/S findings associated with ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

A
  • ascites
  • pleural effusion
  • bilateral ovarian enlargement (>5 cm)
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85
Q

Adhesions of the endometrial lining due to uterine trauma

A

Asherman syndrome

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86
Q

Commons symptoms associated with Asherman Syndrome

A
  • amenorrhea
  • hypomenorrhea
  • recurrent miscarriage
  • infertility
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87
Q

Rupture of a ________ can lead to bleeding from the uterine arteries that can be life threatening to the patient

A

Interstitial ectopic

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88
Q

another term used to describe the dermoid plug

A

Rokitansky nodule

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89
Q

Rokitansky nodule is often seen with what type of pelvic mass ?

A

Cystic teratoma

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90
Q

When the cephalon part of the neural tube fails to close, ___ occurs

A

Anencephaly

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91
Q

When the distal end of the neural tube fails to close, _____ occurs

A

Spina bifida

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92
Q

A blighted ovum is diagnosed when a mean GSD greater than ___ without a fetal pole is seen on TA & TV

  • an enlarged yolk sac is commonly present
A

TV- 16 mm

TA- 25 mm

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93
Q

Pseudomyoxoma peritonei is a complication of which type of tumor?

A

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

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94
Q

Normal endometrial thickness in the secretory phase

A

9-18 mm

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95
Q

An ectopic pregnancy will almost always been on the ?

A

Same side as the corpus luteum

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96
Q

Benign unillcular cysts usually do no exceed _____

A

5 cm

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97
Q

An embryo is most sensitive to teratogenic effects when ?

A

Between 3 & 8 weeks gestation

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98
Q

Absence of menarchy after age 15

A

Primary amenorrhea

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99
Q

_______ often forms due to mets, most commit from GI tract primary

A

Krukenberg tumor

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100
Q

Dot-dash pattern refers to sonographic appearance of ?

A

Dermoid mesh

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101
Q

Premenopausal woman are more susceptible to ?

A

Mucinous cystadenoma

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102
Q

Postmenopausal women are susceptible to ?

A

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

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103
Q

_____ refers to air in the circulatory system of the fetal abdomen that occurs with fetal demise

A

Robert’s sign

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104
Q

Most common cause for postmenopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial atrophy

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105
Q

Most common NTD’s

A

Anencephaly & spina bifida

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106
Q

Most common GYN cancer

A

Endometrial carcinoma

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107
Q

Benign ovarian neoplasms that secrete estrogen

A

Thecomas & granulosa cell tumors

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108
Q

Most commonly occurring germ cell tumor of ovary

A

Benign cystic teratoma

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109
Q

Most common cause of pelvic congestion

A

Incompetent left ovarian vein

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110
Q

Bleeding more than 1 week, cramping, PROM, & cervical shortening are consistent with ?

A

Inevitable AB

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111
Q

Most common adnexal mass

A

Ovarian cyst

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112
Q

Metritis is often associated with ?

A

Leukocytosis

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113
Q

Flow in normal ovaries with a corpus luteum cyst will be low resistance with a RI value between ?

A

0.4 - 0.6

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114
Q

Most common in premenopausal females

A
  • cystic teratoma
  • serous cystadenoma
  • mucinous cystadenoma
  • sertili-leyding cell tumor
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115
Q

Most common in postmenopausal women

A
  • granulosa cell tumor
    (theca-lutein cell tumor)
  • thecoma
  • fibroma
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116
Q

Cystic mass between the wall of the abdomen and the anterior wall of the bladder is called _____

A

Urachal cyst

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117
Q

Anasarca is commonly seen with ?

A

Fetal hydrops

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118
Q

Which trisomies exhibit the defects associated with Pentalogy of Cantrell ?

A

13 & 18

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119
Q

When evaluating a fetus with IUGR, the umbilical artery will demonstrate which type of flow pattern ?

A

Minimal to absent diastolic flow

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120
Q

Defects caused by neuralation during fetal development include ?

A
  • spina bifida
  • anencephaly
  • encephaloceles
  • myelomeningoceles
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121
Q

Most common fetal intracardiac mass seen

appears as an echogenic mass

A

Rhabdomyoma

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122
Q

Maternal abnormality that can be caused by a large fibroid uterus

A

Hydronephrosis

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123
Q

What is present is the heart & stomach are seen on the same transverse view ?

A

A diaphragmatic hernia

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124
Q

_____ is an austosomal recessive disorder that is most common in Amish communities

  • mesomelia
  • short ribs
  • narrow thorax
  • polydactyl
  • ASD
A

Ellis van Crevald syndrome

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125
Q

A normal cerebellum vermis can be seen with ?

* not DWM

A

Megacisterna magna

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126
Q

Most common cause of hydrocephalus

A

Aqueductal stenosis

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127
Q

____ are facial anomalies caused by low fluid

A

Potter facies

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128
Q

Most severe form of TTTS

A

Acardia

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129
Q

AKA Edwards syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

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130
Q

Increase in peak systolic velocity of the middle cerebral artery of a fetal on serial exams often indicates ______

A

Fetal anemia

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131
Q

Most common characteristic of cleindocranial dysplasia is ?

A

Clavicular aplasia & hypoplasia

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132
Q

In patients with agenesis of the corpus callosum, the lateral central horns are displaced ______ & have a _______ appearance

A

Displaced laterally with a teardrop appearance

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133
Q

AKA Patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

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134
Q

Trisomy 13 is associated with ?

A
  • IUGR
  • holoprosencephaly
  • microcephaly
  • ml facial clefting
  • ocular abnormalities
  • polydactyl
  • echogenic kidneys
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135
Q

Absence of nasal bone & a shortened ML pharynx of 5th digit are characteristics of ?

A

Trisomy 21

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136
Q

Increased resistance & decreased diastolic flow is indicative of a fetus with ?

A

IUGR

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137
Q

Shortening of most distal portion (hand,foot) of an extremity

A

Acromelia

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138
Q

Refers to smooth brain tissue with absence of sulcri & gyri indentations

  • best evaluated with MRI
A

Lissencephaly

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139
Q

______ causes a low platelet count & increased LFT’s

A

Preeclampsia

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140
Q

_____ is commonly associated with DORV

A

Hypoplastic left heart

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141
Q

_______ are related to single or multiple calcifications in the fetal liver

  • if these are ruled out then the prognosis is good
A
  • intrauterine infection
  • meconium peritonitis
  • chromosomal abnormalities
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142
Q

___________ leads to an AV malformation in the brain. This causes an increased amount of flow within the venous system causing fluid accumulation, CHF, & hydrops.

A

Vein of Galen aneurysm

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143
Q

Skin webbing between fingers

A

Syndactyly

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144
Q

Arching of the 4th & 5th digits toward thumb

A

Clinidactyly

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145
Q

Most common causes of CSF production obstruction & ventriculomegaly

A

Aqueductal stenosis

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146
Q

Combination of ostium primum ASD & inlet VSD

A

AV canal defect

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147
Q

_________ is more accurate than the lemon sign in predicting spina bifida

A

Banana sign

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148
Q

The banana sign is seen with ____% of patients with spina bifida

A

99%

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149
Q

Findings of echogenic bowel, meconium peritonitis, meconium ileus, & absent gallbladder indicate the fetus most likely has ______

A

Cystic fibrosis

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150
Q

Blood within Fallopian tube

A

Hematosalpinx

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151
Q

Cyst that contains blood

A

Hemorrhagic cyst

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152
Q

Hormone produced by trophoblastic cells; may be used as a tumor marker in nongravid patients & males

A

hCG

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153
Q

Fluid in Fallopian tube

A

Hydrosalpinx

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154
Q

Excessive vomiting

A

Hyperemesis

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155
Q

Radiographic procedure that uses dye instilled into endometrial cavity & Fallopian tubes to check for abnormalities

A

Hysterosalpingography

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156
Q

Distal segment of tube

A

Infundibulum

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157
Q

Segment of tube that lies within uterine horn (curnu)

A

Interstitial

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158
Q

Segment of tube located between interstitial & ampulla

A

Isthmus

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159
Q

Malignant tumor that metastasizes. Most likely from GI tract

A

Krukenberg tumor

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160
Q

Destruction or breaking down

A

-lysis

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161
Q

Developing into cancer

A

Malignant degeneration

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162
Q

Ascites & pleural effusion in lresence of benign ovarian tumor

A

Meigs syndrome

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163
Q

Abnormally heavy & prolonged period

A

Menorrhagia

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164
Q

Germ cell layer of embryo that develops into circulatory system, muscles, reproductive system & other structures

A

Mesoderm

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165
Q

Pelvic pain at time of ovulation

A

Mittleschmerz

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166
Q

Creation of ovum

A

Oogenesis

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167
Q

Release of a mature egg from ovary

A

Ovulation

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168
Q

Small protrusion of tissue

A

Papillary projection

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169
Q

Contraction that moves in a wave-like pattern to propel a substance

A

Peristalsis

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170
Q

Intraperitoneal extension of mucin-secreting cells that result from the rupture it a malignant mucinous ovarian tumor or possibly a malignant tumor of appendix

A

Pseudomyoxoma peritonei

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171
Q

Pus within the Fallopian tube

A

Pyosalpinx

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172
Q

Oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands

A

Sebum

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173
Q

Malignant sex cord strongly ovarian neoplasm associated with virilization

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

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174
Q

Tumor marker elevated in presence of an ovarian dysgerminoma & other abdominal abnormalities

A

Serum lactate dehydrogenase

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175
Q

Ovarian tumors that arise from gonadal ridges

A

Sex cord stromal tumors

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176
Q

Ovarian cyst found with presence of elevated levels of hCG

A

Theca lutein cyst

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177
Q

Benign ovarian sex cord stromal tumor that produces estrogen in older woman

A

Thecoma

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178
Q

Indicator of torsed ovarian pedicle adjacent to ovary, appear as round mass with concentric hypoechoic & hyperechoic rings that demonstrate swirling color Doppler

A

“Whirlpool” sign

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179
Q

Malignant germ cell tumor of ovary

A

Yolk sac tumor

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180
Q

After the Graafian follicle has ruptured, its structure is converted into the _____

A

Corpus luteum

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181
Q

Finger-like extensions of tube

A

Fimbria

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182
Q

Hair-like projections within the tube

A

Cilia

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183
Q

Inner layer of the wall of the Fallopian tube

A

Mucosal layer

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184
Q

_______ if associated with the “whirlpool” sign

A

Ovarian torsion

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185
Q

Stage at which conceptus implants within the decidualized endometrium

A

Blastocyst

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186
Q

Ovarian mass associated with molar pregnancy & elevated hCG

A

Theca lutein cyst

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187
Q

Is a dysgerminoma benign or malignant?

A

Malignant

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188
Q
  • usual adnexal location
  • asymptomatic
  • AKA chocolate cyst
A

Endometrioma

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189
Q

Adnexal pathology associated with Meigs syndrome, ascites, & hydrothorax is in conjunction with _________

A

Ovarian fibroma

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190
Q

Remaining structure of corpus luteum after its deterioration

A

Corpus albicans

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191
Q

Lack of muscle in the dome of diaphragm

A

Eventration of diaphragm

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192
Q

US findings associated with _________

  • indistinct endomyometrial interface
  • focal & diffuse bulkiness of posterior
    uterine wall
  • focal cystic areas within myometrium
  • hetero uterine texture
A

Adenomyosis

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193
Q

Ovarian tumor accompanied with pelvic ascites usually suggests malignancy. An exception to this rule would be _____ ?

A

Ovarian fibroma

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194
Q

Which hormone maintains thickness of endometrium after ovulation?

A

Progesterone

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195
Q

Least severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

Lobar holoprosencephaly

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196
Q

“Smooth brain”

Condition with little to no gyri or sulci within cerebral cortex

A

Lissencephaly

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197
Q

Hemorrhage located within ventricles of the brain

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage

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198
Q

Hemorrhage within cranium

A

Intracranial hemorrhage

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199
Q

Mass of tissues located within 3rd ventricle within the ML of brain
- connects 2 loves of thalamus
(massa intermedia)

A

Interthalmic adhesion

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200
Q

Groove within the ML of brain that divides the 2 cerebral hemispheres

A

Interhemispheric fissure

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201
Q

Shortage or decreased oxygen in blood

A

Hypoxia

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202
Q

Things associated with nonimmune hydrops

A
  • anasarca
  • ascites
  • polyhydramnios
  • pleural effusion
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203
Q

Reduced distance between orbits

A

Hypotelorism

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204
Q

Incomplete growth of a structure or organ

A

Hypoplasia

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205
Q

Abnormal accumulation of fluid in atleast 2 cavities

A

Hydrops

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206
Q

Dilation of ventricular system caused by increased volume of CSF, resulting in increased intraventricular pressure

A

Hydrocephalus

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207
Q

Fatal condition in which the entire cerebrum is replaced by a large sac containing CSF

A

Hydranencephaly

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208
Q

Group of brain abnormalities consisting of various degrees of fusion of lateral ventricles & associated fetal anomalies

A

Holoprosencephaly

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209
Q

Folds in cerebral cortex

A

Gyri

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210
Q

Largest part of choroid

A

Glomus

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211
Q

Classic clinical triad of an EUP

A
  • pain
  • vaginal bleeding
  • palpable adnexal mass
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212
Q

Most common location for an EUP

A

Ampulla portion of tube

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213
Q

Compression maneuver is used to ?

A
  • compress fat
  • determine tissue response
  • elicit tissue response
  • displace bowel
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214
Q

Are cystadenoma painless?

A

Yes

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215
Q

In Sag on TV, the bladder will fill which corner?

A

Left upper

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216
Q

_________ is associated with…..

  • chorioadenoma destruens
  • molar pregnancy
  • multiple gestational
  • fertility assistance
A

Hypermemesis gravidarium

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217
Q

Body position for a TV exam

Child birth position

A

Lithotomy

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218
Q

Best way to relieve supine hypotension syndrome

A

Rolling only left side

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219
Q

If you should suspect pelvic ascites, you should also check _____ ?

A

Morrison’s pouch

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220
Q

A patient taking birth control pills greater than 5 years is at an increased risk for developing ____ ?

A

Hepatic adenoma

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221
Q

Androblastomas (ex: sertoli-leydig) cause _____ ?

A

Hirsutism

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222
Q

Androgenic tumors are AKA

A

Androblastomas

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223
Q

Amdrogenic tumors do what ?

