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Flexcurrent 135 Ground School Study Cards > OLD Recurrent 135 Ground School Study Cards > Flashcards

OLD Recurrent 135 Ground School Study Cards Flashcards

1
Q
  1. After ditching in water, passengers and crewmembers should wait to inflate their life vests until they have exited the aircraft.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 8-17

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2
Q
  1. An inflatable vest is required for each occupant aboard the aircraft. If there are only 6 vests the aircraft is limited to carrying no more than 2 crew and 4 passengers beyond 50 miles from the nearest shore.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

LR45 MEL 25-60-02

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3
Q
  1. The weather at the time of departure is 800/2; therefore an APG analysis is required.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

APG is always required for all company flights.

FOM 4.9.7.1

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4
Q
  1. An Acceleration Height or Obstacle Clearance Altitude is a part of every APG Special Departure Procedure and must be briefed.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.7.6.2

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5
Q
  1. You are going to depart Aspen airport (KASE) via runway 33. The weather is 500 and 2 and you have been assigned the LINDZ departure. Where do you look to determine if you can make the 7.67% climb gradient required by the DP:

a. iPreflight.
b. On the APG Runway Analysis.
c. AFM Derived All-engines Operating
d. The APG Climb Limit column.

A

c. AFM Derived All-engines Operating

FOM 4.9.7.5

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6
Q
  1. The Climb Limit column on the right side of an APG Runway Analysis provides a weight that:

a. Is the maximum weight at which you can make the required APG climb to ensure obstacle
clearance with all engines running.
b. Is the maximum weight that will allow
compliance with the obstacle clearance
requirements of Part 135.379.
c. Is the maximum weight that will allow
compliance with the climb gradient required for the DP or SID that underlies the APG SOP.
d. Is the maximum weight the aircraft can take off, with one engine inoperative, and meet FAR 25 certification climb requirements.

A

d. Is the maximum weight the aircraft can take off, with one engine inoperative, and meet FAR 25 certification climb requirements.

CFM
Performance p.15

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7
Q
  1. Unless otherwise stated in the Special Departure
    Procedure, pilots should make all APG turns in half bank.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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8
Q
  1. You must take the anti/de-Ice weight penalty for any departure during which you are planning to turn on the engine anti-ice protection system prior to take off.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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9
Q
  1. Aircrews must determine that brake energy limitations will not be exceeded for every take off.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.6.1

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10
Q
  1. The use of on board anti/de-ice equipment may reduce overall aircraft performance:

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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11
Q
  1. One acceptable method for determining aircraft performance and obstacle clearance
    data is:

a. a Jeppesen flight plan.
b. SID climb requirements.
c. APG data.

A

c. APG data.

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12
Q
  1. If contaminated runway data exists (approved or non-approved) for the aircraft, it will be used to determine required runway for departure and landing on contaminated runways.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.6.1

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13
Q
  1. Crews are authorized to accept and fly RNAV Q Routes.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Ops Specs B035

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14
Q
  1. Prior to accepting a clearance for an RNAV (GPS) approach using GPS as the primary navigation source, crews must verify that approach RAIM is available.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.11.5

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15
Q
  1. When cleared for an RNAV departure, crews must ensure that the following is correctly loaded in the FMS prior to beginning the take-off roll:

a. The current version of the cleared RNAV procedure, the take-off runway and the assigned transition.
b. The current version of the cleared RNAV procedure, the assigned transition and the initial altitude if assigned.
c. The version of the cleared RNAV procedure available from your FMS, the
departure runway from the ATIS and the assigned transition.
d. The current version of the cleared RNAV procedure, the runway assigned when you called for taxi and the assigned transition.

A

a. The current version of the cleared RNAV procedure, the take-off runway and the assigned transition.

FOM 4.11.5

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16
Q
  1. With APPR mode selected and on final approach during an RNAV or GPS approach, without an SBAS receiver that uses WAAS, the course indicator will reach full deflection if off course by:

a. 0.5 NM.
b. 0.2 NM.
c. 0.3 NM.
d. 1.0 NM.

A

c. 0.3 NM.

AIM 1-1-29

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17
Q
  1. The Missed Approach Waypoint (MAP), is normally a “Fly Over” waypoint.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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18
Q
  1. While examining the RNAV or GPS approach chart during preparation for the approach briefing, you notice a bold font V shown on the approach course profile view. With regard to this notation you should:

a. Ignore it, as we are not authorized to fly to VNAV minimums.
b. Brief it, as it represents a calculated VDP, which is part of our approach briefing.
c. Ignore it, since it stands for Visual Descent Point, and we are not planning a visual approach.
d. Note it, but there is no need to plan for or brief a VDP, it is just recommended technique in some cases.

A

b. Brief it, as it represents a calculated VDP, which part of our approach briefing.

FOM 4.13.2

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19
Q
  1. When flying RNAV departure or arrival procedures the use of bank limiting modes such as half bank are not recommended.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.13.l

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20
Q
  1. In which document(s) will you find the requirements for Alternate Airport IFR weather minimums?

a. On the Instrument Approach Procedure
b. Op Specs C079
c. Ground Deicing Program Manual
d. Op Specs C055

A

d. Op Specs C055

Op Specs C055

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21
Q
  1. Government charts (NACO) are only authorized for training purposes. Jeppesen charts that are provided on the EFBs must be used for all passenger carrying
    operations.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.8.7

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22
Q
  1. When are you prohibited from accepting a “line up and wait” clearance?

a. At night with visibility less than 1 mile and the departure runway is being used only for
departures.
b. A line up and wait clearance is not authorized
c. Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile, and the departure runway is being used for arrivals.
d. At TEB when departing off of runway 24.

A

c. Night or day with visibility less than 1 mile, and the departure runway is being used for arrivals.

FOM 4.10.14

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23
Q
  1. Pilots are authorized to depart VFR and pick up an IFR clearance en route as long as:

a. VFR cloud clearances can be maintained.
b. an IFR clearance is obtained within 50nm.
c. it is not otherwise possible to obtain an IFR clearance.
d. All the above.

A

d. All the above.

FOM 4.11.3

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24
Q
  1. Visual approaches at night are only authorized at airports that are served by:

a. A VASI/PAPI or a precision approach.
b. Weather reporting.
c. An Instrument approach with Category D circling minimums, or there is a company exception published for that airport in the Special Use Airport - Appendix 3 FOM 4.1.3.12.3
d. A control tower.

A

c. An Instrument approach with Category D circling minimums, or there is a company exception published for that airport in the Special Use Airport - Appendix 3

FOM 4.l3.12.3

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25
Q
  1. Restrictions for airports listed in the Special Use Operations/Airports Appendix are:

a. restricted to Day Only unless there is an exception for that airport.
b. dry Only unless there is an exception for that airport.
c. VMC Only unless there is an exception for that airport.
d. specifically stated for each listed airport, Under the Night Operations, Weather Minimums for
IAP and Other Restrictions columns.

A

d. specifically stated for each listed airport, Under the Night Operations, Weather Minimums for
IAP and Other Restrictions columns.

