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A320 EZY command prep (send EZY email to full study) > OMA, ANO, CSPM > Flashcards

OMA, ANO, CSPM Flashcards

1
Q

What is the approach ban?

A

Don’t continue an approach below 1000ft (AAL) if the RVR/VIS is less than the minimum.
If the minimum is >1000ft, then approach must not be continued past the FAF.

08/05/24

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2
Q

What is the minimum age for an unaccompanied minor?

A

“Children” are under 16 years old.
They cannot be carried unless accompanied by an “Adult” (= person older than 16)
In exceptional circumstances, ICC may authorise the carriage of a person under the age of 16 if unaccompanied.

08/05/24

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3
Q

Can a Pax carry musical instruments on the a/c?

A

Yes: full details in CSPM.
If a ticket has been bought for the instrument:
- it must be in a case
- it must occupy a window seat
- it may not protrude more than 30cm above the top of a seat back
- it must not stop oxygen masks dropping from the PSU.

08/05/24

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4
Q

Can you dispatch without a destination alternate? (UK AOC)
Difference between UK AOC and Austrian AOC?

A

Yes, but the flight must be dispatched in accordance with the “No destination alternate” procedure and some conditions are met.

The “No destination alternate” procedure basically stipulates that “additional fuel” must be carried: a minimum of 15 mins (at 1500ft AAL in ISA conditions).

The conditions that must be met:

  • WX minima are 2000ft (or circling minima +500ft, whichever greater) and 5000m vis for ETA ±1h
  • Flight is less than 6h duration
  • there are 2 separate landing runways, where “separate” means that if one runway is blocked, the other one won’t be, and there are separate approach aids and procedures.

The main difference between the UK AOC and the Austrian AOC is that the Austrian AOC allows in flight re-planning, providing time to destination is less than 4h.

You can also dispatch without an alternate if the destination aerodrome is “isolated”.

08/05/24

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5
Q

If no weather information is available, or if the forecasts indicate that your intended destination will be below minima, what are the dispatch conditions?

A

If forecasts for destination are below minima for ETA ±1h, (or no forecasts available) then 2 alternates must be selected.

08/05/24

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6
Q

Where is destination alternate fuel calculated from and to?

A

From the DA at destination to landing at alternate.
The full missed approach procedure is used, plus climb, cruise & descent to alternate.

08/05/24

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7
Q

What is the definition of a Low Visibility Take Off?

A

A LVTO is a take off when RVR is less than 550m.

08/05/24

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8
Q

How are CAT III operations subdivided?
(UK AOC, and for bonus points Austrian AOC)

A

UK AOC:
Cat IIIA and IIIB

Austrian AOC:
Cat III with DH <100ft and ≥50ft
Cat III with DH ≤49ft “or no DH”

08/05/24

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9
Q

What is the lowest system RVR for CAT III approaches?

A

Cat IIIA: 200m
Cat IIIB: 75m

08/05/24

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10
Q

What is the lowest system minima for Cat I, Cat II, and Cat II OTS approaches?

A

Cat I: 200ft, 550m
Cat II: 100ft, 300m
Cat II OTS: 100ft, 350m

08/05/24

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11
Q

State the visual requirements for:

Cat I LTS
Cat II
Cat II OTS
Cat III

A

Note that for any approach that is not a Cat I approach, autoland is mandatory.

Cat I LTS, Cat II, Cat II OTS: 3 consecutive lights and a lateral element;
Cat IIIA: 3 consecutive lights
Cat IIIB (with DH): 1 light
Cat IIIB (without DH): none. Obviously.

08/05/24

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12
Q

What is “OPR NA new EASA AWO”? To whom does it apply? What does it mean?

A

“Operator Not Authorised new EASA All Weather Operations”
Only applies to UK AOC.
It means that you must apply higher minima (from the UK AOC) not the ones stipulated in LIDO (which will be the new EASA AWO minima)

08/05/24

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13
Q

What is the minimum RFFS category?

