OP - CLASS #3 - Week of 9/29/14: FFP – MD's sec. 1 - 5, Comm. Man Ch. #10 Add #2, AUC #149 & 150, TB – Tools #21, 24 & 26, Haz Mat #2, 3 & 4 Instructor: DC John Esposito Flashcards Preview

Firetech > OP - CLASS #3 - Week of 9/29/14: FFP – MD's sec. 1 - 5, Comm. Man Ch. #10 Add #2, AUC #149 & 150, TB – Tools #21, 24 & 26, Haz Mat #2, 3 & 4 Instructor: DC John Esposito > Flashcards

Flashcards in OP - CLASS #3 - Week of 9/29/14: FFP – MD's sec. 1 - 5, Comm. Man Ch. #10 Add #2, AUC #149 & 150, TB – Tools #21, 24 & 26, Haz Mat #2, 3 & 4 Instructor: DC John Esposito Deck (81):

1. Old law tenements and new law tenements have some different characteristics. From the
list below select the features of a new law tenement (2.1, 2.2)
a. All at least 100 years old
b. 20’ or 25’ wide
c. The entrance to the cellar is by way of an exterior stairs.
d. Second means of egress is either a staircase or an exterior fire escape
e. Usually two to four apartments per floor
f. All interior walls and furred partitions are required to be fire stopped at each story
g. Steel "I" beams carry floor joists, generally they are supported by masonry walls
h. The stairway to the cellar is usually located beneath the interior stairway
i. Three to five stories in height

1. C, D, F, G


2. During a drill on engine operations at multiple dwelling fires the new Lieutenant made the
following statements. Which is incorrect? (3.2.1-3.2.8)
a. When using the front suction and 35’ yellow hydrant connection be sure not to block out
ladder apparatus
b. The second engine company to arrive shall assist in stretching the first line. They must
remain together as a unit and relieve the first engine company as required.
c. Engine companies other than the first to arrive shall take locate, test and confirm a positive
water source
d. After three lines have been stretched up a stairway, additional lines should be stretched via
fire escapes, stairways or windows
e. If a building has a self-closing door with a locking device, the first member entering shall
ensure the door is prevented from locking.

2. D

2 lines


3. At top floor, duct and cockloft fires hoselines may be ordered stretched to the roof. A
hoseline on the roof of a multiple dwelling may be used for all but which of the following
a. Operated into a ventilation hole in conjunction with the cockloft nozzle to extinguish fire
b. Directed into a trench opening to prevent fire from extending
c. Prevent fire from extending to exposures
d. Used to extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below

3. A

3.2.9 Hoselines should not be operated into ventilation holes from the roof as this
decreases ventilation and nullifies the action of lines operating on the top floor.
A roof line should be used only to prevent fire from extending past the trench, to
protect exposures, or to extinguish fire that cannot be reached from below, such
as fire in a cornice.


4. You are the lieutenant of an additional ladder company on a second alarm for a fire in an
OLT. You report to the command post and the chief order you to bridge the burned out stairs
with a portable ladder. Select the incorrect statements? (4.5.5)
a. A 20’ straight ladder is the preferred choice to bridge OLT stairs
b. The butts shall be supported by the floor at the base of the stair
c. Both upper beams at the tip shall rest on the upper floor landing for proper support
d. When properly placed, this ladder should only be used for emergency egress from above

4. A, D

4.5.5 Portable ladders may be placed over weakened, damaged or burnt-out stairs in
order to safely gain access to upper stories of a building. The preferred ladder for
this is the extension ladder, rather than a straight ladder. The shorter nested
length allows easier maneuverability and positioning, while the adjustable length
should insure proper coverage of the entire stair span. The butts shall be
supported by the floor at the base of the stair, while both upper beams at the tip of
the ladder should rest on the upper floor landing for proper support


5. Which is not an accurate statement about the layouts of old law tenements? (2.1,
a. Usually no front fire escape indicates 2 railroad flats running front to rear
b. Usually the presence of a front fire escape indicates 3 or 4 apartments per floor with a rear
fire escape
c. Sometimes a front fire escape may be present with railroad flats and no rear fire escape
d. A front fire escape will usually have a gooseneck to the roof
e. The general OLT fire escape rules may not apply to corner buildings

5. D


6. Select the incorrect statement about new law tenements built between 1901 and 1916.
a. Second means of egress may be a stairway
b. The first floor ceiling is of fireproof construction and unpierced
c. Interior stairs are fireproof and apartment doors are made with fire resistive materials
d. Interior walls are fire stopped at each story

6. B

 The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced.