Appendix 3

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26
Q
  1. Whenever the autopilot is engaged the PF must
    verbalize changes to the Flight Director Panel.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.7.3

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27
Q
  1. While conducting a visual approach to a runway that is served by a precision Instrument Approach
    Procedure (IAP), it is required that the crew will have that approach tuned and displayed on the navigation unit and shall use the navigation information to
    correctly identify the intended airport and runway.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.13.12.3

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28
Q
  1. Pilots are authorized to conduct contact approaches.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.13.14

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29
Q
  1. What is the lowest minimum visibility that we are authorized to use for takeoff, when RVR is not available?

a. 1 nm
b. 1 sm
c. ¼ sm
d. ¼ nm

A

c. 1/4 sm

Ops Specs C079

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30
Q
  1. What is the lowest RVR minimum that we are authorized to use for takeoff, when RVR is available?

a. 500 RVR
b. 600 RVR
c. 1600 RVR
d. 1800 RVR

A

b. 600 RVR

Ops Specs C079

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31
Q
  1. Which document(s) contain information regarding operations during ground icing conditions?

a. FOM Section 7
b. Op Spec A041
c. CFM
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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32
Q
  1. Where is authorization to conduct operations in RVSM airspace found?

a. D085
b. B046
c. A041
d. C055

A

b. B046

Op Specs B046

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following instrument approach procedure is NOT authorized?

a. LDA PRM DME
b. RNAV (GPS)
c. RNAV (GPS) PRM
d. RNAV (RNP)

A

d. RNAV (RNP)

Ops Specs C052

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34
Q
  1. What is the lowest IFR landing visibility or RVR value authorized for use?

a. 2400 RVR
b. l/2 SM
c. 1800 RVR
d. 4500 RVR

A

c. 1800 RVR

Ops Specs C052

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35
Q
  1. As part of the post de-icing inspection, the crew must verify that which of the following items are free of frozen contaminants?

a. The engine inlets and inlet protection devices
b. The ramp area under the aircraft
c. Aircraft critical surfaces
d. Both A and C are correct.

A

d. Both A and C are correct.

FOM 7.3.7

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36
Q
  1. When determining the minimum weather to be used for an alternate airport, we may apply the weather minimums that are published on the Instrument approach procedure in the FOR FILING AS AN ALTERNATE section.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

Ops Specs C055 FOM 7.2.4

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37
Q
  1. A visual pre-takeoff contamination conducted when:

a. operations are conducted with visibility less than 2 SM.
b. ground icing conditions exist, and hold over time has been exceeded.
c. ground icing conditions exist, and you have used a Type IV anti ice fluid.
d. ground icing conditions exist.

A

d. ground icing conditions exist.

FOM 7.3.11

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38
Q
  1. A tactile pre-takeoff contamination check will be conducted:

a. during preflight when ground icing conditions exist.
b. after deicing and/or anti-icing.
c. before takeoff with freezing drizzle or light freezing rain.
d. before takeoff when the crew is unable to determine that aircraft surfaces are free from contamination using a visual check.
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

FOM 7.3.11

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39
Q
  1. When conducting operations in ground icing conditions, holdover timetables are only required to be referenced if using a Type IV anti-ice solution.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 7.3.9

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40
Q
  1. You have determined that a tactile pre-takeoff contamination check must be conducted. When must the check be completed?

a. Any time before takeoff.
b. Within 10 minutes prior to takeoff.
c. Prior to taxi.
d. Within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.

A

d. Within 5 minutes prior to takeoff.

FOM 7.3.6

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41
Q
  1. Winter operations information is found in which source document(s)?

a. FOM section 8
b. FOM section 9
c. FOM section 4
d. FOM section 7

A

d. FOM section 7

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42
Q
  1. What type(s) of de-icing/anti-icing fluids are authorized for use?

a. Type I and IV
b. Type II and IV
c. Type I, II, and IV
d. Type I, II, III and IV

A

d. Type I, II, III and IV

FOM 7.3.5-6

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43
Q
  1. What can be said about Type I and Type IV de-ice/anti-ice fluids?

a. Type I is a de-ice fluid, is applied hot, and has limited anti-ice characteristics.
b. Anti-icing fluids should be applied in a uniform layer and in sufficient quantity until it starts to flow off the aircraft surfaces.
c. Hold over times for Type IV anti-ice fluid are normally longer than for Type I de-ice fluid.
d. All of the above statements are true.

A

d. All of the above statements are true.

FOM 7.6.3.1-3

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44
Q
  1. We are prohibited from departing during ground icing conditions, if our holdover time (HOT) has been exceeded.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 7.3.9

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45
Q
  1. When does holdover time begin?

a. At the end of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.
b. At the beginning of the first application of de­
ice/anti-ice fluid.
c. At the beginning of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.
d. None of the above.

A

c. At the beginning of the final application of de-ice/anti-ice fluid.
FOM 7.3.

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46
Q
  1. It is acceptable to polish frost smooth using something such as a rag or paper prior to departure.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 7.3.3

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47
Q
  1. When conducting a night arrival into KEGE, crews may only use runway 25, and must use the LDA/DME RWY 25 approach. The glideslope and PAPI must be operational.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM Appendix 3-9

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48
Q
  1. A high minimums PIC may not use lower than standard takeoff minimums authorized in C079.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Ops Specs C079

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49
Q
  1. METAR KCLE 3117512 27011G20KT 1SM SN OVC002 -01/-03 A2992 What is the intensity of the snowfall according to the Holdover Tables?

a. Very Light
b. Light
c. Moderate
d. Heavy

A

b. Light

HOT Table 7

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50
Q
  1. METAR KCLE 3117512 27011G20KT ISM SN OVC002 -01/-03 A2992. What is your anticipated holdover time if you use Type I de-ice fluid?

a. 0:18-0:22
b. 0:08-0:14
c. 0:11-0:18
d. 0:06-0:11

A

c. 0:11-0:18

HOT Table 1A

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51
Q
  1. To validate the holdover times of a Type I de-ice fluid, what is the minimum required temperature of the fluid during application?

a. 120 degrees F
b. 140 degrees F
c. 180 degrees F
d. 212 degrees F

A

b. 140 degrees F

HOT Table 9

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52
Q
  1. For destination airport planning, a grooved/porous runway can be considered effectively dry when the forecast for precipitation at the ETA is less than moderate.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 7.5.2

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53
Q
  1. The published climb gradients that are listed on SIDs, DPs, and ODPs must be met with one engine inoperative (OEI).

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.9.7.1-5

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54
Q
  1. When a filed flight plan has been amended within 30 minutes of scheduled departure time by either Flight Planning or the flight crew, it is the flight crew’s responsibility to advise ATC/FSS of the possibility of two flight plans on file. When a change has occurred within 30 minutes of scheduled departure, the flight crew must request a full route
    clearance from ATC/FSS.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.17

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55
Q
  1. If ATC issues an instruction that is contrary to a TCAS RA, you must comply with ATC’s instructions.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.12.5

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56
Q
  1. When conducting a visual approach, the multi-function display (MFD), if available, should be continuously adjusted to the lowest scale which allows the destination airport to remain visible.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.13.12.3

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57
Q
  1. A runway that is grooved or has porous friction overlay is considered to be dry, even when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 7.5.1

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58
Q
  1. What is the minimum length of available runway necessary for land and hold short operations (LAHSO)?

a. 5500
b. The minimum runway length required in the aircraft CFM
c. When the hold short point is near the end of a very long runway
d. Land and hold short operations are never allowed

A

d. Land and hold short operations are never allowed

FOM 4.13.15

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59
Q
  1. A runway that has significant areas of standing water on more than 25% of the required length and width being used is considered to be:

a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Contaminated
d. Unusable

A

c. Contaminated

FOM 7.5.1

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60
Q
  1. The use of DAAP is allowed only if the airport has an operational electronic or visual glide slope indicator, i.e. ILS, or VASI/PAPI. However, certain exemptions may be granted.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.10.2

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61
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions precludes the use of DAAP?

a. Light turbulence is reported on final approach.
b. Winds are reported as 10 knots gusting to 15 knots.
c. The runway has loose snow.
d. The runway is wet.