A

Generally, RFFS category required is:
A319, 320: 6
A321: 7

Departure & destination may be RFFS 5 if the airport has low volumes of commercial traffic.

09/05/24

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14
Q

What downgrades to RFFS are permitted?

A

Depends if the airport is:
- Departure
- Destination
- Alternate in the UK
- Alternate not in the UK

Departure & destination may downgrade 2 categories, providing downgrade is less than 72h.

Alternate in the UK may downgrade to RFFS 5
Alternate not in the UK may downgrade to RFFS 4.

09/05/24

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15
Q

Where can you find easyJet’s fuel policies?

A

OMA, section 8

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16
Q

In OMA, how are the ages of “infant”, “child” and “adult” defined?
What is their applicability?

A

Infant: not yet had their second birthday.
Child: between 2 and 12.
Adult: older than 12 years old

This applies to most things (e.g., being seated in exit rows, being seated with parents/guardians and standard masses). The exception is being an “unaccompanied minor” (for which the age limit is 16).

09/05/24

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17
Q

What is the typical mass for a guide dog?

A

35kg

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18
Q

What is the typical mass of a cello?

A

10kg.
OMA gives this information, but then fails to give information about a double bass or a tuba. Or a swanny whistle. Maybe suggest this at the next amendment.

09/05/24

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19
Q

What is the specific gravity of fuel and oil?

A

“Specific gravity”, which the rest of the world know as “density”, is:
JET A1: 0.8
Oil: 0.88

09/05/24

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20
Q

What are the visual requirements for a CAT I approach?

A

“… may continue an approach below Decision Altitude if at least one of the following [is seen]:”

PETZL
- PAPIs (or other VASI)
- Edge lights
- Threshold (or its markings, lights, identification lights)
- Zone [touchdown] (or its lights or markings)
- Lights: elements of approach system

09/05/24

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21
Q

What are the planning minima in order for an airport to be used as an alternate (UK AOC)?

A

The forecast for the alternate must be better than the expected approach type:
If you expect to make a Cat I LTS, Cat II or Cat III approach then you need Cat I (RVR only)
If you expect to make a Cat I approach, you need non precision RVR or visibility AND ceiling must be above MDH.
APV approach requires NPA mimima.
NPA approach requires NPA RVR/VIS + 1000m AND ceiling + 200ft
Circling approach requires circling approach mimima with no additional factors.

09/05/24

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22
Q

What is the fuel required on a standard route?

A

Taxi
Trip
Contingency
Alternate
Final reserve
Extra
Additional
Discretionary

13/05/24

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23
Q

How is Final Reserve Fuel calculated?

A
  • 30 minutes flying
  • Holding speed
  • 1500ft above alternate (or destination if no alternate required)
  • Estimated arrival mass
  • ISA conditions
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24
Q

What are the circumstances where Discretionary fuel may be carried, and what is the penalty?

A

If a diversion is likely, then uplift enough fuel to reach one of the Commercial alternates with Normal Reserves. Examples of when a diversion could be likely are:
* Thunderstorms are forecase
* Destination weather below minima or above limits
* Possible runway closure, e.g., due to snow removal operations
* Crosswind limitations when autoland expected
* Additional approaches at destination
* Icing conditions en-route

The penalty for carrying discretionary fuel is 3% of the discretionary fuel per hour of flight (i.e., taking 500kg discretionary fuel will “cost” 15kg of fuel per hour).

14/05/24

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25
Q

What are the rules regarding alcohol consumption? What is the company limit (in mg per 100ml of blood)?

A
  • No alcoholic drinks may be consumed while wearing uniform
  • Alcohol may not be taken onto the flight deck at all
  • Containers looking like alcoholic drinks containers may not be taken onto the flight deck
  • Report -10h: no alcohol
  • Report -10h to -24h: “a minimum amount” (< 5 units)
  • Company limit is 20mg per 100ml blood

14/05/24

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26
Q

What happens to the 4 tech log pages?