A
  • secrete testosterone

- cause masculinization

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224
Q

Dr’s office based exam to see direct visualization of cx

A

Colposcopy

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225
Q

Most common site for extrauterine adnexal mass

A

Ovary

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226
Q

A teratoma contains fissures from _____

A
  • ectoderm
  • endoderm
  • mesoderm
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227
Q

A benign & estrogenic tumor describes ?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

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228
Q

Stein-leventhal syndrome is characterized by _____

A
  • obesity
  • hirsutism
  • infertility
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229
Q

If a suspicious adnexal mass is seen, you would scan _____

A

Lymph nodes

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230
Q

DES was prescribed to women from 1940’s to 1060’s to ______

Later banned in 1971

A

Inhibit spontaneous AB

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231
Q

What is a krukenberg tumor?

Aka Carcinoma muccocellulare

A

Mets tumor from GI tract

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232
Q

_______ is true for diagnosis of club foot

A

Metatarsals & toes like in the same plane as tibia & fibula

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233
Q

Condition associated with bilateral agenesis oligohydramnios & fusion of lower extremities

A

Sirenomelia

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234
Q

Fusion of digits

A

Syndactyly

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235
Q

Clover leaf skull & hydrocephalus is seen with ______ ?

A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

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236
Q

On US, if you see a mass extending from the distal spine, this could possibly be _____ ?

A
  • sacrococcygeal teratoma
  • teratoma
  • myelomeningocele
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237
Q

Absence of radius

A

Radial day defect

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238
Q

Sirenomelia is commonly called _____?

A

Mermaid syndrome

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239
Q

Associated with amniotic band syndrome

A
  • amputation
  • anencephaly
  • facial clefting
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240
Q

Signs of Arnold Chiara II malformation

A
  • banana & lemon sign

- colpocephaly

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241
Q

Bell shaped chest & multiple fetal fractures are indicative of ______

A

Osteogenesis imperfect

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242
Q

If you not when pressure is applied to skull that it can be easily be distorted, this is evidence of ______

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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243
Q

Characteristic US findings of achrondrogensis

A
  • Micromelia
  • absent mineralization of pelvis
  • polyhydramnios
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244
Q

Absent long bones, with hands & feet arising from shoulders & hips

A

Phocomelia

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245
Q

Absent sacrum & coccyx

A

Caudal regression syndrome

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246
Q

Rhizomelia denotes ?

A

Shortening of PROXIMAL segment of limb

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247
Q

Thalamus tissue located within the 3rd ventricle of brain that can become enlarged with Chiari II

A

Massa intermedia

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248
Q

Limitation of limbs as a result is joint contractures

A

Arythrogryposis

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249
Q

Achondroplasia is associated with ?

A
  • frontal bossing
  • flattened nasal bone
  • trident hand
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250
Q

Most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia

A

Achondroplasia

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251
Q

In VACTERL, “L” stands for ?

A

Limb

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252
Q

Group of fetal head & brain abnormalities that often coexist with spina bifida

A

Arnold Chiari II malformation

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253
Q

______ could increase the likelihood of fetus developing sirenomelia & caudal regression syndrome

A

Pre-existing maternal diabetes

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254
Q

Disorder resulting in abnormal bone growth & dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

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255
Q

Clinical or US findings associated with LBWC

A
  • ventral walll defect
  • marked scoliosis
  • shortened umbilical cord
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256
Q

Group of nuclei within brain that function in several ways, including information processing & emotional response

A

Basal ganglia

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257
Q

Most common benign tumor of uterus

A

Leiomyoma

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258
Q

Bicornuate uterus is a congenital malformation resulting from incomplete fusion of ______

A

Müllerian ducts

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259
Q

Typical ovarian flow is said to be high resistance during which phases?

A
  • early follicular

- late luteal

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260
Q

Ovarian flow is said to be low resistance during which phases?

A
  • late follicular

- early luteal

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261
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Ovarian cystic teratoma

Dermoid cyst

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262
Q

AKA trisomy 13

A

Patau syndrome

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263
Q

Most accurate method to determine gestational age

A

CRL

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264
Q

Trophoblasts of blastocysts become ?

A

Chorion

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265
Q

______ can be associated with low hCG levels

A
  • wrong dates
  • embryonic demise
  • missed AB
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266
Q

Foramen ovale permits blood to pass from the ______ to the ______

A

From right atrium to left atrium

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267
Q

Where is the yolk sac located?

A

Between the amnion & chorion

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268
Q

Dominant hormone in the luteal phase

A

Progesterone

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269
Q

The Michael fold shouldn’t exceed _____ in a normal pregnancy prior to 21 weeks

A

6 mm

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270
Q

Least accurate measurement for determining gestation age

A

AC

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271
Q

Ratio of BPD to OFD determines ?

A

Cephalic Index

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272
Q

Days 6-13 are in which ovarian phase ?

A

Follicular

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273
Q

Lateral ventricle atrial width is abnormal if it measures greater than ____

A

10 mm

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274
Q

Cisterna magna shouldn’t measure greater than ___

A

1 cm

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275
Q

Hormone primarily responsible for ovulation

A

LH

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276
Q

Inner cell mass of blastocyst develops into ?

A
  • embryonic disc
  • amnion
  • yolk sac
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277
Q

Yolk sac actually seen with US

A

Secondary yolk sac

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278
Q

Embryo seen without FHT

A

Missed AB

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279
Q

A fetus coexisting with a hydatiform mole

A

Partial mole

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280
Q

AKA hypogastric artery

A

Internal iliac artery

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281
Q

Optimal period to see fetal heart

A

18-24 weeks

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282
Q

Chorioamniotic separation is normal until _____

A

16 weeks

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283
Q

A pt who has never had a period

A

Primary amenorrhea

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284
Q

If a mucinous ovarian malignancy ruptures, it could lead to ____

A

Pseudomyoxoma peritonei

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285
Q

Cystic mass between fetal anterior abdominal wall & bladder most likely represents

A

Urachal cyst

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286
Q

When is BPD most accurate?

A

12-33 weeks

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287
Q

US findings with esophageal atresia

A
  • absent stomach
  • polyhydramnios
  • IUGR
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288
Q

Ovarian cyst that forms as a result of failure of Graafian follicle to ovulate

A

Follicular cyst

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289
Q

Disease associated with abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic cells during pregnancy

  • molar pregnancy
A

Gestational trophoblastic disease

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290
Q

Dominant follicle prior to ovulation

A

Graafian follicle

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291
Q

With low AFP, you should check for _____

A

Trisomy 21

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292
Q

After delivery

A

Puerperium

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293
Q

Hypotelorism & nose with a single nostril

A

Cebocephaly

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294
Q

Round skull shape

A

Brachycephaly

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295
Q

Growth disorder syndrome associated with enlargement of several organs including the skull, tongue & liver

A

Beck with-wiedemann syndrome

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296
Q

Fetal weight greater than 90th percentile it 4500 g

A

Macrosomnia

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297
Q

How often does anencephaly occur ?

A

Approximately 1 in 1000 live births

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298
Q

Twin Reversed Arterial Perfusion results in ?

A

Acardiac twin

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299
Q

How often does acardiac twins occur ?

A

1 in 30,000

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300
Q

Fetal blood transfusion is rarely successful before _____

A

18 weeks

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301
Q

_____ is packed into the umbilical vein during intrauterine blood transfusion

A

Red blood cells

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302
Q

Twins conjoined at anterior abdominal wall

A

Omphalopagus

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303
Q

Approximately 20% of fetuses with trisomy 21 are found in women whose _____ level is low ?

A

MSAFP

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304
Q

Symmetric IUGR May be associated with what Doppler finding ?

A

Low resistance middle cerebral artery

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305
Q

Most complications with twins relate to ?

A

Chorionicity

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306
Q

Amniocity refers to ?

A

of amniotic sacs

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307
Q

Chorionicity refers to ?

A

of placentas

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308
Q

_____ is a complication that can occur when 1 twin dies in utero & shares a placenta with surviving twin

A

Twin Embolization Syndrome (TES)

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309
Q

How often does TTTS occur in monochorionic twins?

A

15-30%

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310
Q

During pregnancy, tenderness over kidneys could suggest ____

A

Pyelonephritis

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311
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is known to increase a patients risk for ?

A
  • preterm labor
  • ectopics
  • uterus malformations
  • cervical cancer
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312
Q

Dermoid cysts contain tissue originating from ?

A
  • endoderm
  • ectoderm
  • mesoderm
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313
Q

In origin, most adnexal masses are ?

A

Cystic & ovarian

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314
Q

Characteristics of spina bifida

A
  • banana/lemon sign
  • enlarged massa intermedia
  • closed defect
  • sacral dimple
  • hemangioma
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315
Q

Ovarian cancer can cause ______ which is thickening on anterior abdomen wall with ascites

A

“Omental cake”

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316
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome consists of _______

A

RUQ pain & PID

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317
Q

Cells that produce hCG

A

Trophoblastic cells

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318
Q

Form of acrania in which entire cerebrum is located outside of skull

A

Exencephaly

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319
Q

Lining of ventricles within brain

A

Ependyma

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320
Q

Elongated, barrow head shape

AKA scaphocephaly

A

Dolicocephaly

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321
Q

Spectrum of posterior fossa abnormalities that involve cystic dilation of cisterna magna & 4th ventricle

A

Dandy-walker complex

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322
Q

Fusion of orbits

A

Cyclopia

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323
Q

Premature closure of cranial sutures with subsequent fusion of cranial bones

A

Craniosynostosis

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324
Q

Thick white band of white matter that provides communication between right & left halves of brain

A

Corpus callosum

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325
Q

Abnormal lateral ventricle shape where there is a small frontal horn & enlarged occipital horn

A

Colpocephaly

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326
Q

Paired structures located anterior to cerebral aqueduct

A

Cerebral peduncles

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327
Q

Duct that connects 3rd & 4th ventricle

AKA aqueduct of Sylvius

A

Cerebral aqueduct

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328
Q

Estrogen producing ovarian tumor

A

Thecoma

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329
Q

If a it presents with elevated serum AFP, what is likely?

A

Yolk sac tumor

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330
Q

Ovarian cyst that appears with gestational trophoblastic disease

A

Theca lutein cyst

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331
Q

Most common malignancy of ovary

A

Serous cystadenocarcinoma

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332
Q

Short & narrow segment of tube, distal to interstitial segment

A

Isthmus

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333
Q

Modular structure located along the falx cerebri that reabsorb CSF into the venous system

A

Arachnoid granulations

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334
Q

Abnormal lateral curvature of spine

A

Scoliosis

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335
Q

Benign cysts within brain that don’t communicate with ventricular system

A

Arachnoid cyst

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336
Q

Abnormal narrowing of cerebral aqueduct

A

Aqueductal stenosis

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337
Q

Cerebral aqueduct is AKA

A

Aqueduct of Sylvius

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338
Q

Opening in a structure

A

Aperture

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339
Q

Genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, ML facial hypoplasia, & cerebral hemispheres

A

Alert syndrome

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340
Q

Absence of eyes

A

Anophthalmia

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341
Q

Most severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

Alobar

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342
Q

Coverings of brain & spinal cord

A

Meninges

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343
Q

In VACTERL, “C” stands for ?

A

Cardiac

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344
Q

Enlarged cisterna magna, measuring greater than 10 mm

A

Mega cisterna magna

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345
Q

Subdivision within middle of lip

A

Median cleft lip

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346
Q

Fetal syndrome associated with

  • microcephaly
  • occipital encephalocele
  • polydactyl
  • PCKD
A

Meckel-Gruber syndrome

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347
Q

Enlarged HC

A

Microcephaly

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348
Q

Doppler waveforms in a 2nd trimester from artery supplying trophoblastic tissue will demonstrate _____

A

High amplitude, low resistance

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349
Q

If a pelvic mass during pregnancy requires surgery, the best time would be _____

A

16-20 weeks

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350
Q

Dilation of bladder & posterior urethra

A

“Keyhole” sign

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351
Q

Tumor ectopic endometrial tissue

A

Endomatrioma

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352
Q

Ovarian mass associated with virilization

A

Sertoli-leydig cell tumor

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353
Q

With ________ ovarian tumor is Meigs syndrome most likely associated with

A

Fibroma

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354
Q

Which could most likely be confused with a pedunculated fibroid tumor because of its solid appearing structure

A

Fibroma

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355
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumor

A

Cystic teratoma

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356
Q

Ovarian cysts most often bilateral, associated with markedly elevated levels of hCG

A

Theca lutein cysts

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357
Q

Cystic mass commonly noted with pregnancy

A

Corpus luteum

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358
Q

US appearance of an ovarian dermoid tumor in which only the anterior element of mass can be seen ?

A

Tip of iceberg sign

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359
Q

Dominant ovarian follicle prior to ovulation

A

Graafian follicle

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360
Q

Correct formula for calculating ovarian volume

A

L x W x H x 0.5233

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361
Q

Normal ovarian flow is said to be ?

A

High resistance during cycle

Low resistance @ time of ovulation

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362
Q

What predisposed condition could increase the risk for suffering from ovarian torsion ?

A

Ovarian mass

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363
Q

Malignant ovarian tumor with a GI origin

A

Krukenberg tumor

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364
Q

Malignant ovarian mass associated with pseudomyoxoma peritonei is _______

A

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

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365
Q

All of these adnexal masses may appear on US similar to a uterine leiomyoma

A
  • thecoma
  • fibroma
  • granulosa cell tumor
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366
Q

Ovarian tumor associated with serum lactate dehydrogenase

A

Dysgerminoma

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367
Q

Protein produced by developing placenta

A
  • hCG
  • estriol
  • PAPP-A
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368
Q

Fusion of thalami & monoventricle are consistent with _____

A

Trisomy 13

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369
Q

Widened pelvic angles & duodenal atresia are most consistent with US markets for ?

A

Down syndrome

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370
Q

Another name for most common chromosomal abnormality

A

Triploidy

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371
Q

Macroglossia is often associated with ?

A

Trisomy 21

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372
Q

Nonimmune hydrops & ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by ?

A

Turner syndrome

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373
Q

Bilateral choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, & rocket hottim feet are US findings of a 27 weekend with omphalocele.
This is most consistent with ?

A

Trisomy 18

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374
Q

Absent nasal bones & increased nuchal fold are consistent with ?