A

b. Winds are reported as 10 knots gusting to 15 knots.

FOM 4.9.10.2

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62
Q
  1. Pilots may file to and depart for an airport that has no weather reporting. What are the limitations?

a. The weather at the intended destination must be at least 1000/3.
b. The airport must have an operational control tower.
c. You must file an alternate airport that has a weather reporting facility
d. You must first contact the FODM on duty.

A

c. You must file an alternate airport that has a weather reporting

FOM 4.9.10.1

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63
Q
  1. Who has the primary responsibility for entering changes to the FMS during flight operations?

a. The Pilot Monitoring (PM).
b. Whoever it is more convenient for.
c. The Pilot Flying (PF).
d. It is at the discretion of the PIC.

A

a. The Pilot Monitoring (PM)

FOM 4.7.3

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64
Q
  1. Which is “FALSE” with regard to crossing a runway, either active or non-active?

a. The anti]collision light must be turned on.
b. Both pilots must hear and understand the taxi clearance and verbally agree before crossing any hold short line.
c. Pilots must program a departure runway change into the FMS.
d. Checklists and FBO communications may be accomplished during runway
crossing.

A

d. Checklists and FBO communications may be accomplished during runway
crossing.

FOM 4.10.6

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65
Q
  1. When using a marshaler/wing walker, what is the minimum distance we must maintain from an obstacle/aircraft?

a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 15 feet.
d. Just use caution when being marshaled in by the line personnel.

A

a. 5 feet.

FOM 4.10.5.2

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66
Q
  1. When NOT using a marshaler/wing walker, what is the minimum distance we must maintain from an obstacle/aircraft?

a. 5 feet.
b. 10 feet.
c. 15 feet.
d. 20 feet.

A

b. 10 feet.

FOM 4.10.5.2

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67
Q
  1. When conducing Eligible on Demand operations, an SIC with less than 100 hours in type may make the landing when:

a. Visibility is less than ¾ of a mile.
b. Braking action is less than good.
c. Crosswind component is greater than 10 knots but less than 15 knots.
d. Wind shear is reported at the airport.

A

c. Crosswind component is greater than 10 knots but less than 15 knots

FOM 4.2.2

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68
Q
  1. Hazardous materials may not be accepted for transport on company aircraft but there are certain exceptions.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.18.15

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69
Q
  1. Which of the following are permitted to be carried aboard Company aircraft as long as they are carried on one’s person?

a. strike anywhere matches.
b. lighters containing unabsorbed liquid fuel.
c. lighter fluid.
d. safety matches and one lighter for personal use.

A

d. safety matches and one lighter for personal use.

DG/HM Appendix D 175.10 p.1

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70
Q
  1. A small medical or clinical mercury thermometer for personal use, when in protective cases may be carried passengers or crew members.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

DG/HM Appendix D 175.10 p.2

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71
Q
  1. A maximum of _____ pounds dry ice per person may be carried in the cabin area.

a. 3
b. 4.4
c. 5.5
d. enough to keep perishables fresh

A

c. 5.5

DG/HM Appendix D p.2

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72
Q
  1. Electric wheelchairs may be accepted for transport. What limitation(s) exist if the battery is considered to be spill]able?

a. The battery must be disconnected and terminals must be insulated.
b. If the battery is removed, it must be stored in a strong container.
c. The packaging must be labeled with a CORROSIVE label, marked to indicate proper orientation, and marked with the words, “Battery, wet, with wheelchair.”
d. All of the answers are correct.

A

d. All of the answers are correct.

DG/HM Appendix Dp.4

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73
Q
  1. Oxygen for medical use by passengers is allowed under specific conditions. Which statement regarding the carriage of oxygen is TRUE?

a. The number of cylinders required for the duration of the flight plus no more than one cylinder at destination per passenger needing the oxygen, may be transported in the cabin of the aircraft.
b. Because it is considered “for medical purposes, liquid oxygen may be carried on Company aircraft.
c. Recreational or flavored oxygen may be carried in containers of less than 20 ounces.
d. Passenger provided oxygen tanks may never be carried onboard company
aircraft. Only approved portable oxygen concentrators (POCs) may be carried.

A

d. Passenger provided oxygen tanks may never be carried onboard company
aircraft. Only approved portable oxygen concentrators (POCs) may be carried.

FOM 4.9.18.14

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74
Q
  1. A current copy of the hazmat manual shall be available on board each aircraft in electronic or paper format. Where do crewmembers find this information onboard the aircraft?

a. In the Aircraft Flight Manual.
b. In the Aviation Documents Fleet Library.
c. In the quick reference handbook (QRH).
d. Flight crew members do not have access to the hazmat manual while on the flight deck and should carry a hard copy in their flight bag.

A

b. In the Aviation Documents Fleet Library.

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75
Q
  1. Small arms ammunition for personal use carried by a crewmember or passenger in his baggage, excluding carry-on baggage, is approved if securely packed in boxes or other packaging specifically designed to carry small amounts of ammunition.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

DG/HM Appendix D p.2

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76
Q
  1. Curling irons containing a hydrocarbon gas (example: butane), no more than one per passenger or crewmember, may be carried aboard company aircraft provided that the safety cover is securely fitted over the heating element. Gas refills for such curlers are not permitted in checked or carry-on baggage.

a. False, butane is listed on the most current DOT chart, and therefore, may not be carried.
b. False, butane curling irons are no longer being produced.
c. True
d. False, curling irons are not approved

A

c. True

DG/HM Appendix D p2

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77
Q
  1. One self-defense spray, not exceeding 4 fluid ounces by volume that incorporates a positive means to prevent accidental discharge, may be carried in checked baggage only.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

DG/HM Appendix D p.2

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78
Q
  1. Electrically powered heat-producing articles (e.g., battery-operated equipment such as diving lamps and soldering equipment) are only permitted in carry-on baggage as long as the heat-producing component, or the energy source, is removed so as to prevent unintentional functioning during transport.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

DG/HM Appendix D p.3

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79
Q
  1. Flights under Part 91 will be conducted to the same standards as Part 135 operations except where noted in the FOM. Exceptions include:

a. Passenger ID checks are not required.
b. Part 91 oxygen requirements apply
c. Direct communication with an air/ground communication facility per Ops Spec C077 is not required
d. Part 91 runway landing limitations (60%, 80%) do not apply
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

FOM 4.9.2

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80
Q
  1. Which flights do M Specs apply to?

a. Part 91K
b. Part 91
c. Part 135
d. All flights

A

a. Part 91K

MA001

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81
Q
  1. EODO authority allows crews to:

a. use DAAP.
b. file to and begin an approach to an airport that does not report weather.
c. use a faxed copy of an ID.
d. Both A and B are correct.

A

d. Both A and B are correct.