A

Top white: remains in tech log permanently
Removable white: for engineering (removed overnight or following a maintenance action)
Yellow: for engineering (removed overnight)
Pink: retained at departure airport

14/05/24

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27
Q

How long is a daily inspection valid for?

A

48 hours, plus the remaining time on the day of inspection providing:
* DI is carried out after the last flight of the day
* DI is carried out after 18:00 UTC

A DI must be valid for the whole flight or series of flights: in other words, you need to land before the DI expires. The exception to this is unforeseen delays on the last sector of the day.

14/05/24

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28
Q

When and where should an aircraft defect be entered in the tech log?

A

At the end of the flight, in the top half of the sector strip.

14/05/24

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29
Q

What is the defect reporting process?

A
  1. Make entry into Tech Log.
  2. Call MOC
  3. Consult MEL/CDL
  4. Raise ASR if required.

14/05/24

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30
Q

When can you defer a defect, and what actions must be taken?

A

After consulting MOC, and when there is no local maintenance available.
Procedure to defer defect is contained in OMA, section 8.

14/05/24

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31
Q

How many types of commanders discretion are there?

A

4:
Extend FDP
Reduce FDP
Extend rest
Reduce rest

08/05/24

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32
Q

What should a low temperature correction be applied to?

A

When the temperature of the airport is -10°C or less, corrections should be applied to:
* DA/MDA
* On a non precision approach, minimum altitudes after the FAF
* The FAF itself (except where a Baro/VNAV procedure prescribes a temperature limit)

ATC must also be informed that temperature corrections are being applied.

15/05/24

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33
Q

Explain how winds affect MFAs.

A

Wind speeds in excess of 20kt in mountainous could necessitate increasing MFAs.
If wind is blowing perpendicular to ridges, the altimeter error can be over 800ft if the wind speed is 80kt.

15/05/24

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34
Q

What is the lowest height that a turn can be made after take off?

A

400ft, unless the departure procedure or engine failure procedure requires it.

15/05/24

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35
Q

If flying in temperatures below -10°C, what considerations are there?

A

Low Temperature Corrections (LTCs)- table to be found in OMA section 8.

15/05/24

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36
Q

If flying in an area of very low atmospheric pressure, what must we be aware of?

A

Any pressure below 1013 will mean that MFAs should be increased.

15/05/24

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37
Q

What minimum crew level is required to board passengers? What are the restrictions?

A
  • At least one pilot who must be on the flight deck
  • 3 cabin crew are required (A319/320) or 4 cabin crew (A321)
  • One of the cabin crew must be a SCCM (not necessarily the operating SCCM)
  • No fuelling/defuelling
  • Acting SCCM covers 1L & 1R; CC2 covers 2L & 2R; CC3 covers overwing exits
  • Maximum 50 passengers per cabin crew member present.

16/05/24

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38
Q

Can we carry deportees?

A

Yes. Commander must be informed and deportee’s documents retained by SCCM.
NB: deportees are not the same as INAD.

16/05/24

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39
Q

When is a full harness required in flight?

A
  • Take off and landing
  • Turbulent conditions
  • Whenever seat belt signs are on
  • Whenever other pilot is not in their seat

16/05/24

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40
Q

What are the requirements to enter RVSM airspace?

A
  • 2 altimeters
  • When checked on the ground before flight, each altimeter needs to be within 75ft of the elevation
  • Altimeters within 200ft of each other
  • Autopilot is required to be servicable
  • Mode C operating
  • Altitude alerting

16/05/24

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41
Q

Whose decision is discretion?

A

The commander’s.

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42
Q

If extending a FDP using discretion, what is the maximum amount?

A

2 hours.
If FDP exceeds 1h, then report must be sent to appropriate authority.
On the final sector of the duty period, this 2h can be exceeded in order to reach destination or alternate.

16/05/24

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43
Q

Can you sign off any failures as a captain?

A

Yes, under OMA “Commander’s Authority to Defer a Defect”.