7. Gas meters are routinely found in multiple dwellings, which comment made during a recent
Con-Ed familiarization drill is incorrect? (3.5.9)
a. Gas meters are usually found in the hallway or individual apartments
b. Gas meters and gas piping are not permitted in the stair enclosure
c. If gas meters are burning they should be allowed to continue to burn until the gas supply is
shut off
d. A hoseline may be used near the burning meter to extinguish rubbish while being careful
not to accidentally extinguish the gas fed fire before the gas supply is shut off
e. If gas is leaking without being ignited, the gas supply should be shut off and the area
ventilated as much as possible
f. A leak or break in the piping may be stopped or greatly diminished by stuffing rags, paper,
etc., into the break

7. A

 Gas meters are usually in the cellar but they may also be found in apartments
and in public hallways.


8. You are the first to arrive engine officer for heavy fire venting from a store. As the
company starts to stretch a handline you consider the use of a large caliber stream. Which is an
incorrect thought? (3.5.10)
a. Generally, outside streams should not be directed into occupied buildings.
b. An outside stream may be used to diminish heavy fire so that an interior attack can be
c. You may order the use of the deck pipe (or other outside stream) prior to the arrival of any
additional units
d. Members shall never be inside a building when an outside stream is operating

8. D

F. The use of outside streams into a building can cause injuries to members
operating inside the building. Except in extreme, lifesaving instances
members inside the building must be warned, and moved to safe location
before outside streams are directed into the building. This safe location
must be verified by radio or personal contact, by the Incident Commander.


9. You are the officer of the first arriving engine company at a cellar fire in an OLT. Which
of the following is not a correct action? (4.2.1)
a. The first line should be stretched to the top of the interior cellar stairs.
b. The line should remain at the cellar entrance unless needed on the 2nd floor to provide
protection for people coming down the stairway.
c. If there is an exterior cellar entrance the first line should not be advanced down the cellar
stairs unless the fire is minor
d. The second hose line stretched should be advanced into the cellar by way of the front or
rear exterior cellar (if present)

9. B

4.2.1 The first line should be stretched to the cellar entrance door which is located
inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor. This line should
remain at this position to provide protection for people coming down the stairway
and to extinguish fire which may be extending upwards from the cellar via
partitions, dumbwaiter shafts and other voids. This line should not be advanced
down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or
rear of the building, unless the fire is minor


10. You are the officer of the FAST Unit. You arrive on the scene and observe heavy fire in
the first floor store of an OLT. The all-hands assignment is on scene and working. You observe
the following actions, which are incorrect?: (4.3)
a. The first engine stretched a 2 ½” line to the store
b. The line was charged and in place prior to the plate glass windows being vented
c. The second engine stretched a handline to the entrance hallway
d. A handline was positioned to protect people on the fire escape
e. After visible fire in the store was knocked down the first floor public hallway was
f. These store ceilings are usually constructed of metal panels that will not communicate heat
to the floor above

10. C, E, F

4.3.3 Fires in stores may extend to the upper floors by auto-exposure or via openings in
the store ceilings. These store ceilings were usually constructed of metal panels.
The metal ceiling can communicate heat to the floor above

4.3.6 Stores in OLTs may have a door which opens into the public hallway on the first
floor. The first floor public hallway should be examined immediately to
determine whether the means of egress for the occupants of the building is in
danger from the store fire. If so, a hoseline should be positioned to protect the
interior stairs.