FOM 4.9.3

82
Q
  1. Section 4 of the FOM addresses policies and procedures regarding operational control

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM Section 3

83
Q
  1. Winter operations guidance is located in FOM Section 7.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

84
Q
  1. Operations Specifications authorize crews to conduct certain operations, while the Flight Operations Manual gives an expanded description of our operations.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

85
Q
  1. Trips may be conducted under FAR Part 91 for the purposes of:

a. Administration
b. Maintenance
c. Repositioning
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

FOM 3.1

86
Q
  1. Crews are required to turn their aircraft’s anti-collision lights on while taxiing across a runway.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.10.6

87
Q
  1. A pre-departure briefing or “AWARE” brief is required prior to engine start.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.15

88
Q
  1. The pre-departure brief acronym AWARE stands for:

a. Aircraft, weather, airport, route and extras
b. Aircraft, weather, arrival, runway and extras
c. Airport, weather, arrival, route and extras
d. Airport, weather, aircraft, runway and emergency exits

A

a. Aircraft, Weather, Airport, Route and Extras

FOM 4.9.15

89
Q
  1. A category “C” MEL must be repaired within 10 days from the date the discrepancy is recorded.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 5.3.3

90
Q
  1. Using DAAP for pre-flight planning, the aircraft’s thrust reversers (if installed) and antiskid braking devices must be working properly if the destination runway is considered “WET”.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.10.2

91
Q
  1. Company crews may not consider DAAP in their pre-flight planning when the destination runway is contaminated.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.9.10.2

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is required just prior to boarding the aircraft?

a. Final walk-around the aircraft
b. Verify fuel additive was delivered
c. Pre taxi brief
d. Approach brief

A

a. Final walk-around the aircraft

FOM 4.9.20

93
Q
  1. Crews must be task free when crossing a runway.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.10.6

94
Q
  1. When operating a trip into Canada, a minimum of 2 hours (no more than 48 hour) notice is required to inform Canadian Customs of your ETA.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

IOM 5.2.1.4

95
Q
  1. PICs are required to contact maintenance control to confirm the status of the aircraft prior to the first flight on the specific tail number.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 5.1.2

96
Q
  1. If a crew decides to change the fuel order that is recommended on the flight plan by more than ____ pounds, flight planning must be informed via email or telephone.

a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
d. 400

A

b. 200

FOM 4.9.11.1.7

97
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable gust factor for all flight operations according to the FOM?

a. 15 kts.
b. 20 kts.
c. 25 kts.
d. 30 kts.

A

b. 20 kts.

FOM 4.13.7

98
Q
  1. Freezing rain is particularly dangerous and indicates the real potential for severe icing because:

a. The typical raindrop is 100 times larger than a typical cloud droplet.
b. The typical raindrop is the same size of the cloud droplet encountered if experiencing rime ice.
c. “Freezing rain is only dangerous if you have the flaps extended as if approaching to land.”
d. Hail is likely to be present.

A

a. The typical raindrop is 100 times larger than a typical cloud droplet.

99
Q
  1. This type of fog is commonly found along the western coast of the United States. It requires a light wind for its formation.

a. Radiation fog.
b. Advection fog.
c. Upslope fog.
d. Precipitation fog.

A

b. Advection fog.

100
Q
  1. What type of fog occurs when an air mass passes over an area of gradually increasing elevation?

a. Advection fog
b. Radiation Fog
c. Upslope Fog
d. Precipitation Fog

A

c. Upslope Fog

101
Q
  1. What stage of a thunderstorm would crews most likely encounter hail, heavy rain, frequent lightning, strong winds, and tornadoes?

a. Dissipating stage
b. Cumulus stage
c. Mature stage
d. Developing Stage

A

c. Mature stage

102
Q
  1. What are some of the causes of wind shear?

a. Unstable Air
b. Temperature Inversions
c. Convective Activity
d. All of the answers are correct

A

d. All of the answers are correct

AC-00-54 Pilot Windshear Guide

103
Q
  1. At high altitudes, clear air turbulence related to the jet stream is usually strongest

a. On the leading, dissipating edge of the jet stream
b. On either edge of the jet stream
c. On the equatorial side of the jet stream
d. On the polar side of the jet stream.

A

d. On the polar side of the jet stream.

AC-00-30C, 6.4

104
Q
  1. When using standard average weights to calculate weight and balance, the PIC will use:

a. 199 lbs for adult males and 178 lbs for females if pax load is a one to one ratio of each.
b. 184 lbs in summer months for adult males and females if pax loading is a one to one ratio of each.
c. 189 lbs for adult males and 178 lbs for adult females and no more than 30 lbs per pax bag.
d. The weight of a child up to three years of age is factored in the standard average adult weight.

A

b. 184 lbs in summer months for adult males and females if pax loading is a one to one ratio of each.

FOM 4.9.12.3

105
Q
  1. The visual glide path of a VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus _____ of the extended runway centerline and _____ to/from the runway threshold.

a. 15 degrees/5 NM
b. 10 degrees/4 NM
c. 25 degrees/5 SM
d. VASI provides safe obstruction clearance from anywhere the glide path is discernable.

A

b. 10 degrees/4 NM

AIM 2-1-2 (a)(4)

106
Q
  1. Select the statement that is true regarding operations in RVSM airspace:

a. Aircraft must have two independent operational primary altimetry systems (ADCs).
b. Aircraft must have an operational altitude alerter.
c. Aircraft must have an operational autopilot with altitude hold and the aircraft must have an operational SSR altitude reporting transponder
d. All are correct.

A

d. All are correct.

FAR 91, Appendix G or Ops Specs B046

107
Q
  1. Crew members may carry a tire/wheel set for the maintenance department provided the tire is not over inflated.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Hazmat Manual B (2)( d)

108
Q
  1. You receive a 10-in-24 warning letting you know that your schedule for today is forecast to put you at 9.6 hours of flying. During your first leg of the day, due to circumstances outside of your control, it becomes apparent that you will exceed 10 hours of flying. According to our FOM you are legal to complete your flights?
    a. The crew can legally complete the remaining flights provided the series of flights contributing to the 10-in-24 warning was realistically planned and the extended flight time is beyond the control of the company or crew and the crew will require the rest as stated by regulation.
    b. A flight crew may never exceed a 10-in-24 warning under any circumstance.
    c. The crew can legally complete the remaining flights provided the series of flights contributing to the 10-in-24 warning was unrealistically planned to be completed within 10 hours.
A

a. The crew can legally complete the remaining flights provided the series of flights contributing to the 10-in-24 warning was realistically planned and the extended flight time is beyond the control of the company or crew and the crew will require the rest as stated by regulation.

FOM 4.4.9

109
Q
  1. If using DAAP, the intended runway for landing may not be wet.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.9.10.2

110
Q
  1. The passengers arrive for their Part 135 trip and one of them has an expired driver’s license and no other form of ID.

a. You may not carry this person under any circumstances.
b. The scheduler can waive this requirement
c. You can call the Safety department and in very rare instances get a waiver for the passenger.
d. As long as the ID has not been expired for more than 90 days it is still acceptable.

A

a. You may not carry this person under any circumstances.

111
Q
  1. While preparing for a flight, a maintenance discrepancy is found. Maintenance is notified and the item is deferred under the MEL but the WOG still shows a Maintenance Alert. Which statement below is most accurate?

a. You may depart as long as scheduling tells you it is ok.
b. You may depart as long as Maintenance Duty Manager sends you the required email stating that you are cleared to depart.
c. You cannot depart.
d. You can depart as long as the FODM sends you an email saying all items have been cleared.

A

b. You may depart as long as Maintenance Duty Manager sends you the required email stating that you are cleared to depart.