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44
Q

What is a “FOR INFO” entry in the tech log?

A

For maintenance tracking of potential future failure issues.
MOC must be contacted before making a “For info” entry.

16/05/24

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45
Q

Describe what “incapacitation” is, and how you might identify it in the other pilot.

What is the procedure for dealing with it?

A

Incapacitation might be identified by deviation from SOPs.
The “two communication” rule XXXXX

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46
Q

What is a precautionary landing and what is an emergency landing?

A
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47
Q

What are Category A, B and C airports?

A
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48
Q

What categories of bomb threat are there and what do they mean?

A
49
Q

When can we fly below CNR?

A
50
Q

A member of cabin crew goes sick downroute. Can you fly back?

A
51
Q

In case of discrepancies between manuals, what order of priority are they given?

A

“Och aye, no MOT”
Och Aye - OFP Company NOTAMs & Crew Alerts
NTC
OEBs
Company Operations Manuals
FCOM
FCTM

52
Q

What are the main company manuals?

A

OMA – General & Basic
OMB – Aircraft Specific A320
OMC – Route & Aerodrome Instructions
CSPM – Cabin Safety & Procedures Manual
CSM – Cabin Standards Manual

53
Q

How long must you leave before donating blood and flying?

A
54
Q

What period of time must be left between scuba diving and flying?

A
55
Q

What categories of passenger are not carried?

A

BUD:
Babies under 2 weeks old;
Unaccompanied minors (<16y)
Deceased/remains

Minors in this regard are classified as being under 16 years old. However, for passenger classifications (e.g., for mass & balance and seating requirements) “children” are classified as being under 12 years old.

56
Q

When should you correct minima for temperature?

A
57
Q

When are runways considered “seperate”?

A
58
Q

What is meant by TEMPO in a TAF?

A
59
Q

How are PROB TEMPOs treated for planning purposes?

A
60
Q

What is CNR?

A
61
Q

What is contingency fuel used for?

A
62
Q

How is contingency fuel calculated?

A
63
Q

How is the cruise level on the OFP calculated?

A
64
Q

What cruising level does the FMGC assume you will fly to the alternate?

A
65
Q

If down route it looks like you’ll be short on fuel what options do you have?

A
66
Q

Where can information on Dangerous Goods be found?

A
67
Q

What will the cabin crew do if advised about a precautionary landing?

A
68
Q

Discuss management of the aircraft and passengers in the event of receiving a RED bomb threat.
- On stand
- While taxiing
- In flight

A
69
Q

Discuss actions in the event of receiving an AMBER bomb threat

A
70
Q

Give examples of things that a duty pilot might be able to authorise.

A
71
Q

Cabin crew member goes sick downroute. Can you operate?

A
72
Q

Can we carry firearms?

A
73
Q

Under the ANO, what are the responsibilities of the commander?

A
  • Safety of all crew members, passengers and cargo
  • Operation and safety of the aircraft
  • Give commands and take action for the purpose of safety
  • Offload any person or cargo that jeapardises safety
  • Not allow anyone on board who is drunk or under the influence of drugs
  • Refuse transport to inadmissable people
  • Carry out a safety briefing
  • Ensure all operational procedures are complied with
  • Ensure crew members only perform required duties during the critical phases of flight
  • Ensure that flight recorders are working and recordings are preserved if needed
  • Accept the aircraft with regard to MEL and CDL items
  • Ensure a pre-flight inspection is carried out
  • Ensure all emergency equipment required is carried

09/05/24

74
Q

What is the duration of flight crew oxygen required?

A
75
Q

Does positioning count as a sector for the purposes of calculating FDP?

A
76
Q

What is the easyJet procedure for use of split duties?

A
77
Q

What are the absolute limits on flying hours?

A
78
Q

What are the absolute limits on duty hours?

A
79
Q

How much can a FDP be extended by use of discretion?

A
80
Q

Can a rest period be reduced?

A
81
Q

What are the commander’s responsibilities to the company?