A

Trisomy 21

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375
Q

Structural abnormality that results from abnormal development

A

Malformation

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376
Q

Condition in which the heart is located partially or completely outside chest

A

Ectopic cordis

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377
Q

Malformation it malpositioning of tricuspid valve that causes multiple heart defects

A

Ebstein anomaly

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378
Q

Fetal shunt that connects the umbilical vein to IVC

A

Ductus venosus

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379
Q

Fetal shunt that connects pulmonary artery to aortic arch

A

Ductus arteriosus

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380
Q

Genetic disorder characterized by absent or hypoplastic thymus, which ultimately leads to impairment of immune system & succeptibility to infection, as well as cognitive disorders, congenital heart defects, palate defects, & hormonal abnormalities

A

Digeorge syndrome

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381
Q

Normal HR @ 6 weeks

A

100-110 bpm

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382
Q

_______ are stimulated by estrogen & can experience rapid growth during pregnancy

A

Fibroids

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383
Q

Most common fetal presentation

A

Cephalic

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384
Q

Fetal presentation when babies butt is closest to cx

A

Frank Breech

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385
Q

Dilation of renal collecting system secondary to obstruction of normal urine flow

A

Hydronephrosis

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386
Q

Ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation

A

Corpus luteum cyst

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387
Q

Narrowing of aortic arch

A

Coarction of aorta

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388
Q

Tendons within the heart that attach to the tricuspid valve in right ventricle & mitral valve in left ventricle to their respective papillary muscle

A

Chordae tendinae

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389
Q

Herbiation of abdomen contents into chest cavity because of an opening in left posterilateral portion of diaphragm

A

Bochladek hernia

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390
Q

US appearance of fetal unilateral pleural effusion

A

Bat wing sign

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391
Q

Artifact produced when beam of barely attenuated thru fluid containing structure

A

Posterior shadowing

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392
Q

Endometriomas are AKA

A

Chocolate cyst

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393
Q

Krukenberg Timor’s tend to have a _______ appearance

A

Moth- eaten

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394
Q

_______ is the most common malignant tumor germ cell tumor of ovarynnovarian equivalent to testicular seminoma

A

Dysgerminoma

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395
Q

Tumor marker for yolk sac tumor

A

AFP

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396
Q

Ovarian torsion typically occurs on which side ?

A

Right

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397
Q

Longest, most torturous segment of tube. Significant part of tube because of its location of fertilization & area where ectopic pregnancies often embed

A

Ampulla

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398
Q

Abnormal development of central portion of heart

AKA endocardium cushion defect

A

Atrioventricular defect

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399
Q

Most common fetal anomaly detected by US

A

Hydronephrosis

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400
Q

Splaying if laminae would show ____

A

V- shaped spine

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401
Q

Abnormal heart shift, NTDs, compression of lungs, failure of diaphragm to form properly, pulmonary hypoplasia, would all suggest ?

A

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

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402
Q

Caudal regression syndrome is associated with ?

A
  • sirenomelia
  • diabetes
  • lumbosacral dysplasia
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403
Q

You can best distinguish between omphalocele & gastroschidis by seeing _____

A

Cord insert

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404
Q

What would cause dangling choroid sign?

A

Hydrocephalus

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405
Q

Clinidactyly refers to ?

A

Permanent curvature of a digit

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406
Q

Thickened nuchal fold would suggest ?

A

Trisomy 21

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407
Q

Double outlet right ventricle is almost always associated with ?

A

VSD

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408
Q

Syndrome associated with an entire extra set of chromosomes

A

Triploidy

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409
Q
  • moderate posterior position of frontal bone

- abnormal shaped mandible

A

Micrognathia

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410
Q

Strawberry head shape is associated with ?

A

Trisomy 18

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411
Q

Head shape associated with thanatophoric dysplasia

A

Cloverleaf

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412
Q

Flat nose profile, duodenal atresia, mild ventriculomegaly, & echogenic bowel would all suggest ?

A

Trisomy 21

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413
Q

Holoprosencephaly is often associated with ?

A

Trisomy 13

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414
Q

Appearance of a femur fracture can be a result of ?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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415
Q

Talipes is AKA

A

Clubfoot

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416
Q

Double bubble sign refers to ?

A

Dilated duodenum next to the stomach

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417
Q

Where do ‘VACTERL’ problems arise from ?

A

Embryonic mesoderm

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418
Q

What does VACTERL stand for ?

A
Vertebral defects
Anal atresia
Cardiac defects
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Renal abnormalities 
Limb abnormalities
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419
Q

Most common NTD that is ALWAYS lethal

A

Anencephaly

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420
Q

Cystic hygroma is often associated with ?

A

Turner syndrome

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421
Q

Congenital absence of bilateral kidneys & sever oligohydramnios suggests ?

A

Classic Potter sequence

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422
Q

_____ is characterized by bilateral clefts in cerebellum & has a poor prognosis

A

Hydranencephaly

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423
Q

Doppler waveforms obtained from an artery supplying an intracranial AVM may exhibit _____

A

Low pulsatility index

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424
Q

Enzyme found within blood that can be used to monitor renal function. Can also be used as a tumor marker for some ovarian tumors

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

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425
Q

Painful or difficult urination

A

Dysuria

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426
Q

Painful sex

A

Dyspareunia

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427
Q

Difficult or painful periods

A

Dysmenorrhea

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428
Q

Birth defect in which external genitalia appear neither male or female

A

Ambiguous genetalia

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429
Q

Typically with anencephaly, MSAFP levels will be ?

A

Elevated

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430
Q

Typically with gastroschisis, MSAFP levels will be ?

A

Elevated

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431
Q

In TPAL, the L refers to ?

A

Live births

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432
Q

Clinical signs of hypotensive syndrome include ?

A
  • tachycardia
  • nausea
  • pallor
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433
Q

Painless 2nd trimester bleeding is mostly associated with ?

A

Placenta previa

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434
Q

What would be decreased with presence of Edwards syndrome ?

A
  • estriol
  • hCG
  • AFP
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435
Q

Things produced by placenta

A
  • hCG
  • Papp-a
  • inhibin a
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436
Q

Myelomeningocele is associated with ?

A

Spina bifida

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437
Q

Most common mass associated with pregnancy

A

Corpus luteum

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438
Q

NT is optimally measured between 11 & 13 weeks & 6 days, when CRL measures between ?

A

45-84 mm

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439
Q

Vitelline duct is AKA ?

A

Omphomesentric duct

1 vein, 1 artery

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440
Q

By adding 30 to MSD, you get an estimate for ?

A

Gestational age in days

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441
Q

Normal hCG levels double every ____ in 1st trimester

A

48 hours

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442
Q

What are hCG levels like with a complete molar pregnancy

A

Noticeably increased

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443
Q

HCG level with twins will be ?

A

Increased

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444
Q

HCG level with a miscarriage

A

Decreased

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445
Q

HCG level with a blighted ovum

A

Decreased

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446
Q

HCG level with an ectopic

A

Decreased

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447
Q

A gestational sac should usually be seen between ____ & ____ mIu per ml with TV US

A

1000 & 2000

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448
Q

In the 1st trimester, _____ maintains the corpus luteum of ovary so it can continue to produce progesterone

A

HCG

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449
Q

Most dependent recess in the body

A

Pouch of Douglas

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450
Q

Ovarian mass that does not secrete hormones

A

Theca lutein cyst

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451
Q

Fetal lung maturity can be detected via amniocentesis by presence of ?

A

Phoephatidyl-glycerol

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452
Q

Elevated serum estrogen levels clinically can be associated with ?

A
  • thickened endometrium
  • ovarian mass
  • multiple follicles
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453
Q

Most common location for a encephalocele

A

Occipital

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454
Q

Presence of asymmetric encephalocele raises suspicion for ?

A

Limb body wall complex

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455
Q

Failure of fusion of Müllerian ducts can lead to ?

A
  • bicornuate uterus
  • uterus didelphys
  • arcuate uterus
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456
Q

Ligaments that attach to ovary to lateral pelvic wall & transits ovarian vessels

A

Infundibulopelvic ligament

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457
Q

Best scan plane to see spina bifida

A

Transverse

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458
Q

True knots in the umbilical cord are most likely seen with ?

A

Monoamniotic twins

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459
Q

Most dangerous location for an ectopic

A

Cornual

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460
Q

Skeletal anomalies are suspected when long bones measure more than _____ below mean

A

1 SD

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461
Q

Hormone responsible for proliferation of endometrium

A

Estrogen

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462
Q

Recipient twin with TTTS often exhibits ?

A

Hydrops

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463
Q

US visualization of separating membrane is evidence of ____

A

Diamniotic gestation

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464
Q

Tricuspid valve inserts _____ to the mitral valve

A

Inferior

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465
Q

Non-functioning mass of lung tissue with its own blood supply from the aorta

A

Pulmonary sequestration

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466
Q

Most common congenital heart defect

A

VSD

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467
Q

Pelvic muscle routinely seen with US

A

Levator ani

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468
Q

Most common cause of hydrocephalus I’m utero

A

Aqueductal stenosis

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469
Q

Structure created by union of sperm & egg

A

Zygote

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470
Q

With holoprosencephaly,

there will be a ____- shapes monoventricle, & the lobes of the ______ may be fused & _____ in appearance

A
  • horseshoe
  • thalamus
  • echogenic
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471
Q

Trisomy 13 is present in 50-70% of fetuses diagnosed with ?

A

Holoprosencephaly

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472
Q

If cerebellar vermis is absent & 4th ventricle is enlarged, then what is suspected?

A

Dandy Walker malformation

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473
Q

A normal IUP is seen, as well as a cystic structure with thick & hyperechoic rim

A

Corpus luteum cyst

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474
Q

With agenesis of corpus callosum, the sulci tend to have more of a perpendicular or radial arrangement & often appear to have a ______ pattern

A

“Spoke wheel”

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475
Q

Associated with development of fluid filled clefts within the cerebrum

A

Schizencephaly

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476
Q

Choroid plexus cysts often regress, although there is a slight association with ?

A

Trisomy 18

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477
Q

US appearance of anencephaly

A
  • ‘frog like’ face
  • bulging eyes
  • absent cranial vault
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478
Q

Typical complaints of a woman with adenomyosis

A
  • dysmenorrhea
  • dyspareunia
  • menometrorrhagia
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479
Q

Surgical removal of a fibroid

A

Myomectomy

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480
Q

Clinical findings associated with leiomyoma

A
  • infertility
  • palpable mass
  • menorrhagia
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481
Q

Uterine position in which the corpus tilts forward & comes in contact with cx

A

Antelflexion

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482
Q

Most common uterine anomaly

A

Septate uterus

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483
Q

Outer layer of endometrium

A

Basal layer

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484
Q

Extracorpeal approaches to US

A
  • transthoracic
  • transvesicular
  • TA
  • transperineal
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485
Q

Most likely cause if bilateral, enlarged, echogenic kidneys & oligohydramnios

A

ARPKD

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486
Q

Failure of kidneys to form

A

Renal agenesis

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487
Q

Most likely associated with polyhydramnios

A

Duodenal atresia

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488
Q

Most common type of colon atresia

A

Anorectal atresia

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489
Q

Associated with duodenal atresia

A
  • trisomy 21
  • esophageal atresia
  • VACTERL
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490
Q

Omphalocele can contain ?

A
  • liver
  • ascites
  • colon
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491
Q

Things often associated with omphalocele

A
  • multiple chromosomal abnormalities
  • elevated MSAFP
  • periumbilical mass
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492
Q

Fetal stool is ?

A

Meconium

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493
Q

Demise of a twin can lead to development of neurologic complication in living twin as a result of ?

A

Twin embolization syndrome

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494
Q

Least common form of twins

A

Monochorionic/Monoamniotic

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495
Q

Acardiac twinning results from ?

A

Abnormal links between placenta vessels

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496
Q

Possible complications associated with twins ?

A
  • preterm delivery
  • maternal anemia
  • preeclampsia
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497
Q

Most common form of monozygotic twins

A

Monochorionic/Diamniotic

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498
Q

Fraternal twins result from ?

A

Dizygotic twinning

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499
Q

The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is called ?

A

Parasitic twin

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500
Q

What can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning?

A

Dichorionic/Diamniotic twins

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501
Q

Shunting if blood from 1 twin to the other

A

TTTS

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502
Q

Treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins suffering from TTTS

A

Endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation

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503
Q

Demise of a twin during the 2nd & 3rd trimester can lead to ?

A

TES

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504
Q

Monozygotic twins results from ?

A

A single zygote that splits

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505
Q

A triangular extension of placenta @ base of a membrane is indicative of ?

A

Dichorionic/Diamniotic twins

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506
Q

Presence of 2 separate amniotic sacs

A

Diamniotic

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507
Q

Factors that could increase likelihood of multiples

A
  • maternal age > 40

- maternal family history of twins

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508
Q

Outer membrane of gestation

A

Chorion

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509
Q

Twins resulting from 2 separate ova

A

Dizygotic

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510
Q

What would a newborn most likely suffer from born prior to 32 weeks as result of twin complication ?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

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511
Q

US signs of a Di/Di twins

A
  • twin peak sign
  • lambda sign
  • delta sign
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512
Q

IUGR is defined as ?

A

Fetus < 10th percentile

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513
Q

US findings associated with intrauterine infection

A
  • calcs around ventricles

- ventriculomegaly

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514
Q

Appearance of collapsed overriding of cranial bones associated with fetal demise

A

Spaulding sign

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515
Q

Duels sign is AKA

A

Halo sign

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516
Q

Condition that includes genitourinary anomalies, heart defects, ear/eye problems & growth restriction

A

CHARGE

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517
Q

Acetylcholinesterase (ACHE) is specific for ?

A

Spina bifida

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518
Q

Abnormal nuchal fold thicken is greater than _____

A

5-6 mm

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519
Q

How is cvs sample usually taken ?

A

Transcervically

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520
Q

A method of collecting a sample of placental tissue to perform karyotype mapping in order to determine chromosomal & genetic disorders

A

CVS

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521
Q

Where is the CVS sample usually taken ?

A

Chorion frondosum

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522
Q

______ is associated with elevated MSAFP

A
  • maternal renal abnormality
  • fetal demise
  • multiple gestation
  • abdomen wall defects
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523
Q

______ is associated with decreased MSAFP

A
  • hydatidiform mole
  • underestimation if gestational age
  • fetal death
  • Down syndrome
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524
Q

@ what level is nuchal fold thickness measured ?

A

@ level of cerebellum

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525
Q

@ what gestational ago is nuchal fold thickness measured

A

15-20 weeks

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526
Q

True hermaphrodites have both ?

A

Female & male gonadal tissue

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527
Q

If a pt presents externally as a female but chromosome analysis reveals 46XY chromosome

A

Testicular ferminization

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528
Q

Major component of prenatal genetic testing include ?

A
  • amniocentesis
  • CVS
  • anatomy scan
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529
Q

Hormone that maintains corpus luteum during pregnancy

A

hCG

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530
Q

Common cause of DUB

A

PCOS

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531
Q

Structure noted within Graafian follicle containing developing ovum is ?

A

Cumulus oophorus

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532
Q

Which structure remains after corpus luteum has regressed ?