FOM 5.1.4

112
Q
  1. Who has operational control on a Part 91K flight?

a. All tasks associated with exercising operational control on a program flight are delegated by the owner to the air carrier.
b. The air carrier and share owner are jointly and individually responsible
c. Any passenger on board the aircraft
d. Both A and B are correct.

A

b. The air carrier and share owner are jointly and individually responsible.

FOM 5.1.4

113
Q
  1. According to the FAR’s, above what altitude is a pilot required to wear his oxygen mask if the other pilot leaves the duty station on a Part 135 flight?

a. 25,000
b. 35,000
c. 41,000
d. 45,000

A

a. 25,000

FAR 135.89 (b)(4)

114
Q
  1. Passengers must present a picture ID on a Part 91K trip.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False FOM 4.9.2

115
Q
  1. The circadian low period is defined by the hours of ___to ___ based on the local time zone where a crewmember’s duty day begins.

a. 1200 to 0400
b. 0100 to 0300
c. 0130 to 0400
d. 0200 to 0430

A

c. 0130 to 0400 FOM 4.4.5

116
Q
  1. The Company defines levels of automation with which of the following terms?

a. Manual, Shared, and Auto-flight
b. Level I, II, III, and IV
c. CAMI
d. Autopilot on, Autopilot off

A

a. Manual, Shared, and Auto-flight FOM 4.7.2

117
Q
  1. Crewmembers will not accept a flight assignment within ___ hours of donating blood.

a. 24
b. 36
c. 72
d. 144

A

c. 72 FOM 4.3.7

118
Q
  1. For preflight planning calculations a runway may be considered effectively dry if:

a. the runway is grooved or treated with a porous pavement, and the weather at the planned time of arrival indicates less than moderate rain.
b. the runway is well soaked but without significant areas of standing water.
c. more than 25 percent of the runway surface area is covered by standing water.
d. there is no forecast for rain.

A

a. the runway is grooved or treated with a porous pavement and the weather at the planned time of arrival indicates less than moderate rain.

FOM 7.5.1

119
Q
  1. Engine starts and the before taxi checklists may be completed by a single pilot (during a passenger briefing).

a. False
b. At the discretion of the PIC
c. at the discretion of either crew member
d. If the line personnel says it is OK

A

b. At the discretion of the PIC FOM 4.10.4

120
Q
  1. For all taxi operations, which following statement is true:

a. The pilots will have the airport diagram out and available during the taxi.
b. The taxi route should be well understood prior to taxi, all hold short points identified, and any hot spots located.
c. Both pilots must be task free when crossing runways
d. All the above are true

A

d. All the above are true FOM 4.10.6

121
Q
  1. The standard TERPS IFR climb gradient is:

a. 200 feet per nautical mile or 3.3%
b. 2.1% net
c. 1.6% net
d. 152 feet per nautical mile or 2.4%

A

a. 200 feet per nautical mile or 3.3% FOM 4.9.7.3

122
Q
  1. Non-essential communication is prohibited during the following defined critical phases of flight.

a. All ground operation involving taxi, takeoff or landing, and any flight operations below 10,000 feet AGL except normal cruise flight, and within 1,000 feet of leveloff altitude during climb or descent.
b. Any flight operations below 10,000 feet AGL, and within 1,000 feet of level-off altitude during climb or descent.
c. All ground operations.
d. All operations below 25,000 feet.

A

a. All ground operation involving taxi, takeoff or landing, and any flight operations below 10,000 feet AGL except normal cruise flight, and within 1,000 feet of leveloff altitude during climb or descent.

FOM 4.6.2

123
Q
  1. Prior to takeoff, the flight crew will confirm that the altitude selector is set to the assigned:

a. altitude received in the ATC clearance.
b. final level off on the departure assigned. Any intermediate level off must be briefed prior to departure.
c. the first intermediate level-off altitude that exists as a part of a departure or climb clearance.
d. Both A and C are correct.

A

d. Both A and C are correct.

FOM 4.10.9

124
Q
  1. When it is not possible for the flight crew to obtain an IFR clearance to depart on an IFR flight plan, VFR departures are authorized, but subject to the provisions of Op Spec…

a. C077
b. C055
c. A041
d. B036

A

a. C077

Op Specs C077 (d)

125
Q
  1. Acceptance of any IFR departure clearance requires compliance with the minimum TERPS (Terminal Instrument Procedures) climb gradient requirements with:

a. One-engine inoperative to the MEA, MOCA, or other minimum IFR altitude.
b. All engines operating.
c. All engines operating with gear down.
d. One-engine inoperative with takeoff flap setting.

A

b. All engines operating.

FOM 4.9.6.2

126
Q
  1. For IFR departures, if ATC does not specify a departure procedure in the clearance prior to takeoff, a flight crew must comply with the departure procedure established by the FAA for the airport and runway to be used.

a. True, use of this procedure will provide obstacle clearance.
b. False, the see and avoid option is available.
c. False, no specification of a departure procedure implies that the crew is cleared to the first filed waypoint.
d. True, the Op Specs authorize this technique in C055.

A

a. True, use of this procedure will provide obstacle clearance.

127
Q
  1. In the approach chart you note that the missed approach point is a star surrounded by a circle. This icon indicates that the MAP is a:

a. fly-over waypoint
b. fly-by waypoint
c. visual point on the approach
d. VOR

A

a. fly-over waypoint

128
Q
  1. What does the acronym CAMI stand for?

a. Confirm, Activate, Monitor, Intervene
b. Catch, Activate, Manage, Interact
c. Confirm, Accept, Manage, Intervene
d. Capture, Accept, Monitor, Interact

A

a. Confirm, Activate, Monitor, Intervene

FOM 4.7.3

129
Q
  1. How long does a crew have to file an ASAP report?

a. 24 hours from the end of the duty day in which the event occurred
b. 36 hours from the time of the event
c. 72 hours from the time of the event
d. there is no time limitation

A

a. 24 hours from the end of the duty day in which the event occurred

ASAP Guidebook, E

130
Q
  1. When are you required to do a manual obstacle analysis?

a. When an obstacle may impede the emergency briefing plan
b. When an obstacle on the departure path cannot be avoided laterally
c. When departing VMC and see and avoid operations are planned
d. All are correct

A

d. All are correct

131
Q
  1. Which statement below is NOT a Company fundamental principle?

a. Fanatical attention to detail
b. Long term approach to relationships
c. Employees are the foundation to a service company
d. The Company is a no-carry HAZMAT operator

A

d. The Company is a no-carry HAZMAT operator

Crewmember Handbook

132
Q
  1. If a mechanical anomaly occurs prior to takeoff, the crew should:

a. Refer to section 5 of the FOM and facilitate the “Discrepancies Discovered Before Takeoff” procedures
b. Return to the ramp
c. Continue the flight
d. Ignore the item and hope it goes away

A

a. Refer to section 5 of the FOM and facilitate the “Discrepancies Discovered Before Takeoff” procedures

FOM 5.2.1

133
Q
  1. When preparing the aircraft for a live leg, which of the following statements regarding the crewmembers proper actions is FALSE:

a. Sit in the lead passenger’s seat and view the cabin from the passenger’s perspective
b. Ensure all stock is full and located per the stocking guide
c. View all areas between the seats and side wall, recline the seats to look for trash, ensure all lights and tables are working properly, and check the lav and other storage areas to ensure they are clean.
d. Review the cockpit to ensure it is clean. Leave the rest for the ground crew.