A
  • Flight deck door remains closed when engines are running
  • Ensure passengers are seated when taxiing, taking off or landing and in turbulence
  • Ensure no loose articles in flight deck
  • Add safety margins, e.g., to minima
  • Ensure a continuous listening watch on radios
  • Carry out a post-flight debrief
  • Ensure uniform standards are adhered to
  • Ensure relevant information is transmitted by ACARS.

09/05/24

82
Q

A passenger arrives on a stretcher. Can this passenger be carried?

A
83
Q

What is the procedure for reporting a bird strike?

A
84
Q

How many infants may be carried?

A
85
Q

If a passenger wishes to take a musical instrument on board, what are the considerations?

A
86
Q

Can you describe some recent NTCs?

A
87
Q

When is the MEL applicable?

A
88
Q

What is the difference between a Level 1 defect and a Level 2 defect?

A

Level 1: affects airworthiness. This will be included in the MEL/CDL.
Level 2: cosmetic, not affecting airworthiness.

14/05/24

89
Q

What are the repair intervals?

A
90
Q

What does a figure of 8 hand signal mean?

A
91
Q

What is required when refuelling with passengers on board?

A
92
Q

What are the recency requirements?

A
93
Q

What are the requirements for ACAS?

A
94
Q

Before planning to operate to an airport where you expect to do a RNP-AR approach, what needs to be checked?

A
95
Q

What are the standard masses for cabin crew and pilots?

A
96
Q

What is the planning minima for your destination alternate if the actual destination only has a non precision approach?

A
97
Q

For an airport to be used as a destination, what RFFS category is required?

A
98
Q

When should you declare minimum fuel?

A
99
Q

When should “MAYDAY FUEL” be used?

A
100
Q

When is an oxygen demonstration required for the passengers?

A
101
Q

When does positioning count as a sector for the purposes of FDP?

A
102
Q

When does a duty period start if you are called from SBY?

A
103
Q

How does standby time count towards FDP?

A
104
Q

Who cannot sit in restricted seats?

A
105
Q

What is the definition of a “safe landing”?

A
106
Q

What is the validity of your licence?

A
107
Q

What is meant by “CAVOK”?

A
108
Q

How are each of the NTOFP segments defined?

A
109
Q

What is RVSM and what equipment is required to enter?

A
110
Q

WAKE TURBULENCE: what distance is required behind another aircraft on approach?

A
111
Q

WAKE TURBULENCE:
what is the separation required on departure?

A
112
Q

What are the standard masses for passengers? (not LMC figures)

A

Adult Male: 88kg
Adult Female: 70kg
Child: 35kg

113
Q

What are the standard masses for bags? (not LMC figures)

A

Domestic flights: 11kg
International flights: 13kg
Some items (e.g., snowboards, skis etc) have standard masses published in the Ground Handling Manual.

114
Q

What are the landing and approach climb minimum gradients?

A
115
Q

What is a “Weather Permissable Aerodrome”?

A

An adequate aerodrome where reports and/or forecasts indicate that met conditions will be above operating minima, and runway surface conditions indicate that a safe landing will be possible.

08/05/24

116
Q

What window on your EOBT is your flight plan valid for?

14/05/24

A

Usually ±15 mins.

117
Q

You are on stand, having loaded PLOG fuel. Doors are closed, and then you develop a problem with the ground equipment. What are the fuel considerations before pushing?

A
  1. Contingency fuel, in theory, can only be used after the aircraft moves under its own power.
  2. You can use Cost Index 0 in the cruise to reduce the trip fuel.
  3. A single engine taxi can save fuel compared to the PLOG figure.
  4. The APU will burn 2kg a minute.

14/05/24

118
Q

What are Type A approaches and Type B approaches?

A

This refers to the approach design and the system minima, i.e., the capabilities of the ground equipment.
The system minima are:
Type A ≥ 250 ft.
Type B <250 ft

14/05/24

A320 EZY command prep (send EZY email to full study) (26 decks)

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