A

Corpus albicans

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533
Q

Hormone of pituitary gland that stimulates follicular development of ovary

A

FSH

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534
Q

Structure that produces hormones that directly acts upon the endometrium to produce varying thickness & US appearances

A

Ovary

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535
Q

1st phase of ovarian cycle

A

Follicular

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536
Q

Hormone produced by hypothalamus that controls release of hormones for memstration by anterior pituitary gland

A

GnRH

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537
Q

Hormone that surges at ovulation

A

LH

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538
Q

1st phase of endometrial cycle

A

Proliferative

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539
Q

Hormone released by ovary during proliferative phase stimulates endometrial thickening

A

Estrogen

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540
Q

Periovulatory phase is AKA

A

Late proliferative

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541
Q

Corpus luteum primarily releases ?

A

Progesterone

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542
Q

Intermenstrual bleeding

A

Metrorrhagia

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543
Q

Ectopic endometrial tissue within uterus that leads to AUB

A

Adenomyosis

544
Q

Arteries within functional layer of endometrium theatre altered by hormones of ovary & are shed with cycle

A

Spiral arteries

545
Q

During which phase of endometrial cycle would yield 3 line sign

A

Late proliferative

546
Q

2nd phase of endometrial cycle

A

Secretory phase

547
Q

Which hormone is produced by ovary during 2nd half of cycle ?

A

Progesterone

548
Q

Luteinizing hormone (LH) is produced by the ?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

549
Q

1st period

A

Menarche

550
Q

Measurement of endometrium during early proliferative phase ranges from ?

A

4-8 mm

551
Q

2nd phase of ovarian cycle

A

Luteal phase

552
Q

2 hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland that impact your cycle

A

LH & FSH

553
Q

Cancer that originates in glandular tissue

A

Adenocarcinoma

554
Q

Irregular bands of tissue

A

Adhesions

555
Q

Syndrome characterized by endometrial adhesions that typically occur as a result of scar formation after some type of uterine surgery

A

Asherman Syndrome

556
Q

Menopause is AKA

A

Climacteric

557
Q

Procedure where cx is dilated & uterine cavity is scraped with curette

A

D&C

558
Q

Hormone released by ovary that initiates the proliferation & thickening of endo

A

Estrogen

559
Q

Blood accumulation within the uterine cavity

A

Hematometra

560
Q

Endoscopy is uterine cavity

A

Hysteroscopy

561
Q

Having gave birth to no kids

A

Nulliparity

562
Q

Shaped like a polyp

A

Polyploid

563
Q

Adhesions

A

Synechiae

564
Q

Opening located in left posteriolateral portion of diaphragm

A

Foramne of Bochdalek

565
Q

FSH is produced by the ?

A

Anterior pituitary gland

566
Q

When the ovary is in the luteal phase, which phase is the endometrium in ?

A

Secretory

567
Q

A change in period bleeding associated with lesions within uterus relate to ?

A

AUB

568
Q

Painful & difficult period

A

Dysmenorrhea

569
Q

Temporary endocrine gland that results from the rupture of Graafian follicle

A

Corpus luteum

570
Q

Hormones responsible for gallstone formation in pregnancy

A

Estrogen & progesterone

571
Q

Functional bowel disorder within fetus caused by absence of intestinal nerves

A

Hirschsprung disease

572
Q

Structure that contains the developing oocyte

A

Cumulus oophorus

573
Q

Normal cisterna magna width

A

2-10 mm

574
Q

Fertilization typically occurs within ____ after ovulation

A

12 hours

575
Q

Stage of conceptus that implants within decidulized endometrium

A

Blastocyst

576
Q

Often used to medicinally treat an ectopic

A

Methotrexate

577
Q

Which structure lies within extraembryonic coelom

A

Yolk sac

578
Q

Most common form of GTD

A

Complete molar pregnancy

579
Q

1st identifiable US sign of pregnancy

A

Decidual reaction

580
Q

1st structure notes within gestational sac

A

Yolk sac

581
Q

Normal gestational sac will grow ?

A

1 mm per day

582
Q

Associated with an abnormal nuchal translucency

A
  • trisomy 18 & 21

- Turner syndrome

583
Q

Contributing factors of an ectopic

A
  • PID
  • assisted reproductive therapy
  • IUD
584
Q

In early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located?

A

Chorionic cavity

585
Q

Findings consistent with complete hydatiform mole

A
  • hetero mass in endometrium
  • bilateral theca lutein cyst
  • hyperemesis gravidarium
586
Q

Most likely Mets location from GTD

A

Lungs

587
Q

Maternal contribution to placenta

A

Decidua basaslis

588
Q

Level of hCG beyond ____ is consistently visible

A

Discriminatory zone

589
Q

Normal US appearance of decidua capsaularis & decidua parietalsis, seperated by anechoic fluid filled uterine cavity

A

Double decidual sign (double sac)

590
Q

Doppler assessment of middle cerebral artery can evaluate the fetus for ?

A

Hypoxia

591
Q

Measurement that should be carefully visualized with IUGR

A

AC

592
Q

An abnormal cord insert into membranes beyond placental edge

A

Velamentous insertion

593
Q

? can be associated with polyhydramnios

A
  • omphalocele
  • gastroschisis
  • esophageal atresia
594
Q

Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with ?

A

Intracranial calcs

595
Q

Normal umbilical cord insert point isn’t the placenta is ?

A

Central

596
Q

A velamentous cord insert is associated with ?

A

Vasa previa

597
Q

Increased S/D ratio is associated with ?

A
  • IUGR
  • placental insufficiency
  • mortality
598
Q

Benign ovarian mass that’s composed of 3 germ call layers

A

Cystic teratoma

599
Q

Small benign ovarian tumors

A

Brenner tumors

600
Q

Androblastoma is AKA

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

601
Q

Recesses of the vagina

A

Fornices

602
Q

Area where Fallopian tube connects to uterus

A

Cornua

603
Q

Leiomyosarcoma is a ?

A

Malignant fibroid

604
Q

What can be associated with a thick placenta

A
  • fetal infections
  • RH isoimmunization
  • multiple gestations
605
Q

What can be associated with a thin placenta ?

A
  • preeclampsia
  • IUGR
  • long standing diabetes
606
Q

Fetal contribution of placenta

A

Chorion frondosum

607
Q

A succenturiate lobe of placenta refers to a ?

A

Accessory lobe

608
Q

Mothers with pregestational diabetes have an increased risk of a fetus with ?

A

NTD’s

609
Q

With RH isoimminization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta & destroy the fetal ?

A

Reb blood cells

610
Q

Maternal contribution to placenta

A

Decidua basalis

611
Q

Nonimmune hydrops is associated with ?

A
  • pleural effusion
  • Turner syndrome
  • fetal infections
612
Q

Associated with erythroblastosis fetalis & RH isoimmunization

A

Immune hydrops

613
Q

Most common renal anomaly

A

Duplex collecting system

614
Q

Obstruction @ UVJ would lead to dilation of ?

A

Ureter & renal collecting system

615
Q

Type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver & pancreatic cysts

A

ADPKD

616
Q

Most common fetal renal tumor

A

Mesoblastic nephroma

617
Q

? would be associated with oligohydramnios

A
  • bilateral MCKD
  • bilateral renal agenesis
  • ARPKD
618
Q

Prune belly syndrome is caused by ?

A

Enlarged bladder

619
Q

Dilation of renal pelvis is called ?

A

Pyelactasis

620
Q

Obstruction @ level of UPJ would lead to dilation of ?

A

Renal pelvis/calices

621
Q

OEIS complex is also called ?

A

Cloacal extrophy

622
Q

Components of prune nelly syndrome

A
  • megacystitis
  • undescended testicles
  • dilated bladder/urethra
623
Q

Is numerous non communicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of fetus @ 20 weeks, what’s the most likely etiology?

A

MCKD

624
Q

AKA pelvicaliectasis

A

Hydronephrosis

625
Q

‘Lying down’ adrenal sign describes US findings of ?

A

Renal agenesis

626
Q

Condition associated with absence of sacrum & coccyx

A

LBWC

627
Q

A fetus with ______ will have a clover leaf skull with frontal bossing & hydrocephalus

A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

628
Q

Brittle bone disease

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

629
Q

Most common non lethal skeletal dysplasia

A

Heterozygous achondroplasia

630
Q

Kyphosis is an abnormal _______ curvature of spine

A

Posterior

631
Q

Each fetal vertebrae consists of 3 ossification centers that are ?

A

1 centrum - 2 neural processes

632
Q

Wide septum between middle & ring finger

A

Trident hand

633
Q

Most common LETHAL skeletal dysplasia

  • cloverleaf skull
  • frontal bossing
  • hydrocephalus
A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

634
Q

Closed spinal lesions completely covered by skin & can be difficult to see with US
AKA closed spina bifida

A

Spina bifida occulta

635
Q

Most common form of spina bifida
- open lesions typically not covered by skin & mass that protrudes from skin

AKA open spina bifida

A

Spina bifida aperta

636
Q

Abnormal lateral curvature of spine

A

Scoliosis

637
Q

Opening in skin over distal spine

A

Sacral dimple

638
Q

Nondevelopment of sacrum

AKA caudal regression

A

Sacralagenesis

639
Q

Embyologix formation that results from the fusion of 2 folded ends of neural plate

A

Neural tube

640
Q

Mass that results from open spine bifida that contains spinal cord only

A

Myelocele

641
Q

Mass that results from open spina bifida that contains the spinal cord & meningocele

A

Myelomeningocele

642
Q

Her ovation of cranial or spinal meninges because of an open cranial or spinal defect; contains CSF but no nerve tissue

A

Meningocele

643
Q

Group of disorders with US findings including short or absent umbilical cord, ventral wall defect, craniofacial defects & scoliosis

A

Limb-body wall complex

644
Q

Most often found in a fetus with spina bifida

A

Lemon sign

645
Q

Abnormal posterior curvature of spine

A

Kyphosis

646
Q

Combination of both scoliosis & kyphosis

A

Kyphoscoliosis

647
Q

Fatal form of achondroplasia

A

Homozygous achondroplasia

648
Q

Most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by rhizomelia

A

Heterozygous achondroplasia

649
Q

Angling if frontal bones that produces an unusually prominent forehead

A

Frontal bossing

650
Q

Form of acrania in which the entire cerebellum is located outside of skull

A

Exencephaly

651
Q

Abnormal lateral ventricle shape there is a small frontal horn & enlarged occipital horn

A

Colpocephaly

652
Q

Abnormal shape of cranium caused by premature fusion of disturbed in which frontal bossing occurs

A

Cloverleaf skull

653
Q

Brain structure responsible for motor output, sensory perception, & equilibrium

A

Cerebellum

654
Q

Protrusion of intracranial contents thru defect in skull

A

Cephalocele

655
Q

Bones of cranium & spine

A

Axial

656
Q

Rare, nonlethal condition resulting in an abnormal development of bones & cartilage

A

Achondrogenesis

657
Q

Choroid plexus is responsible for producing

A

CSF

658
Q

US features of holoprosencephaly

A
  • proboscis with cyclopia
  • fused thalami
  • monoventricle
659
Q

Condition with no nose & proboscis separating 2 close set orbits

A

Ethmocephaly

660
Q

Small mandible

A

Micrognathia

661
Q

Nuchal fold thickness in 2nd trimester shouldn’t exceed ?

A

6 mm

662
Q

@ what level is nuchal fold measurement

A

CSP

663
Q

Abnormal division of lip

A

Cleft lip

664
Q

Growth disorder syndrome associated with organ, skull & tongue enlargement

A

Beckwith-Widemann Syndrome

665
Q

Group of abnormalities associated with entrapment of fetal parts & fetal amputation

A

Amniotic band syndrome

666
Q

Measurement between lateral sides of orbits

A

Binocular diameter

667
Q

Facial abnormalities when discovered, should prompt the tech to analyze the brain for signs of ?

A

Holoprosencephaly

668
Q

Micrognathia is a condition associated with ?

A

Trisomy 18

669
Q

Turner syndrome is AKA

A

Monosomy X

670
Q

Optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia

A

Sagittal

671
Q

There is a direct link between microtia & ?

A

Down syndrome

672
Q

The fetal lip typically closes by ?

A

8 weeks

673
Q

Most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly

A

Trisomy 13

674
Q

Isolated enlargement of fetal thyroid

A

Fetal goiter

675
Q

Nuchal fold thickness is considered abnormal if it measures greater than ?

A

6 mm

676
Q

Macroglossia is often associated with ?

A

Beckwith-Wiedemann & Down syndrome

677
Q

Most common cause of hypotelorism

A

Holoprosencephaly

678
Q

Most common cause of hypertelorism

A

Anterior cephalocele

679
Q

Whenever any form of holoprosencephaly is suspected, a thorough ________ evaluation should be performed?

A

Facial

680
Q

Abnormality where 1 sex chromosome is absent

AKA monosomy X

A

Turner syndrome

681
Q

Measurement from medial to lateral side of eye

A

Ocular diameter

682
Q

Small ears

A

Microtia

683
Q

Small mandible & recesses chin

A

Micrognathia

684
Q

Benign congenital neck cyst found most often near angle of mandible

A

Brachial cleft cyst

685
Q

Condition with small frontal horns & enlarged occipital horns

A

Colpocephaly

686
Q

Lack of sulci within fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of ?

A

Lissencephaly

687
Q

US finding of a fluid filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with ?

A

Hydranencephaly

688
Q

Fetal suture located within frontal bone along ML of forehead

A

Metopic suture

689
Q

Lemon shaped skull is associated with ?

A

Arnold Chiari II malformation

690
Q

Cloverleaf skull shape is associated with ?

A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

691
Q

Band of tissue that allows communication between right & left cerebral hemispheres

A

Corpus callosum

692
Q

Associated with a strawberry shaped skull ?

A

Trisomy 18

693
Q

Most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age

A

HC

694
Q

Normal shaped skull

A

Mesocephaly

695
Q

Strict located between 2 loves of cerebellum

A

Cerebellar vermis

696
Q

Dangling choroid sign is associated with ?

A

Ventriculomegaly

697
Q

Chromosomal aberration associated with holoprosencephaly

A

Trisomy 13

698
Q

Genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, ml facial hypoplasia, & syndactyly

A

Apert Syndrome

699
Q

Development of fluid filled cleft within cerebrum is consistent with ?

A

Schizencephaly

700
Q

Typically absent with agenesis of corpus callosum

A

CSP

701
Q

What structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with Dandy Walker malformation communicate ?

A

4th ventricle

702
Q

Vein of Galen aneurysm is associated with ?

A

CHF

703
Q

Resistance pattern of the MCA should be greater than that of the umbilical artery, should be compared to when ______ is suspected

A

Fetal shunting

704
Q

Most common intracranial tumor found in utero

A

Teratoma

705
Q

Omphalocele is associated with ?