A

d. Review the cockpit to ensure it is clean. Leave the rest for the ground crew.

134
Q
  1. Which document may be referenced for international operations?

a. International Operations Manual
b. Oceanic Orientation Chart
c. Oceanic Flight Folder
d. All of the Above

A

d. All of the Above

135
Q
  1. If you see a “C” in a black diamond next to the circling minimums on a Jeppesen approach chart, it means:

a. Circling is not approved
b. All maneuvers must land on a specific preferred runway
c. Expanded circling area for TERPS obstacle protection is applied.
d. Circling approaches are only approved for Category C aircraft

A

c. Expanded circling area for TERPS obstacle protection is applied.

Jepp Manual

136
Q
  1. The Maintenance Resolution process can be initiated by:

a. The PIC
b. Maintenance Duty Manager
c. Flight Department Manager
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

FOM 5.6

137
Q
  1. Which of the following may the crew NOT connect to the onboard Wi-Fi and use during a flight?

a. Company issued iPad
b. Personal electronic device(s)
c. Company issued iPhone
d. Answers A and C

A

b. Personal electronic device(s)

FOM 4.19.18.16

138
Q
  1. Crews are authorized to conduct RNAV (GPS) PRM approaches.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Ops Spec C052, Table 1

139
Q
  1. Pilots may use weather from which of the following approved sources?

a. The National Weather Services for those United States and its territories located outside of the 48 contiguous States
b. U.S. and North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) military observing and forecasting sources
c. A meteorological station, or automated observation weather product,
authorized by an ICAO member State.
d. All of the above may be used

A

d. All of the above may be used

Ops Spec AO10

140
Q
  1. If an aircraft is light and Vref will be within a lower approach category, the crew may fly to the minimums of that approach category.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

141
Q
  1. An approach that becomes unstabilized inside the 500 foot window requires an immediate go-around unless:

a. The PIC has more than 100 hours in type.
b. The deviations are small and momentary in airspeed, sink rate, glide path and course and only require minor corrections.
c. The pilot flying feels that the outcome is never in doubt.

A

d. There are no exceptions.

FOM 4.13.8

142
Q
  1. One of the SIC’s duties is to assume control of the aircraft as necessary to avoid a dangerous situation.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 2.7.18

143
Q
  1. The emergency briefing acronym TEST stands for:

a. Train for success, Execute your plan, Survive, Time before rescue
b. Type of emergency, Evacuation Plan, Signals, Time before touchdown
c. Tell ATC, Estimate landing site, Send for help, Try to communicate
d. Tell Passengers, Estimate time till landing, Speed to minimum, Touchdown smoothly

A

b. Type of emergency, Evacuation Plan, Signals, Time before touchdown

FOM 8.3.4

144
Q
  1. If the passengers are more than _____ minutes late, advise Scheduling.

a. 10
b. 15
c. 30
d. 45

A

b. 15

145
Q
  1. The Company authorizes an aircraft to be taxied with only one crew member in their seat with seat belts fastened while the other crew member is dealing with passengers.

a. This is acceptable if one or all passengers require additional time during the brief.
b. This is acceptable because one crew member may be assisting passenger with drinks and/or catering.
c. This is not acceptable. Both pilots should be seated with belts fastened. One crew member then can begin to taxi while the other programs the FMS.
d. This is never acceptable. The aircraft will not be taxied until both crewmembers are in their seats with seat belts fastened, and the appropriate checklists have been complete.

A

d. This is never acceptable. The aircraft will not be taxied until both crewmembers are in their seats with seat belts fastened, and the appropriate checklists have been complete.

FOM 4.10.4

146
Q
  1. During the course of a tour one crew member becomes ill and requires
    a visit to an Emergency Room and/or hospitalization. Should this occur the other crewmember will:

a. remain at the hotel or FBO and await further duty instructions.
b. accompany that crewmember to the hospital.
c. take this opportunity to clean the aircraft and make sure it’s stocked for the next live leg.
d. use this time to complete any required online training.

A

b. accompany that crewmember to the hospital.

FOM 4.3.2

147
Q
  1. No individual shall consume alcohol while on duty or within ____ hours prior to the end of a “required rest” period or “extended rest” period.

a. 8
b. 12
c. 10
d. 24

A

a. 8

FOM 4.3.4

148
Q
  1. Section ___ of the FOM provides information on Flight Operations.

a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 8

A

c. 4

149
Q
  1. Rest/Rest Period is a period of time free of all responsibility for work or duty and which the pilot or flight attendant cannot be required to receive contact from the company.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.4.1

150
Q
  1. With regard to fatigue:

a. a crewmember needs to use the methods discussed in class to overcome his/her fatigue such as conversation, caffeine, etc..
b. a crewmember has a duty to decline any assigned flight when they cannot safely operate a flight due to fatigue.
c. a crewmember should only take one more flight assignment when feeling tired.
d. a crewmember should manage assigned rest periods to not become fatigued.

A

b. a crewmember has a duty to decline any assigned flight when they cannot safely operate a flight due to fatigue.

FOM 4.4.4

151
Q
  1. Trip times in the WOG may differ from actual flight plan times because passenger trips are scheduled in the WOG based on Boeing 85% probability annual wind aloft data while flight plans calculate times based on short term forecast conditions.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.4.7

152
Q
  1. After landing, checklists shall not be started until:

a. the aircraft has slowed on the landing roll to below 65 kias.
b. the thrust reversers have been stowed by the pilot flying.
c. the aircraft has cleared the active runway.
d. the aircraft is stopped on the runway.

A

c. the aircraft has cleared the active runway.

FOM 4.13.16

153
Q
  1. Should the PM (Pilot Monitoring) call out a flight deviation or condition to the PF (Pilot Flying) and there is no response after the ___ challenge, the PM shall verbally announce that he/she is assuming control of the aircraft and take the necessary action to correct the deviation to ensure the safety of the aircraft.

a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth

A

b. second

FOM 4.6.5.2

154
Q
  1. Required briefings among crewmembers include:

a. Safety, Taxi, Takeoff, Arrival
b. AWARE, Pre-Taxi, Takeoff, Approach
c. Coffee, Breakfast, Lunch, Dinner
d. AWARE, Pre-Taxi, Pre Departure, Landing

A

b. AWARE, Pre-Taxi, Takeoff, Approach

FOM 4.6.6

155
Q
  1. The practice of loading the flight plan route prior to picking up the ATC clearance is:

a. discouraged.
b. encouraged because it helps the crew get ahead.
c. encouraged but should never be placed in the primary FMS.
d. encouraged because you can review fixes along the route.

A

a. discouraged.

FOM 4.7.1

156
Q
  1. VFR charts are required onboard an aircraft:

a. always.
b. only when VFR operations are going to exercised.
c. never because we have IFR charts.
d. never because we do not operate VFR.

A

b. only when VFR operations are going to exercised.

FOM 4.8. 7

157
Q
  1. Minimum dispatch battery power available (at block out) as indicated on the iPad is____%. If below ____ % on either iPad, paper approach charts must be printed before flight.

a. 25 25
b. 30 25
c. 30 30
d. 50 25

A

b. 30 25

FOM 4.8.23.2

158
Q
  1. A runway is contaminated when more than ____% of the runway surface area (whether isolated areas or not) within the required length and width being used is covered by standing water, snow (dry or wet), loose snow, compacted snow, slush or ice (including wet ice).

a. 50
b. 25
c. 10
d. 35

A

b. 25

FOM Contaminated Data, p 2

159
Q
  1. Any items secured to the seat cannot exceed the floor loading limitations and it cannot obstruct the emergency exit or aisle.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

FOM 4.9.12.1

160
Q
  1. Crewmembers are authorized to use MDA as a DH during a non-precision approach.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

Ops Spec C073

161
Q
  1. During an operation conducted under FAR 135, who has unlimited operational control?

a. The customer or designated Lead Passenger
b. The FAA
c. Only those persons so listed in the Operations Specifications
d. Dispatch

A

c. Only those persons so listed in the Operations Specifications

FOM 3.2.1

162
Q
  1. GPS approaches are authorized by Operations Specifications C-52 as ”Approaches with Vertical Guidance”. This means that the approach may be conducted:

a. To the LPV minimums, if aircraft is approved for WAAS approaches
b. Both A and D are correct
c. To the LNAV minimums only but, the VNAV function of the autopilot may be utilized, if available
d. To LNAV/VNAV minimums

A

b. Both A and D are correct

Ops Spec C052

163
Q
  1. IFR may only be cancelled at an uncontrolled airport:

a. When asked to do so by ATC to expedite another departure from the airport
b. When the aircraft is within 50 miles of the airport
c. IFR must be maintained until clear of the landing runway
d. When visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained

A

d. When visual reference with the landing surface is established and can be maintained

FOM 4.13.12

164
Q
  1. You’re at an airport with an operable ASOS that is reporting a visibility of ¼ statute miles. The airport has medium intensity runway lights and no visible centerline stripes. At this airport, you may:

a. Not takeoff
b. Takeoff only if you are provided with other visual references that will adequately allow you to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control
c. Only takeoff with the delegated approval of flight control
d. Takeoff only with a localizer on the runway to be used that will allow the aircraft to maintain runway centerline during the takeoff roll

A

b. Takeoff only if you are provided with other visual references that will adequately allow you to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional control

Ops Spec C079

165
Q
  1. You’re at an airport that has only one functioning RVR transmissometer on the runway to be used. That transmissometer is reporting 700 RVR. You may:

a. Takeoff since it is above the Company minimums of 600 RVR
b. Takeoff only if other visual references are available to identify the takeoff surface
c. Takeoff if you can get a pilot report that is better than the official report
d. Not takeoff since at least two RVR reports would be required

A

d. Not takeoff since at least two RVR reports would be required

C079

166
Q
  1. The Company has been designated an ”Eligible On-Demand Operator.” This means that during FAR 135 operations:

a. May begin an instrument approach to an airport that does not have approved weather reporting
b. For the destination airport, may utilize the 80% rule when a destination airport analysis has been completed
c. Both A and B are correct
d. None of the above

A

c. Both A and B are correct

FOM 4.9.10

167
Q
  1. With regard to DAAP operations, a first officer who has logged fewer than 100 hours in their assigned aircraft type shall not conduct any takeoffs or landings under the following conditions:

a. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
b. When braking action is reported to be less than “Good” for the runway
c. When the runway has contamination which may adversely affect aircraft
performance
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

FOM 4.9.10.2

168
Q
  1. When planning a duty day, any duty over 14 hours must:

a. Be part of a Planned Duty Day Extension to which everyone involved must agree and be conducted under FAR 91 only
b. Be approved in advance by the Principal Operations Inspector or his designee
c. Be absolutely necessary
d. All planned duty days are limited to 14 hours regardless of circumstances

A

a. Be part of a Planned Duty Day Extension to which everyone involved must agree and be conducted under FAR 91 only

169
Q
  1. What section of the FOM addresses operational differences?

a. Section 4
b. Appendix 1
c. Section 8
d. Appendix 2

A

b. Appendix 1

170
Q
  1. Should a crewmember need to be removed from duty due to fatigue, that crewmember shall:

a. Advise the OCC as soon as possible to have their schedule adjusted
b. Contact the Chief Pilot within 24 hours to discuss the circumstances of the fatigue related schedule adjustment
c. Submit an “Incident” or “ASAP” report within 24 hours
d. All of the above

A

a. Advise the OCC as soon as possible to have their schedule adjusted

FOM 4.4.4

171
Q
  1. If an aircraft discrepancy has been entered onto the Form 501 by the flight crew and the crew determines that the entry was in error or requires modification:

a. The crewmember my draw a line through the entire text affected. Initial and date next to the stricken text. Rewrite the entry as required
b. The PIC, Maintenance Control, and Company management must all agree to the correction before it may be modified

A

a. The crewmember my draw a line through the entire text affected. Initial and date next to the stricken text. Rewrite the entry as required

FOM 5.2.4.1

172
Q
  1. At least one crewmember, at the controls, must wear, secured and sealed an O2 mask above what pressure altitude under FAR 135?

a. 41,000
b. 35,000
c. 25,000, any time one crewmember has left a duty station
d. Both B and C are correct

A

d. Both B and C are correct

FAR 135.89 (b)(3)-(4)

173
Q
  1. What indications are given that the crew is allowed to perform an (M) procedure listed in the MEL?

a. The crew is never allowed to perform (M) procedures
b. The “Flight Crew Deferral Item” column indicates “YES”. MEL Procedures Section
c. Crewmembers may only perform (M) procedures if approved by Flexjet
management in advance
d. Crewmembers may only perform (M) procedures if approved by the FAA in
writing

A

b. The “Flight Crew Deferral Item” column indicates “YES”. MEL Procedures Section

MEL Procedures Section MEL, Maintenance Procedures, p. 14

174
Q
  1. A rejected takeoff is any action by the pilot that prevents a normal takeoff once the Aircraft has been cleared into position for takeoff. If this occurs:

a. The PIC must submit an incident report to the Company within 24 hours
b. The event will be reported to the OCC Supervisor or Dispatcher as soon as possible.
c. No action is required
d. Both A and B.

A

d. Both A and B.

FOM 8.4.1 and 8.4.1.1

175
Q
  1. Advanced Passenger Information System (APIS) reports must be filed for each flight:

a. At least 60 minutes prior to departure for all inbound/outbound flights to/from the United States
b. At least 72 hours prior to departure for inbound/outbound flights to/from the United States
c. Only for flights designated as “threat locations” by the Department of Homeland Security
d. None of the above

A

a. At least 60 minutes prior to departure for all inbound/outbound flights to/from the United States

Flexjet International Operational Procedures Manual

Appendix M, M-6, B

176
Q
  1. A full preflight briefing shall be given to the passengers on an FAR 135 trip:

a. Prior to each takeoff for passengers who indicate that they are unfamiliar with the safety briefing
b. On the first flight of each day
c. Prior to each takeoff with no exceptions
d. For any passenger who has not flown within the preceding 90 days

A

c. Prior to each takeoff with no exceptions

Appendix 2 2.3.3.4

177
Q
  1. What announcements must be made to passengers on an FAR 135 trip?

a. “Prepare for takeoff”
b. “Be seated with seat belts fastened” - in the event of turbulence
c. “Prepare the cabin for landing” - approximately 10 minutes from landing
d. All of the above are correct.

A

d. All of the above are correct.