A
  • pentalogy of Cantrell
  • trisomy 18
  • Patau syndrome
706
Q

Inherited disorder in which secreting organs such as lungs, pancreas, & other digestive organs that produce thick & sticky secretions instead of normal secretions

A

Cystic fibrosis

707
Q

Lab value significant in detection of abdomen wall defects

A

MSAFP

708
Q

Associated with gastroschisis

A
  • normal cord insert
  • elevated MSAFP
  • periumbilical mass
709
Q

Congenital absence of part of esophagus

A

Esophageal atresia

710
Q

Where does gastroschisis occur?

A

Lateral on right side of cord insert

711
Q

Abnormal connection between esophagus & trachea

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

712
Q

Associated with esophageal atresia

A
  • trisomy 21
  • VACTERL
  • Edwards syndrome
713
Q

Fetal stomach should be visualized by week ?

A

14

714
Q

Associated with omphalocele

A
  • trisomy 18
  • pentalogy of cantrell
  • IUGR
715
Q

Congenital maldevelopment or absence of duodenum

A

Duodenal atresia

716
Q

Cystic dilation of CBD

A

Choledochal cyst

717
Q

Sorta arising from right ventricle, pulmonary artery that arises from the left ventricle is describing ?

A

Transposition of great vessels

718
Q

With polyhydramnios, you should evaluate for ?

A

Duodenal/esophageal atresia

719
Q

Group of anomalies that include omphalocele, ectopic cordis, cleft sternum, anterior diaphragmatic defect, & pericardial defects

A

Pentalogy of Cantrell

720
Q

Congenital malformation of proximal part of small intestine

A

Duodenal atresia

721
Q

Hepatomegaly can be seen in conjunction with ?

A

Beckeith-wiedemann Syndrome

722
Q

? is most often associated with duodenal atresia

A

Trisomy 21

723
Q

Normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by ?

A

12 weeks

724
Q

Most common congenital infection

A

Cytomegalovirus

725
Q

Normally, S/D ratio will ______ with advancing gestation

A

Decrease

726
Q

Fetuses with 2VC have an approximately _______% chance of having additional abnormalities

A

20%

727
Q

Thickness of placenta shouldn’t exceed ?

A

4 cm

728
Q

What is it called when the shoulder of the baby can’t fit thru the birth canal during labor

A

Shoulder dystocia

729
Q

Vertical groove between upper lip & nasal septum

A

Philtrum

730
Q

First 28 days of life

A

Neonatal period

731
Q

Rare disorder in which mother suffers from edema & fluid build up similar to her hydronic baby

A

Mirror syndrome

732
Q

Total blood loss - to bleed out

A

Exsanguination

733
Q

Condition in which there’s an incompatibility between fetal & maternal red blood cells

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

734
Q

If only 1 yolk sac is seen with 2 fetuses, it’s indicative of ?

A

Monoamniotic gestation

735
Q

Most common form of monozygotic twins

A

Monochorionic/Diamniotic

736
Q

Most common form of twins

A

Dizygotic (fraternal)

737
Q

Twins attached @ chest

A

Thoracopagus

738
Q

In the us, are monozygotic or dizygotic twins more common?

A

Dizygotic

739
Q

Double fold of dura mater located at ml

A

Falx cerebri

740
Q

Development of red blood cells

A

Hemstopoiesis

741
Q

Appearance of small gestational sac in uterine cavity surrounded by thick, echogenic endometrium

A

Intradecidual sign

742
Q

L x W x H of gestational sac diveded by 3

A

Mean sac diameter

743
Q

What kind of twins are more common among Africans?

A

Dizygotic

744
Q

Cord entanglement is often seen in what kind of pregnancy?

A

Monochorionic/Monoaniotic

745
Q

Twins conjoined back to back in sacral region

A

Pyopagus

746
Q

Twins conjoined @ the abdomen

A

Omphalopagus

747
Q

Having 1 placenta & 1 amniotic sac

A

Mono/mono

748
Q

Having 1 placenta & 2 amniotic sacs

A

Monochorionic/Diamniotic

749
Q

2 ova that are fertilized by 2 sperm

A

Dizygotic

750
Q

Twins with 2 placentas & 2 amniotic sacs

A

Di/Di

751
Q

Lambda sign is ?

A

Delta sign

752
Q

Twins conjoined @ cranium

A

Craniopagus

753
Q

_____ disease is fatal if bilateral

A

MCKD

754
Q

_______ is the most likely cause if enlarged, echogenic kidneys in utero

A

ARPKD

755
Q

Most worrisome consequence associated with oligohydramnios

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

756
Q

How often does the fetal bladder usually fill & empty

A

30 - 45 minutes

757
Q

______ is located between the apex of the bladder & umbilicus

A

Urachus

758
Q

Failure of kidneys to develop

A

Renal agenesis

759
Q

Syndrome that’s a consequence of abdominal wall musculature being stretched by enlarged bladder

A

Prue belly syndrome

760
Q

Fusion of orbits & holoprosencephaly are associated with ?

A

Patau syndrome

761
Q

Maternal serum screening of a mom of a fetus with trisomy 18 will show ?

A
  • decreased AFP, hCG & estriol
762
Q

Monosomy X is ?

A

Turner syndrome

763
Q

Cleft lip, hypotelorism, & micropthalmia are all features of ?

A

Trisomy 13

764
Q

Strawberry shaped skull is associated with ?

A

Edwards syndrome

765
Q

Earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is ?

A

CVS

766
Q

With what procedure is placental tissue obtained?

A

CVS

767
Q

Molar pregnancy, omphalocele & low set eyes are found most often with ?

A

Triploidy

768
Q

Sex chromosome anomaly

A

45,X or Turner syndrome

769
Q

Brachycephaly is often associated with ?

A

Down syndrome

770
Q

Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with ?

A
  • molar pregnancy

- triploidy

771
Q

Rounded head shape

A

Brachycephaly

772
Q

Low afp & estriol and elevated hCG is consistent with ?

A

Down syndrome

773
Q

Normal diploid cells have ____ chromosomes

A

46

774
Q

With Turner syndrome, what chromosome is missing ?

A

Paternal sex chromosome

775
Q

Often a particular molar pregnancy is found with a triploidy fetus resulting in ?

A
  • elevated hCG

- bilateral theca lutein cysts

776
Q

Common findings associated wit trisomy 13

A
  • holoprosencephaly

- abnormal facies

777
Q

Characteristics of trisomy 18

A
  • strawberry shaped skull
  • choroid plexus cysts
  • micrognathia
  • rockerbottom feet
  • omphalocele
  • clenched fists
778
Q

For PUBS, a needle is placed into maternal abdomen & into the _____

A

Umbilical vein

779
Q

When is an amniocentesis usually performed ?

A

15-20 weeks

780
Q

If at the anatomy scan, FL is the only things that measured small, you’d suspect ?

A

Skeletal dysplasia

781
Q

With IUGR, is reversed diastolic flow good ?

A

NO

782
Q

Normal RI in umbilical artery with IUGR

A

< 0.8

783
Q

What is nagele’s rule ?

A

EDD = LMP - 3 months + 7 days

784
Q

Micrognathia is seen especially with ?

A

Trisomy 18

785
Q

What is the ventricle like with alobar holoprosencephaly ?

A

Monoventricle

786
Q

What is absent with lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

CSP & Olfactory tracts

787
Q

Fetal skin shouldn’t be greater than ?

A

5 mm

788
Q

Omphaloceles containing bowel have a greater risk of ?

A

Associated chromosomal abnormalities

789
Q

Most common tumor of female pelvis

A

Leimyoma

790
Q

Anytime you see a uterine anomaly, you should look at the _____

A

Kidneys

791
Q

Hormonal IUD

A
  • mirena

- progestasert

792
Q

Nonhormonal iuds

A
  • copper coated
  • Paragard
  • copper T
793
Q

Describe secretory phase

A

8-16 mm

Day 15-28

794
Q

Describe endometrium during early proliferative phase

A

Hypoechoic

4-8 mm

795
Q

During menses, what does the endometrium look like ?

A

Thin, 1-4 mm

796
Q

Is high or low resistance vital to ovaries?

A

Low

797
Q

In follicular phase, the ovarian arteries will have ______ flow

A

Low velocity, high resistance

798
Q

Fetal syndrome associated with microcephaly, occipital encephalocele, polydactyly, & polycystic kidneys

A

Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

799
Q

What causes a bladder outlet obstruction?

A

Posterior urethral valve

800
Q

Most common cause of hydronephrosis & most common form of fetal renal obstruction

A

UPJ obstruction

801
Q

Renal pelvis shouldn’t exceed ____ prior to 20 weeks

A

7 mm

802
Q

Way in which gene is inherited, both parents must be carriers

A

Autosomal recessive

803
Q

Disorder inherited by fetus, atleast 1 parent is a carrier

A

Autosomal dominant

804
Q

Membrane present during early embryonic development that contribute to bladder formation & development

A

Allantois

805
Q

Cyst found within umbilical cord

A

Allantoic cyst

806
Q

Does omphalocele or gastroschisis have a BETTER outcome?

A

Gastroschisis

807
Q

Most common fetal liver abnormality

A

Hepatomegaly

808
Q

_____ will most often lead to visualization of dilated fetal rectum

A

Anotectal atresia

809
Q

Herniation if abdominal contents thru a right sided periumbilical abdomen wall defect

A

Gastroschisis

810
Q

Fetal heart is fully formed by week ?

A

10 weeks

811
Q

Blood returning from the lungs thru the pulmonary veins enters into ?

A

Left atrium

812
Q

Normal opening in the lower third of atrial septum

A

Foramen ovale

813
Q

Most common heart defect

A

VSD

814
Q

Rhabdomyomas are associated with ?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

815
Q

Fetal lung maturity can be assessed by using ?

A

LS ratio

816
Q

_______ should be positioned anterior to sorta & should be seen crossing over it

A

Pulmonary artery

817
Q

Where is the mitral valve located ?

A

Between left ventricle & left atrium

818
Q

‘Bag wing’ sign is indicative of ?

A

Pleural effusion

819
Q

Lack of muscle in dome of diaphragm is called ?

A

Eventration of diaphragm

820
Q

Where is the tricuspid valve located ?

A

Between right ventricle & right atrium

821
Q

Separate mass of nonfunctional lung tissue

A

Pulmonary sequestration

822
Q

Most common cause of cardiac malposition

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

823
Q

The moderator band is located within the ?

A

Right ventricle

824
Q

Most common form of diaphragmatic hernia

A

Foramen of Bockdalek

825
Q

Fetal shunt that connects pulmonary artery to aortic arch

A

Ductus arteriosis

826
Q

Most common fetal cardiac tumor

A

Rhabdomyoma

827
Q

echogenic focus within heart can be associated with ?

A

Trisomy 21

828
Q

Echogenic cardiac focus is often seen within ?

A

Left ventricle

829
Q

Opening within the septum that desperate the right & left ventricle

A

VSD

830
Q

When does the trilaminar embryonic disc form ?

A

During gastrulation

831
Q

TTTS is specific to what kind of twins?

A

Monochorionic/Monozygotic

832
Q

Twin growth is similar to Singleton growth until about ?

A

30 weeks

833
Q

Twins resulting from fertilization of 1 single ovum

A

Monozygotic

834
Q

A molar pregnancy that’s considered invasive but doesn’t metastasize

A

Chorioadenoma destruens

835
Q

Normal CI

A

74 - 83 %

836
Q

A CI of 61% suggests ?

A

Dolicocephaly

837
Q

Cephalad means ?

A

Towards the top of the head

838
Q

Cerebellar measurements can be used to estimate gestational age but lose accuracy after ?

A

20 weeks

839
Q

Benign vascular tumor of placenta

A

Chorioangioma

840
Q

When the umbilical cord inserts at edge of placenta

A

Battledore/marginal

841
Q

Cephalic is AKA

A

Vertex

842
Q

Malformation or malpositioning of tricuspid valve results in ?

A

Ebstein anomaly

843
Q

Blood from the right ventricle can flow they the ductus arteriosis & into the _____

A

Descending aorta

844
Q

Blood is shunted directly into the IVC via a small branch of umbilical vein called ____

A

Ductus venosus

845
Q

Heart chamber closest to fetal spine

A

Left atrium

846
Q

The embryonic heart begins as _____ then turns into ______

A

Starts as 2 tubes

Turns into 4 chambers

847
Q

Anomaly in which the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle & aorta arises from the right ventricle

A

Transposition of great vessels

848
Q

Stage of conceptus that implants within decidualized endometrium

A

Blastocyst

849
Q

Most malignant form of gestational trophobladtic disease with possible mets to liver, lungs & vagina

A

Choriocarcinoma

850
Q

Breast cancer treatment drug that may alter US appearance of endometrium

A

Tamoxifen

851
Q

Most common cause if postmenopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial atrophy

852
Q

Most common for of endometrial carcinoma

A

Adenocarcinoma

853
Q

Colpocephaly is commonly associated with ?

A

Agenesis of corpus callosum

854
Q

Multiple echogenic foci located in fetal, liver, bowel & peritoneum accompanied by polyhydramnios & fetal ascites most likely indicates ?

A

Meconium peritonitis

855
Q

? is associated with multiple small calculations in the fetal brain & liver as well as mild ventriculomegaly

A

Cytomegalovirus infection

856
Q

An abnormally short fetal neck with fixed posterior flexion

A

Iniencephaly

857
Q

In the us, are monozygotic or dizygotic twins more common?

A

Dizygotic

858
Q

Double fold of dura mater located at ml

A

Falx cerebri

859
Q

Development of red blood cells

A

Hemstopoiesis

860
Q

Appearance of small gestational sac in uterine cavity surrounded by thick, echogenic endometrium

A

Intradecidual sign

861
Q

L x W x H of gestational sac diveded by 3

A

Mean sac diameter

862
Q

What kind of twins are more common among Africans?

A

Dizygotic

863
Q

Cord entanglement is often seen in what kind of pregnancy?

A

Monochorionic/Monoaniotic

864
Q

Twins conjoined back to back in sacral region

A

Pyopagus

865
Q

Twins conjoined @ the abdomen

A

Omphalopagus

866
Q

Having 1 placenta & 1 amniotic sac

A

Mono/mono

867
Q

Having 1 placenta & 2 amniotic sacs

A

Monochorionic/Diamniotic

868
Q

2 ova that are fertilized by 2 sperm

A

Dizygotic

869
Q

Twins with 2 placentas & 2 amniotic sacs

A

Di/Di

870
Q

Lambda sign is ?