Appendix 2, A 2.4.1

178
Q
  1. To reduce the possibility of an inadvertent runway incursion:

a. Both pilots will monitor ground communications
b. Both pilots shall visually check and, when clear, state “Clear left” or “Clear right” prior to crossing active runways
c. Pilot will utilize a “progressive taxi” at all controlled airports
d. Both A and B are correct.

A

d. Both A and B are correct.

FOM 4.10.6

179
Q
  1. The flight crew shall maintain ___________ for all flight operations conducted
    __________.

a. A professional environment / with passengers aboard
b. Sterile cockpit / below 10,000’ (AFL)
c. Sterile cockpit / only during takeoff and landing
d. Absolute silence / below 10,000’ (AFL)

A

b. Sterile cockpit / below 10,000’ (AFL)

180
Q
  1. A “Land and Hold Short” clearance can only be accepted if the flight crew can assure ATC that the aircraft can be stopped well short of the point specified.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

FOM 4.6.2

181
Q
  1. During the last 1000’ of an approach the VSI should not exceed ________ fpm to be considered a “stabilized approach”.

a. 500
b. 1000
c. 1500
d. 2000

A

b. 1000

FOM 4.3.18

182
Q
  1. You are on an approach to airport with a reported temperature of
    - 20 deg C. Which of the following statements would best describe the effect this temperature will have on the operation?

a. The low temp will have no appreciable effect on this operation
b. The low temp will cause an altimetry error resulting in the aircraft being significantly lower than indicated altitude
c. The low temp will cause an altimetry error resulting in the aircraft being significantly higher than indicated altitude
d. None of the above

A

b. The low temp will cause an altimetry error resulting in the aircraft being significantly lower than indicated altitude

LR75 AFM, p 51, Cold Weather Altimitry

183
Q
  1. During ground operations conducive to the formation of ice on the aircraft, which of the following statements is true?

a. The aircraft must be free of all frozen contaminants adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces before takeoff.
b. Always increase rotation speeds to account for the increase in stall speed with ice on the wings.
c. Always make sure that there is approximately the same amount of ice on each wing.
d. Make sure to move the controls forcefully during taxi to break loose any ice that might be binding them.

A

a. The aircraft must be free of all frozen contaminants adhering to the wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces before takeoff.

FOM 7.3.3

184
Q
  1. Regardless of the ”Holdover Times”, a pre-takeoff contamination check must be accomplished within _________ before takeoff.

a. 10 minutes
b. Just before
c. 5 minutes
d. 2 minutes

A

c. 5 minutes

FOM 7.3.1

185
Q
  1. You are at an airport that currently has moderate snow falling with an outside temp of -1 deg C. Wind speed is approximately 10kts. Your aircraft was in the hangar overnight and was treated with SAE Type II Fluid (75/25 mix) prior to being pulled out of the hangar.
    What is the holdover time guideline for these conditions?

a. 22 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 1 hour and 35 minutes

A

a. 22 minutes

HOT, p 14

186
Q
  1. You are given a braking action report of ”NIL” from a G-IV that landed just prior to starting your approach. Upon receiving that report you must:

a. Not takeoff or land on a runway that is reporting ”nil” breaking action from a reliable and timely breaking action report.
b. Exercise extreme caution upon touchdown.
c. Avoid using the brakes, as they will be ineffective.
d. Ensure that you are using the longest available runway.

A

a. Not takeoff or land on a runway that is reporting ”nil” breaking action from a reliable and timely breaking action report.

FOM 7.6.1

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding anti-icing holdover time (HOT)?

a. Holdover times are revised every year and are included in a separate folder under ”Fleet” tab in Aviation Documents (AvDocs)
b. HOT’s are advisory only. A pre-takeoff contamination check must be
accomplished within 5 minutes of takeoff whenever operating in ground icing conditions
c. Both statements A and B are true

A

c. Both statements A and B are true

188
Q
  1. The color of a “flammable liquid” label is:

a. Red
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Green

A

a. Red

DG/HM Training & Operations Manual

189
Q
  1. After an accident, is it permissible to move or damage an aircraft’s parts or records?

a. No
b. Not unless you are one of the crewmembers
c. Yes, but only if it is necessary to assist persons injured or trapped
d. Only at the direction of the Chief Pilot

A

c. Yes, but only if it is necessary to assist persons injured or trapped

FOM 8.2.1

190
Q
  1. All reports of an incident or accident to the FAA or NTSB will be made:

a. Immediately, directly to the FAA by the Pilot in Command
b. As soon as practicable
c. As soon as possible, through the Chief Safety Officer
d. None of the above

A

c. As soon as possible, through the Chief Safety Officer

FOM 8.4.2 and 8.4.3

191
Q
  1. On flights along routes utilizing Long Range Navigation Systems as the primary source of navigation, how many “Master Documents” will be kept by the crew?

a. Each crewmember is responsible for their own Master Document so that they may be compared to each other
b. The Master Document is kept by Dispatch
c. Three. One for each crewmember plus one to be turned into the company
d. Only one Master Document may be used

A

d. Only one Master Document may be used

International Ops Manual 2.1.1.1

192
Q
  1. Prior to entering oceanic airspace, the oceanic clearance should be crosschecked with the Flight plan and waypoints loaded in the FMS to verify accuracy.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

International Ops Manual 2.3.2

193
Q
  1. You are flying eastbound from Wilmington, DE to Bermuda at FL390, not in radar contact. You request a weather deviation north of course for a thunderstorm. If an amended clearance cannot be obtained from ATC, you should:

a. Deviate around the weather without advising ATC
b. Advise ATC, and deviate to the north. When 10 from original track, descend to FL387
c. Same as statement “b”, but descend to FL380
d. None of the above

A

b. Advise ATC, and deviate to the north. When 10 from original track, descend to FL387

194
Q
  1. Required equipment for operating in RVSM airspace includes:

a. An automatic altitude control system and altitude alerter system
b. Two independent altimeter systems
c. One altitude reporting transponder
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

FAR 91, Appendix G

195
Q
  1. IOM Altimetry Procedures require the crew to monitor the altitude control system and not allow the aircraft to overshoot or undershoot a cleared flight level by more than:

a. 150’
b. 50’
c. 100’
d. None of the above

A

a. 150’

IOM 2.3.8 (c) (3)

196
Q
  1. For all international operations, each crewmember and passenger must have proof of citizenship (valid passport) with them.

a. True, except that minors do not need proof of citizenship
b. True
c. False

A

b. True

Appendix 2, A2.3.3.l

197
Q
  1. Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures (SLOP) is 1 or 2 nm right of course is intended to mitigate wake vortex encounters, and can be applied in U.S. Domestic Airspace without advising ATC.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

IOM 2.3.10.2

198
Q
  1. When calculating aircraft weight and balance, the crew may utilize:

a. Approved average passenger weights
b. Actual passenger weights
c. The crew’s own estimates based upon previous weight guessing experience
d. Both A and B

A

d. Both A and B

FOM 4.9.12.3

199
Q
  1. Standard Average Baggage Weights are as follows: Plane Side Loaded Bags ____, Checked Bags ____, Heavy Bags ____ (in pounds):

a. 10, 20, 100
b. 20, 30, 60
c. 30, 40, 80
d. 20, 40, 60

A

b. 20, 30, 60

LR75 CFM page 16

200
Q
  1. The responsibility for command and control of aircraft is _____ delegated to automation.

a. never
b. always
c. sometimes
d. required to be
Source: FOM

A

a. never

FOM

Flexcurrent 135 Ground School Study Cards (2 decks)

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