A

Delta sign

871
Q

Twins conjoined @ cranium

A

Craniopagus

872
Q

_____ disease is fatal if bilateral

A

MCKD

873
Q

_______ is the most likely cause if enlarged, echogenic kidneys in utero

A

ARPKD

874
Q

Most worrisome consequence associated with oligohydramnios

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

875
Q

How often does the fetal bladder usually fill & empty

A

30 - 45 minutes

876
Q

______ is located between the apex of the bladder & umbilicus

A

Urachus

877
Q

Failure of kidneys to develop

A

Renal agenesis

878
Q

Syndrome that’s a consequence of abdominal wall musculature being stretched by enlarged bladder

A

Prue belly syndrome

879
Q

Fusion of orbits & holoprosencephaly are associated with ?

A

Patau syndrome

880
Q

Maternal serum screening of a mom of a fetus with trisomy 18 will show ?

A
  • decreased AFP, hCG & estriol
881
Q

Monosomy X is ?

A

Turner syndrome

882
Q

Cleft lip, hypotelorism, & micropthalmia are all features of ?

A

Trisomy 13

883
Q

Strawberry shaped skull is associated with ?

A

Edwards syndrome

884
Q

Earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is ?

A

CVS

885
Q

With what procedure is placental tissue obtained?

A

CVS

886
Q

Molar pregnancy, omphalocele & low set eyes are found most often with ?

A

Triploidy

887
Q

Sex chromosome anomaly

A

45,X or Turner syndrome

888
Q

Brachycephaly is often associated with ?

A

Down syndrome

889
Q

Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with ?

A
  • molar pregnancy

- triploidy

890
Q

Rounded head shape

A

Brachycephaly

891
Q

Low afp & estriol and elevated hCG is consistent with ?

A

Down syndrome

892
Q

Normal diploid cells have ____ chromosomes

A

46

893
Q

With Turner syndrome, what chromosome is missing ?

A

Paternal sex chromosome

894
Q

Often a particular molar pregnancy is found with a triploidy fetus resulting in ?

A
  • elevated hCG

- bilateral theca lutein cysts

895
Q

Common findings associated wit trisomy 13

A
  • holoprosencephaly

- abnormal facies

896
Q

Characteristics of trisomy 18

A
  • strawberry shaped skull
  • choroid plexus cysts
  • micrognathia
  • rockerbottom feet
  • omphalocele
  • clenched fists
897
Q

For PUBS, a needle is placed into maternal abdomen & into the _____

A

Umbilical vein

898
Q

When is an amniocentesis usually performed ?

A

15-20 weeks

899
Q

If at the anatomy scan, FL is the only things that measured small, you’d suspect ?

A

Skeletal dysplasia

900
Q

With IUGR, is reversed diastolic flow good ?

A

NO

901
Q

Normal RI in umbilical artery with IUGR

A

< 0.8

902
Q

What is nagele’s rule ?

A

EDD = LMP - 3 months + 7 days

903
Q

Micrognathia is seen especially with ?

A

Trisomy 18

904
Q

What is the ventricle like with alobar holoprosencephaly ?

A

Monoventricle

905
Q

What is absent with lobar holoprosencephaly?

A

CSP & Olfactory tracts

906
Q

Fetal skin shouldn’t be greater than ?

A

5 mm

907
Q

Omphaloceles containing bowel have a greater risk of ?

A

Associated chromosomal abnormalities

908
Q

Most common tumor of female pelvis

A

Leimyoma

909
Q

Anytime you see a uterine anomaly, you should look at the _____

A

Kidneys

910
Q

Hormonal IUD

A
  • mirena

- progestasert

911
Q

Nonhormonal iuds

A
  • copper coated
  • Paragard
  • copper T
912
Q

Describe secretory phase

A

8-16 mm

Day 15-28

913
Q

Describe endometrium during early proliferative phase

A

Hypoechoic

4-8 mm

914
Q

During menses, what does the endometrium look like ?

A

Thin, 1-4 mm

915
Q

Is high or low resistance vital to ovaries?

A

Low

916
Q

In follicular phase, the ovarian arteries will have ______ flow

A

Low velocity, high resistance

917
Q

Fetal syndrome associated with microcephaly, occipital encephalocele, polydactyly, & polycystic kidneys

A

Meckel-Gruber Syndrome

918
Q

What causes a bladder outlet obstruction?

A

Posterior urethral valve

919
Q

Most common cause of hydronephrosis & most common form of fetal renal obstruction

A

UPJ obstruction

920
Q

Renal pelvis shouldn’t exceed ____ prior to 20 weeks

A

7 mm

921
Q

Way in which gene is inherited, both parents must be carriers

A

Autosomal recessive

922
Q

Disorder inherited by fetus, atleast 1 parent is a carrier

A

Autosomal dominant

923
Q

Membrane present during early embryonic development that contribute to bladder formation & development

A

Allantois

924
Q

Cyst found within umbilical cord

A

Allantoic cyst

925
Q

Does omphalocele or gastroschisis have a BETTER outcome?

A

Gastroschisis

926
Q

Most common fetal liver abnormality

A

Hepatomegaly

927
Q

_____ will most often lead to visualization of dilated fetal rectum

A

Anotectal atresia

928
Q

Herniation if abdominal contents thru a right sided periumbilical abdomen wall defect

A

Gastroschisis

929
Q

Fetal heart is fully formed by week ?

A

10 weeks

930
Q

Blood returning from the lungs thru the pulmonary veins enters into ?

A

Left atrium

931
Q

Normal opening in the lower third of atrial septum

A

Foramen ovale

932
Q

Most common heart defect

A

VSD

933
Q

Rhabdomyomas are associated with ?

A

Tuberous sclerosis

934
Q

Fetal lung maturity can be assessed by using ?

A

LS ratio

935
Q

_______ should be positioned anterior to sorta & should be seen crossing over it

A

Pulmonary artery

936
Q

Where is the mitral valve located ?

A

Between left ventricle & left atrium

937
Q

‘Bag wing’ sign is indicative of ?

A

Pleural effusion

938
Q

Lack of muscle in dome of diaphragm is called ?

A

Eventration of diaphragm

939
Q

Where is the tricuspid valve located ?

A

Between right ventricle & right atrium

940
Q

Separate mass of nonfunctional lung tissue

A

Pulmonary sequestration

941
Q

Most common cause of cardiac malposition

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

942
Q

The moderator band is located within the ?

A

Right ventricle

943
Q

Most common form of diaphragmatic hernia

A

Foramen of Bockdalek

944
Q

Fetal shunt that connects pulmonary artery to aortic arch

A

Ductus arteriosis

945
Q

Most common fetal cardiac tumor

A

Rhabdomyoma

946
Q

echogenic focus within heart can be associated with ?

A

Trisomy 21

947
Q

Echogenic cardiac focus is often seen within ?

A

Left ventricle

948
Q

Opening within the septum that desperate the right & left ventricle

A

VSD

949
Q

When does the trilaminar embryonic disc form ?

A

During gastrulation

950
Q

TTTS is specific to what kind of twins?

A

Monochorionic/Monozygotic

951
Q

Twin growth is similar to Singleton growth until about ?

A

30 weeks

952
Q

Twins resulting from fertilization of 1 single ovum

A

Monozygotic

953
Q

A molar pregnancy that’s considered invasive but doesn’t metastasize

A

Chorioadenoma destruens

954
Q

Normal CI

A

74 - 83 %

955
Q

A CI of 61% suggests ?

A

Dolicocephaly

956
Q

Cephalad means ?

A

Towards the top of the head

957
Q

Cerebellar measurements can be used to estimate gestational age but lose accuracy after ?

A

20 weeks

958
Q

Benign vascular tumor of placenta

A

Chorioangioma

959
Q

When the umbilical cord inserts at edge of placenta

A

Battledore/marginal

960
Q

Cephalic is AKA

A

Vertex

961
Q

Malformation or malpositioning of tricuspid valve results in ?

A

Ebstein anomaly

962
Q

Blood from the right ventricle can flow they the ductus arteriosis & into the _____

A

Descending aorta

963
Q

Blood is shunted directly into the IVC via a small branch of umbilical vein called ____

A

Ductus venosus

964
Q

Heart chamber closest to fetal spine

A

Left atrium

965
Q

The embryonic heart begins as _____ then turns into ______

A

Starts as 2 tubes

Turns into 4 chambers

966
Q

Anomaly in which the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle & aorta arises from the right ventricle

A

Transposition of great vessels

967
Q

Stage of conceptus that implants within decidualized endometrium

A

Blastocyst

968
Q

Most malignant form of gestational trophobladtic disease with possible mets to liver, lungs & vagina

A

Choriocarcinoma

969
Q

Breast cancer treatment drug that may alter US appearance of endometrium

A

Tamoxifen

970
Q

Most common cause if postmenopausal bleeding

A

Endometrial atrophy

971
Q

Most common for of endometrial carcinoma

A

Adenocarcinoma

972
Q

Colpocephaly is commonly associated with ?

A

Agenesis of corpus callosum

973
Q

A clover leaf skull is commonly associated with which skeletal dysplasia ?

A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

974
Q

Why is potter syndrome always lethal?

A

Bilateral renal agenesis & pulmonary hypoplasia

975
Q

If S/D ratio is greater than ______, IUGR is suspected

A

3

976
Q

The fetal structures within an omphalocele are protected by a membrane composed of ?

A

Amnion & peritoneum

977
Q

_______ occurs secondary to ectopic when fetus is too large to be absorbed. Also protects mom from infection
* calcified fetus

A

Lithopedion

978
Q

Mom feeling the baby move is called ?

A

Quickening

979
Q

Too long & too narrow head shape

A

Dolicocephaly

980
Q

Epiphyseal centers won’t be identified in US until after ?

A

30 weeks

981
Q

Calculating EDD by adding 9 months + 7 days to LMP is according to ?

A

Naegele’s rule

982
Q

CI is used to calculate ?

A

Head shape

983
Q

Formula used to calculate CI

A

BFD/OFD x 100

984
Q

Fetal lung maturity is best determined by ?

A

Amniocentesis

985
Q

A placenta with 2 equally sized lobes connected by vessels

A

Bipartite placenta

986
Q

A ring shaped placenta that attaches circumferentially to myometrium is called ?

A

Annular

987
Q

Accessory lobe placenta

A

Succenturiate

988
Q

What is likely to occur if placental implantation occurs close to a large fibroid ?

A

Placental abruption

989
Q

A pt with possible placenta previa who is actively bleeding should be scanned how ?

A

Perineally

990
Q

Normal angle of fetal heart

A

45 degrees to left of ML

991
Q

RVOT & LVOT show ?

A

Pulmonary artery & ascending aorta

992
Q

What provides important prognostic info about fetal renal functional ?

A

AFI @ 15 weeks

993
Q

Right ventricle can be identified by ?

A

Moderator band in lower part of ventricle

994
Q

If fluid filled stomach isn’t seen in LUQ, you should suspect ?

A

Esophageal atresia

995
Q

Lab tests used to evaluate for NTDs of Downs

A
  • quad screen
    -MSAFP
  • CVS
    _ amnioncentesis
996
Q

Fetal presentation refers to ?

A

Part of fetus expected to be delivered first

997
Q

Is the ulna or radius longer proximally?

A

Ulna

998
Q

Normal fetal renal growth

A

1 mm per week

999
Q

Distal femoral epiphysis is demonstrated sonographically @ ?

A

33-35 weeks

1000
Q

How is thoracic circumference measured ?

A

In true trans @ level of the heart

1001
Q

The great vessels form the ?

A

RVOT & LVOT

1002
Q

Approximately what percent of blood flows through the Forman ovale into the left atrium?

A

40%

1003
Q

Which view best demonstrates the diaphragm

A

Coronal

1004
Q

Echogenic foci in left ventricle is likely seen @ the level of ?

A

Chordae tendinae papillary muscle

1005
Q

Most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction

A

Posterior urethral valves

1006
Q

Bladder of a male fetus is sometimes enlarged because of ?

A

Posterior urethra valves

1007
Q

Fetal kidneys begin development as ?

A

Pronephroi

1008
Q

Fetal kidneys are fully developed by _____ - after metanephroi have descended into abdomen

A

Week 11

1009
Q

When do fetal kidneys begin to develop?

A

Beginning of week 6

1010
Q

Process in which 3 germ cell layers are formed is called ?

A

Gastrulation

1011
Q

When does trilaminar embryonic disc form?

A

During gastrulation

1012
Q

If a patient is 10 weeks & presents with pregnancy induced HTN, you suspect?

A

Hydatiform mole

1013
Q

What 2 procedure are used to treat an incompetent cervix?

A
  • McDonald procedure

- shirodkar cerclage

1014
Q

Approximately when does normal embryonic midgut herniation occur ?

A

8 weeks

1015
Q

Normal yolk sac diameter

A

2-6 mm

1016
Q

At what gestational age is 1/2 of endometrial canal occupied ?

A

8 weeks

1017
Q

Area located between arachnoid membrane & pia meter

A

Subarachnoid space

1018
Q

Dolicocephaly is AKA

A

Scaphocephaly

1019
Q

Normal CI

A

76-90%

1020
Q

Intracranial findings in spina bifida are secondary to ?

A

Arnold Chiari

1021
Q

Hormone responsible for final maturation of follicle & for ovulation is ?

A

LH

1022
Q

Most common pelvic mass encountered during pregnancy

A

Corpus luteum

1023
Q

A dilated fetal bladder with “keyhole” sign in male fetus is indicative of ?

A

PUV obstruction

1024
Q

Which stage of endometriosis involves ovaries

A

3

1025
Q

Most common fetal thoracic abnormality

A

Pleural effusion

1026
Q

If ore-implantation blastocyst splits during 1st week of gestation, it results in a ?

A

Dichorionic/Monoamniotic

1027
Q

Failure of forebrain to divide results in ?

A

Holoprosencephaly

1028
Q

_______ is non-lethal long bone dysplasia

A

Type I osteogenesis imperfecta

1029
Q

An ovarian sexcord stromal tumor found in Maddie aged women

A

Fibroma

1030
Q

Painful sex

A

Dyspareunia

1031
Q

Most severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

Alobar

1032
Q

What’re the 3 forms of holoprosencephaly

A
  • alobar
  • lobar
  • semilobar
1033
Q

Failed development of baby forebrain, cyclopia, fused thalami & proboscis are all associated with ____

A

Holoprosencephaly

1034
Q

Anasaraca, TTTS, umbilical vein thrombosis $ RH isoimmunization are all indications of _____

A

Fetal hydrops

1035
Q

_______ is connected to the IVC which is connected to the right atrium

A

Ductus venosus

1036
Q

In which vessels could blood flow he reversed in setting of tricuspid regurgitation ?

A

Ductus venosus

1037
Q

______ describes when an entire limb is shortened

A

Micromelia

1038
Q

Shortening of only the distal part of limb

A

Mesomelia

1039
Q

Rhizomelia is an abnormal shortening of which long bone ?

A

Humerus

1040
Q

Types of histopqthologic intracranial tumors

A
  • oligodendroglioma
  • sarcoma
  • glioblastoma
  • craniopharyngioma
1041
Q

Potter sequence is associated with ?

A

Oligohydramnios

1042
Q

An atrial septal defect in fetal heart may be difficult to diagnose because of the ?

A

Forman ovale

1043
Q

______ happens when the lateral embryonic mesoderm has failed to migrate medically to fuse in ML

A

Ectopic cordis

1044
Q

A congenital chest anomaly in which all or part of heart is located outside thoracic cavity

A

Ectopia cordis

1045
Q

Primary characteristics of Ebstein anomaly

A

Tricuspid valve is displaced inferiorly in right ventricle

1046
Q

Fetal pleural effusion is AKA

A

Hydrothorax

1047
Q

Another name for ASD

A

Endocardial cushion defect

1048
Q

_______ results from premature closure of coronal & lamboidal sutures

A

Cloverleaf skull

1049
Q

Cloverleaf skull is AKA

A

Kleeblattschadel

1050
Q

A skull shaped like a cloverleaf is mostly associated with ?

A

Thanatophoric dwarfism

1051
Q

Fetal skin edema is ?

A

Anasarca

1052
Q

_____ refers to bilateral renal agenesis

A

Classic potter sequence

1053
Q

Which umbilical cord anomaly is likely to cause death ?

A

Cord stricture (thrombus)

1054
Q

Maternal blood test that includes an analysis of hCG, afp, estriol & inhibin A

A

Quadruple screen

1055
Q

Protein produced by placenta

A

Pregnancy associated plasma protein A

1056
Q

Superior portion of cervix closest to isthmus

A

Internal os

1057
Q

Medical interventions that could be used to remove retained products of conception

A
  • D&C
  • D&E
  • labor induction
1058
Q

Ligament that housed the vasculature of uterus

A

Cardinal ligament

1059
Q

Pelvic bones, if seen, will appear ?

A

Hyperechoic

1060
Q

Bladder, uterus & ovaries are all located within ?

A

True pelvis

1061
Q

The peripheral arteries of the uterus are ?

A

Arcuate arteries

1062
Q

Uterine artery branches off the ?

A

Internal iliac

1063
Q

Long axis of uterus deviating left of ML

A

Levoverted uterus

1064
Q

Malignant manifestation of leiomyoma

A

Leiomyosarcoma

1065
Q

Benign, smooth muscle tumor or uterus

A

Leiomyoma

1066
Q

Fibroid located within myometrium

A

Intramural fibroid

1067
Q

Fibroid located within uterine cavity

A

Intracavitary fibroid

1068
Q

Surgical repair of uterine septum in a septate uterus using hysteroscopy

A

Hysteroscopic uterine septoplasty

1069
Q

Occlusion or imperforation of vagina

A

Vaginal atresia

1070
Q

Complete duplication of uterus, cervix & vagina

A

Uterus didelphys

1071
Q

Vaginal anomaly where the hymen has no opening, resulting in obstruction of vagina

A

Imperforate hymen

1072
Q

The ovary is supplied blood by the ?

A

Ovarian & uterine artery

1073
Q

Paired embryonic ducts that develop into female urogenital tract

A

Müllerian duct

1074
Q

Procedure used to block blood supply to a leiomyoma

A

Uterine artery embolization

1075
Q

First 4 weeks after birth is considered?

A

Neonatal

1076
Q

Late proliferative phase is also called ?

A

Periovulatory phase

1077
Q

The ovary produces ______, which influences the endometrium

A

Estrogen & progesterone

1078
Q

The hypothalamus releases _____, which influences the anterior pituitary gland

A

GnRH

1079
Q

Cells of follicles that produce estrogen

A

Theca internal cells

1080
Q

Coiled arteries that supply blood to the functional layer of endometrium

A

Spiral arteries

1081
Q

2nd phase of endometrial cycle

A

Secretory phase

1082
Q

1st phase of endometrial cycle

A

Proliferative phase

1083
Q

2nd phase of ovarian cycle

A

Luteal phase

1084
Q

1st phase of ovarian cycle

A

Follicular

1085
Q

Leukocytosis would most likely be associated with ?

A

PID

1086
Q

What Doppler artifact occurs when the sampling rate isn’t high enough to display Doppler shift frequency ?

A

Aliasing

1087
Q

Which artifact could be noted coming down from air or gas within the endometrium in a patient with endometritis

A

Ring-down

1088
Q

Malignant ovarian tumors that may leak mucinous material

A

Pseudomyoxoma peritonei

1089
Q

Which lab test would be most useful to evaluate a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?

A

Hematocrit

1090
Q

Which lab test may be used as a tumor marker for an ovarian dysgerminoma?

A

Lactate dehydrogenase

1091
Q

The “S” in STAR criteria stands for ?

A

Smooth walls

1092
Q

A decrease in hematocrit indicates ?

A

Bleeding

1093
Q

of kids carried to term

A

Para

1094
Q

of pregnancies

A

Gravida

1095
Q

A simple cyst can be described as ?

STAR

A
  • Smooth walls
  • good thru Transmission
  • Anechoic
  • Round
1096
Q

A breast cancer drug that inhibits effects of estrogen in breast

A

Tamoxifen

1097
Q

US frequency returning to the probe theatre generated by shifts in phase & frequency within tissue itself

A

Harmonic

1098
Q

The purpose of using spatio temporal imaging correlation (STIC)

A

Increase image quality

1099
Q

A fused thalamus is identified with which abnormalities?

A

Alobar & semilobar holoprosencephaly

1100
Q

If the liver is herniated into the thoracic cavity, fetal survival rate is significantly ?

A

Reduced

1101
Q

Pentalogy of Cantrell consists of?

A
  • sternum defect
  • diaphragmatic defect
  • omphalocele
  • intracardiac anomalies
  • ectopia cordis
1102
Q

Oligohydramnios is often associated with ?

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

1103
Q

Most common cause of pleural effusion is ?

A

Chylothorax

1104
Q

Foreshortening of all portions of the limb

A

Micromelia

1105
Q

Foreshortening of proximal long bone

A

Rhizomelia

1106
Q

Foreshortened distal limbs

A

Mesomelia

1107
Q

Most common anomaly of umbilical cord

A

Single umbilical artery

1108
Q

If you see hypoplastic left heart in a female fetus, what fetal syndrome should be suspected ?

A

Turner syndrome

1109
Q

Most common type of conjoined twin

A

Thoracopagus

1110
Q

Most common cause of death in lethal skeletal dysplasia

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia

1111
Q

Choroid plexus cysts are associated with which trisomy ?

A

18

1112
Q

What should be closely evaluated with Eagle Barrett Syndrome ?

AKA prune bell syndrome

A

Kidneys & bladder

1113
Q

Rounded head with cephalic index > 85%

A

Brachycephaly

1114
Q

Micrognathia is seen with ?

A

Polyhydramnios

1115
Q

Absence of hands

A

Acheira

1116
Q

Absence of foot or feet

A

Apodia

1117
Q

Absence of hands and feet

A

Acheiropodia

1118
Q

Most commonly reported intrauterine infection

A

Cytomegalovirus

1119
Q

Trisomy 21 is commonly seen with which heart defect?

A

AVSD

1120
Q

What Doppler information is necessary to calculate pulsatity index ?

A

Peak systolic velocity & end diastolic velocity

1121
Q

If a molar pregnancy is expected, which blood work would you pay attention to?

A

BhCG

1122
Q

Lithium isebfuting pregnancy is commonly associated with which heart anomaly?

A

Ebstein anomaly

1123
Q

If you were scanning for a neuroblastoma, what would you scan?

A

Adrenals

1124
Q

Postmenopausal ovaries shouldn’t exceed ?

A

2 cm or 8 cc

1125
Q

The neural tube closes by week ?

A

6

1126
Q

If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 3 o’clock then the fetus is ?

A

Vertex

1127
Q

If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 9 o’clock then the fetus is ?

A

Breech

1128
Q

IRP levels for transabdominal ultrasound ____ is the minimum bhCG for identifying an intrauterine pregnancy

A

4000

1129
Q

Shortening of thigh & upper arm bones

A

Rhizomelia

1130
Q

Best time to visualize an endometrial polyp

A

Just after menses in early proliferative phase when the endometrium is thinnest

1131
Q

Best way to measure FL

A

When the femur is closest to face of probe & beam is perpendicular to length of femur

1132
Q

The uterine artery is best visualized with PW Doppler & level of ?

A

Cervix

1133
Q

If arhinia is present, the fetus should be evaluated for which anomaly?

A

Proboscis

1134
Q

Which ratio is useful in diagnosing skeletal dysplasia ?

A

Femur/Foot

1135
Q

Where should placental thickness be measured ?

A

@ cord insert site

1136
Q

Which fetal karyotyping procedure will provide the quickest results?

A

Percuteaneous umbilical blood sampling. {PUBS}

1137
Q

What is performed to obtain a sample of trophoblastic tissue (chorion frondosum) for karyotyping ?

A

Chorionic Villus sampling {CVS}

1138
Q

How to calculate gestational age in days

A

CRL + 42

1139
Q

Organogenesis refers to development of the organs of the body and is completed by week ____

A

8

1140
Q

Cardiac activity can be seen is an embryo with a CRL of ____

A

5 mm @ 6 weeks

1141
Q

Embryo development stages

A

Zygote - cleavage - morula - blastocyst

1142
Q

Which hormone is responsible for symptoms of early pregnancy such as N&V ?

A

Progesterone

1143
Q

Outer lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening

A

Major labia

1144
Q

Inner lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening, smaller than labia major

A

Minor labia

1145
Q

Imaginary line connecting superior sacrum to symphysis pubis

A

Lines terminalis

1146
Q

Fatty prominence covering the symphysis pubis

A

Mons pubis

1147
Q

Highly innervated area that lies below the junction of labia majora

A

Clitoris

1148
Q

If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 3 o’clock then the fetus is ?

A

Vertex

1149
Q

If the spine is at 12 o’clock & the stomach is at 9 o’clock then the fetus is ?

A

Breech

1150
Q

IRP levels for transabdominal ultrasound ____ is the minimum bhCG for identifying an intrauterine pregnancy

A

4000

1151
Q

Shortening of thigh & upper arm bones

A

Rhizomelia

1152
Q

Best time to visualize an endometrial polyp

A

Just after menses in early proliferative phase when the endometrium is thinnest

1153
Q

Best way to measure FL

A

When the femur is closest to face of probe & beam is perpendicular to length of femur

1154
Q

The uterine artery is best visualized with PW Doppler & level of ?

A

Cervix

1155
Q

If arhinia is present, the fetus should be evaluated for which anomaly?

A

Proboscis

1156
Q

Which ratio is useful in diagnosing skeletal dysplasia ?

A

Femur/Foot

1157
Q

Where should placental thickness be measured ?

A

@ cord insert site

1158
Q

Which fetal karyotyping procedure will provide the quickest results?

A

Percuteaneous umbilical blood sampling. {PUBS}

1159
Q

What is performed to obtain a sample of trophoblastic tissue (chorion frondosum) for karyotyping ?

A

Chorionic Villus sampling {CVS}

1160
Q

How to calculate gestational age in days

A

CRL + 42

1161
Q

Organogenesis refers to development of the organs of the body and is completed by week ____

A

8

1162
Q

Cardiac activity can be seen is an embryo with a CRL of ____

A

5 mm @ 6 weeks

1163
Q

Embryo development stages

A

Zygote - cleavage - morula - blastocyst

1164
Q

Which hormone is responsible for symptoms of early pregnancy such as N&V ?

A

Progesterone

1165
Q

Outer lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening

A

Major labia

1166
Q

Inner lips or flaps of skin covering vaginal opening, smaller than labia major

A

Minor labia

1167
Q

Imaginary line connecting superior sacrum to symphysis pubis

A

Lines terminalis

1168
Q

Fatty prominence covering the symphysis pubis

A

Mons pubis

1169
Q

Highly innervated area that lies below the junction of labia majora

A

Clitoris

1170
Q

The connecting vessel from the main pulmonary trunk to the descending aorta found in fetal circulation

A

Ductus arteriosus

1171
Q

Cardia chmaber closest to chest wall

A

Right ventricle

1172
Q

Opening in base of skull where spinal cord exits

A

Foramen magnum

1173
Q

Mass that results from spina bifida that contains spinal cord & meninges

A

Myelomeningocele

1174
Q

Condition in which a cyst caused by intraparenchymal hemorrhage, communicated with lateral ventricles

A

Porencephaly

1175
Q

Innermost layer of meninges

A

Pia meter

1176
Q

Functional part of an organ

A

Parenchyma

1177
Q

Obstruction of CSF from a source WITHIN ventricular system

A

Noncommunicating hydrocephalus

1178
Q

Obstruction of CSF from a source OUTSIDE of ventricular system

A

Communicating hydrocephalus

1179
Q

Early embryonic structure that develops into central nervous system

A

Neural plate

1180
Q

Mass that results from spina bifida that contains spinal cord & meninges

A

Myelomeningocele

1181
Q

Having 1 large ventricle

A

Monoventricle

1182
Q

Having a small head

A

Microcephaly

1183
Q

Normal head shape

A

Mesocephalic

1184
Q

Herniation of cranial or spinal meninges because of an open spinal or cranial defect

A

Meningocele

1185
Q

Covering of brain & spinal cord

A

Meninges

1186
Q

Where is the ethmoid bone located?

A

Anterior - between orbits

1187
Q

Premature fusion of sutures

A

Craniosynostosis

1188
Q

AVM that occurs within fetal brain & is often associated with CHF

A

Vein of Galen aneurysm

1189
Q

Which trisomy is often associated with holoprosencephaly?

A

Trisomy 13

1190
Q

Which trisomy is workany Syndrome 2?

A

8

1191
Q

Fetus with 3 of every chromosome

A

Triploidy

1192
Q

What does TORCH stand for?

A
T - toxoplasmosis 
O - Other
R - rubella
C - cytomegalovirus 
H - herpes simplex
1193
Q

Most common lethal skeletal dysplasia characterized by cloverleaf skull with frontal bossing & hydrocephalus

A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

1194
Q

Brain structure that allows communication between senses

A

Thalamus

1195
Q

Flexible connective tissue that lies between cranial bones

A

Sutures

1196
Q

Typically with miscarriage, serum hCG levels will be ?

A

Decreased

1197
Q

What does DRIP stand for?

A

D - demise
R - renal anomalies
I - IUGR
P - PROM

1198
Q

Women 40+ have a higher chance of having which kind of twins ?

A

Dizygotic

1199
Q

Cyclopia is often associated with which trisomy?

A

Trisomy 13

1200
Q

Which percent of monozygotic twins will be monoamniotic ?

A

1-2%

1201
Q

Which percentage of dizygotic twins are dichorionic ?

A

100%

1202
Q

Which kind of twins of specific to TTTS?

A

Monozygotic

1203
Q

Which ratio is most sensitive to evaluate for asymmetric IUGR?

A

FL/AC

1204
Q

Fetal bradycardia is a HR less than ?

A

100 bpm

1205
Q

Orbital distance measurement would be most helpful for ?

A

Holoprosencephaly

1206
Q

Longest bone in forearm

A

Ulna

1207
Q

Rhogam is administered to mother during pregnancy to prevent ?

A

Eryhtroblastosis fetalis

1208
Q

Fallopian tubes extend from the ____ of the uterus

A

Cornua

1209
Q

Right ovarian vein drains into ?

A

IVC

1210
Q

Left ovarian vein drains into ?

A

Left renal vein

1211
Q

Skeletal anomaly associated with in-utero fractures

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta type II

1212
Q

Lack of ultrasound seeing cerebral hemispheres & cranium is diagnostic of ?

A

Anencephaly

1213
Q

Meigs syndrome includes ?

A
  • ovarian fibroma
  • ascites
  • pleural effusion
1214
Q

Functional cysts found in presence of elevated hCG levels

A

Theca lutein cysts

1215
Q

Amenorrhea, hirsutism, & obesity are clinical features of ?

A

Stein-leventhal Syndrome

1216
Q

PCOS is AKA

A

Stein-leventhal Syndrome

1217
Q

Permanent form of birth control seen as an echogenic, linear, structures within the lumen of bilateral ischemic portions of tubes

A

Essure devices

1218
Q

T shaped iud

A

Mirena

1219
Q

Most severe form of spina bifida

A

Spina aperta

1220
Q

Encephaloceles are usually found in which region?

A

Occipital

1221
Q

__________

  • associated with trisomy 13
  • cleft defects of face
  • absent corpus callosum
  • usually fatal
A

Alobar holoprosencephaly

1222
Q

______ is characterized by large monoventricle with fused thalami

A

Alobar holoprosencephaly

1223
Q

Least severe form of holoprosencephaly

A

Lobar

1224
Q

Bioeffect that results from compression and rarefaction of medium as an acoustic wave travels through

A

Cavitation

1225
Q

Only Doppler ultrasound morality that lermits the quantification of flow states with angle correction velocity measurement

A

Pulsed-wave spectral Doppler

1226
Q

Spectral Doppler measurement that provides best indicator of diastolic runoff into distal vascular bed

A

Pulsatility index

1227
Q

Best for demonstrating bony structures when in 3D

A

Maximum-intensity projections

1228
Q

Equally spaced, bright lenient echoes resulting from repeated reflections from speculation type interfaces

A

Reverberations

1229
Q

Math expression of Doppler effect

A

Fa = Fr - F1

1230
Q

Low frequency is associated with ?

A

Better special resolution

1231
Q

High frequency is associated with ?

A

Less penetration

1232
Q

Indicator of potential for thermal bio effects, or heating of tissue

A

Thermal index (TI)

1233
Q

Method of quantifying the potential for ultrasonic healing of human tissue is ?

A

Thermal index

1234
Q

Early diastolic flow reduction is describing ?

A

Diastolic notch

1235
Q

Ultrasound travels fastest thru ?

A

Bone

1236
Q

What does mechanical index (MI) measure ?

A

Negative acoustic pressure present in medium

1237
Q

Simplest & least technologically complicated method of displaying blood flow info

A

Continuous wave Doppler

1238
Q

Parameters of flow Doppler uses

A
  • absence
  • pulsatility
  • presence
  • direction
1239
Q

2 most common uses of 3D imaging

A
  • cardiology

- obgyn

1240
Q

Formula for RI

A

PSV - EDV divides by PSV

1241
Q

_____ is calculated for quantitive assessment of pelvic organs

A

RI

1242
Q

Doppler info is obtained from analyzing & displaying

A

Rayleigh backscatter

1243
Q

Soft tissue of fetal face Are well displayed using ?

A

Surface rendering

1244
Q

Spectral Doppler control that adjusts the number of heartbeats displayed on screen

A

Sweep speed

1245
Q

How to measure uterus

A

Aerosol surface of fundus to external os

1246
Q
  • look @ anatomy with oligohydramnios
  • test for PROM
  • shunt placement for bladder outlet

These would all be reasons to do a ____

A

Amniofusion

1247
Q

____ is when saline is introduced to uterine cavity

A

Amniofusion

1248
Q

Protein produced by yolk sac, gi tract, liver & can also be produced by some malignant tumors

A

AFP

1249
Q

Pseudoprecocious puberty has been linked to?

A

Ovarian, adrenal & liver tumors

1250
Q

True precocious puberty is associated with ______ or can be ideopathic?

A

Intracranial tumors

1251
Q

Largest part of uterus

A

Corpus

1252
Q

One of the most common mulleriN duct anomalies

A

Septate uterus

1253
Q

What could cause a newborn baby girls endometrium to be thickened?

A

Baby’s endometrium is being stimulated by moms hormones

1254
Q

Arteries that directly supply blood to functional layer of endometrium

A

Spiral arteries

1255
Q

The right ovarian artery branches off the ____

A

Aorta

1256
Q

Pelvic muscle group located between coccyx & pubis

A

Levator ani muscles

1257
Q

Pelvic muscles appear ?

A

Hypoechoic

1258
Q

Which vessels supply blood to the deepest layers of myometrium

A

Radial arteries

1259
Q

The true pelvis is delineated from the false pelvis by the ____

A

Linea terminalis

1260
Q

Innominate bones of the pelvis

A
  • ischium
  • ilium
  • pubic bones
1261
Q

Anterior cul de sac is aka

A

Vesicouterine pouch

1262
Q

The uterine arteries supply blood to the ?

A
  • Fallopian tubes
  • uterus
  • ovaries
1263
Q

Both the straight & the spiral arteries are branches of ?

A

Radial artery

1264
Q

What structure within the pelvis lies posterior to the bladder & anterior to the rectum

A

Uterus

1265
Q

Uterine radial arteries that supply blood to the basal layer of endometrium

A

Straight arteries

1266
Q

Tiny, coiled arteries that supply blood to the functional layer of endometrium

A

Spiral arteries

1267
Q

What all is tested in a triple screen ?

A
  • hCG
  • afp
  • estriol
1268
Q

Peptide hormone secreted by placenta

A

Inhibin A

1269
Q

Estrogenic hormone produced by placenta

A

Estriol

1270
Q

Which mass is considered androgenic?

A

Arrhenoblastoma

1271
Q

With Doppler, most malignant ovarian tumors that yield flow signals are ?

A

Low impedance

1272
Q

Postmenopausal endometrium shouldn’t measure more than ?

With hormones ?

A

5 mm

8 mm with hormones

1273
Q

_____ is when eggs are fertilized in a Petri dish & introduced to Fallopian tube

A

ZIFT

1274
Q

Lab value compared to ultrasound to see when ovary is ready to ovulate

A

Estradiol

1275
Q

Hormone in females that stimulates cervical mucus production

A

Estrogen

1276
Q

Hormone used to trigger ovulation

A

HCG

1277
Q

Which ovarian tumor would cause preprecocious puberty

A

Granulosa cell tumor

1278
Q

Most likely cause of hematometra

A

Imperforate hymen

1279
Q

Most common cause of gonadal dysplasia

A

Turner syndrome

1280
Q

Female pseudohemaphtoditism is most often caused by?

A

Adrenal hyperplasia

1281
Q

Fertilization usually occurs how many hours after ovulation?

A

24-36 hours

1282
Q

For TV, 2nd IS should be greater than it equal to ?

A

1000

1283
Q

For TV, FIRP should be greater than it equal to ?

A

2000

1284
Q

How does the 2nd internal standard for bhCG compare to the 1st FIRP ?

A

2nd is 1/2 of FIRP

1285
Q

Ovulation usually occurs when a follicle reaches ?

A

2.5 cm

1286
Q

The ureter & iliac vessels located posterior to the ?

A

Ovaries

1287
Q

Muscles most frequently mistaken for enlarged ovaries

A

Piriformis

1288
Q

Where are iliac vessels located to the ovaries

A

Lateral

1289
Q

Doppler waveforms of uterine artery

A

High velocity, high resistance

1290
Q

Floor of the pelvis is formed by the ?

A

Levator ani muscles

1291
Q

Normal cervical length in a nulliparous patient?

A

2-3 cm

1292
Q

Another word for the serosa layer of the uterus

A

Perimetrium

1293
Q

Using the 2md standard for bhCG levels should allow you to see a normal iup transabdominally at ?

A

1800

1294
Q

Hypogastric artery is aka

A

Internal iliac artery

1295
Q

Excessive & prolonged bleeding at irregular intervals

A

Menometrorrhagia

1296
Q

You should be able to see a normal gestational sac transabdominally when 1st IRP (FIRP) level for bhCG is equal to or greater than ?

A

3600 mIu/ml

1297
Q

Fertilization usually occurs in the ?

A

Ampulla

1298
Q

Levator ani muscles are seen in transverse at the same level as the ?

A

Vagina

1299
Q

What area should be looked at on Doppler on uterine artery?

A

Lateral to cervix near internal os

1300
Q

During ovulation, a dominant follicle can grow at a rate of ?

A

2-3 mm per day

1301
Q

Hormone responsible for pms & early pregnancy

A

Progesterone

1302
Q

FSH is produced by the ?

A

Pituitary gland

1303
Q

Endometrial proliferation is stimulated by ?

A

Estrogen

1304
Q

Biochemical measurement used to assess risk for chromosomal defects

A

Pappa-preg associated plasma protein

1305
Q

Right after the ovum is fertilized? It’s a ___

A

Zygote

1306
Q

Satisfactory TV probe cleansers

A
  • cidex
  • transeptic
  • sporiciden
  • bleach
1307
Q

When should peristalsis of fetal bowel usually be seen ?

A

Late in 2nd trimester

1308
Q

At what point does AFI stop riding and plateaus then declines until birth

A

Approximately 33 weeks

1309
Q

Lateral bone of forearm if in anatomical position

A

Radius

1310
Q

Most anterior heart chamber

A

Right ventricle

1311
Q

Most posterior heart chamber

A

Left atrium

1312
Q

Normal direction of flow through the foramen ovale

A

Right atrium to left atrium

1313
Q

Fetal testicle normally descend into the scrotum between ____ & ____ weeks

A

26-34

1314
Q

Most common type of twins

A

Dizygotic

1315
Q

< 2 mm thick membrane between 2 fetuses indicates _____ twins ?

A

Monochorionic

1316
Q

What is the choroid plexus responsible for ?

A

Production of CSF

1317
Q

If a normal cranium isn’t identified by the end of week _____, cranial anomalies should be suspected

A

15th week

1318
Q

The post parturition period usually last how long?

A

6-8 weeks

1319
Q

The corpus callosum is completely formed by week ____

A

18

1320
Q

Ratio of kidney diameter to abdominal diameter should stay between _____ for the entire pregnancy

A

0.23-0.27

1321
Q

Which 2 muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?

A

Levator ani & coccygeus

1322
Q

LH is produced by the ?

A

Pituitary gland

1323
Q

Which early embryonic structures produce progesterone?

A

Trophoblastic cells

1324
Q

Most common occurring germ cell tumor

A

Benign cystic teratoma

1325
Q

Most common complication of a germ cell tumor of ovary

A

Torsion

1326
Q

Which ovarian tumor contains both epithelial and stromal components

A

Cystadenofibroma

1327
Q

Preeclampsia is the first trimester is most commonly associated with ?

A

Molar pregnancy

1328
Q

The formation of bilateral solid ovarian neoplasms is highly suspicious for ?

A

Krukenberg tumors

1329
Q

What cardiac defect is most common in Ellis van Creveld syndrome?

A

ASD

1330
Q

Which pedal anomaly is commonly associated with trisomy 13 & 18 ?

A

Rocker bottom foot

1331
Q

Absence of hands

A

Acheira

1332
Q

Absence of foot or feet

A

Apodia

1333
Q

Absence of hands & feet

A

Acheiropodia

1334
Q

Colpocephaly is commonly associated with ?

A

Agenesis of corpus callosum

1335
Q

Esophageal atresia is a significant indication of which trisomy?

A

18

1336
Q

AV canal defect is the combination of ?

A

Ostium primum ASD and inlet VSD

1337
Q

An asymmetric facial cleft is commonly caused by ?

A

Amniotic band sequence

1338
Q

Obstruction of the ica that leads to cerebral tissue destruction is referring to ?

A

Hydranencephaly

1339
Q

Most common abnormality if umbilical cord

A

Single artery

1340
Q

Which renal disorder is fatal soon after birth?

A

Autosomal recessive PCKD

1341
Q

Most common type of conjoined twins

A

Thoracopagus

1342
Q

Which skeletal anomaly usually occurs as an isolated finding?

A

Talipes equinovarus

1343
Q

A mother presents with a history of heterozygous achondroplasia. The father doesn’t share this characteristic. What is the chance that their fetus will have the same skeletal dysplasia?

A

50%

1344
Q

Chiari II malformation is strongly associated with ?

A

Open spina bifida

1345
Q

What is the placenta like with triploidy?

A

> 4 cm thickness

1346
Q

Meninges & brain tissue herniation thru a bony defect in the calvarium

A

Encephalocele

1347
Q

Absent CSP & septo-optic dysplasia and common findings seen with ?

A

Holoprosencephaly & schizencephaly

1348
Q

A cystic hygrometer contains?

A

Lymphatic fluid

1349
Q

Which trisomy is associated with choroid plexus cysts?

A

18

1350
Q

Which type of osteogenesis imperfecta has the poorest prognosis?

A

Type 2

1351
Q

Hirschsprung disease would most likely be associated with ?

A

Multiple dilated loops of bowel

1352
Q

Pedal anomaly associated with spina bifida

A

Talipes (clubfoot)

1353
Q

A fetus with male genetalia & ovaries

A

46 xx

1354
Q

A fetus with female genetalia & testes

A

46 xy

1355
Q

A trident hand is commonly seen with which skeletal anomaly?

A

Heterozygous achondroplasia