11. Which of the following statements about hoselines are incorrect? (3.2.11)
a. The first hoseline’s primary purpose is to extinguish fire
b. The 3rd line into a building is usually stretched up a fire escape or into a window with a
c. The 3rd engine officer decides where the 2nd line is to stretched; either the fire floor, floor
above or an exposure
d. The 2nd line is usually stretched to the floor above via the interior stairs

11. A, C, D

The primary purpose of this line is to safeguard the
stairway so that it can be used by the escaping occupants.

 In some cases, the second or third lines may be urgently needed in one of the
exposures. The decision as to the location to which these lines shall be
stretched rests with the Incident Commander, and is based on his/her size-up
of the fire situation.

 The second hoseline is also usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to
the same floor as the first line.


12. Which statements are incorrect about operations at OLT fires? (4.7)
a. For stairway fires the first hoseline should be stretched to the top of the stairway, operated
to extinguish fire, shut down and advanced down the stairway
b. During a cockloft fire, it may be necessary to utilize the cockloft nozzle carried in the
Division vehicle
c. At a shaft fire, a hose line should be stretched to the shaft’s lowest access point to direct
water onto fire. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the upper floors of the building.
d. Because of the short span of floor beams (20-25 feet) and the fact that the floors are not
heavily loaded, the collapse of floors in OLT's is usually not a problem

12. A, C

4.7.2 A hoseline should be stretched to the nearest point from which water can be
directed onto fire in the shaft. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the
upper floors of the building.


13. You are discussing BISP situations during study group when the group’s top student
offered the following scenarios. Which situation requires enforcement action by the FDNY for
SROs in an old law tenement? (4.8.4)
a. An interior alarm system, exit lights and signs are all present and operational
b. The layout of the rooms is arranged so that each occupant has access to both means of
egress (stairs and fire escape) without having to go through another person's room. (4.8.4)
c. Sprinklers are present in the stairway but not in the rooms
d. The sprinkler system has no roof tank.
e. The sprinkler system cannot be supplied by the Fire Department

13. C *

E. These buildings require sprinklers in each room and in the stairway. The
sprinkler system has no roof tank; it is supplied from the water main in the
street. The system cannot be supplied by the Fire Department


14. Select the incorrect statement about overhauling and dropping material out of upper floor
windows? (3.3.4)
a. A member must be posted in street or yard below
b. A search of the yard must be made prior to ensure no occupant has jumped or fallen
c. No material shall be thrown onto setback rooftops
d. Material can only be dropped into narrow shafts if one end is open

14. D


15. The cockloft of an “H” type MD is a large source of potential fuel for extending fire.
Choose the incorrect statement about cocklofts? (5.2.4)
a. This area is required to be subdivided, usually by firewalls that are usually effective in
stopping the spread of fire
b. The most common type roof has the top floor ceiling several feet below the main roof
c. The cockloft is not large enough to be called an attic and has no means of entry from the
top floor.
d. If there is a heavy body of fire in the cockloft you should expect a partial collapse of the
inverted roof.

15. A


16. Knowledge of the location and type of stairways in an “H” type is important information.
Select the incorrect statement. (5.2.5)
a. Transverse stairs are usually located remote from each other and provide access from one
stairway to another via the public hall on all floors of the building.
b. Wing stairs are located at the front and rear of each wing, the public hall does not connect
to the other wing of the "H"
c. Wing stairs are an asset in heavy fire operations on the top floor as lines can be stretched
up several different stairways
d. Isolated stairs provide access to a limited number of apartments via a floor landing, there is
no public hall.

16. C

 Transverse stairs-these stairs are usually located at points remote from each
other, but a person can go (transverse) from one stairway to another via the
public hall on all floors of the building. Their layouts ease evacuation, assist
in examination and permit lines to be stretched to any apartment, via any
stairs. They are a tremendous asset in heavy fire operations on the top floor.
 Wing stairs-these stairs, one or two, are located at the front and rear of each
wing. The floor landing leads to the public hall that will join the other stairs
in that wing only (if two stairs). The public hall does not transverse to the
other wing of the "H".
 Isolated stairs-these stairs are usually identified by their individual entrances.
Floor landings are recognized by their limited space and absence of a public
hall. Access is limited to the apartments served by the stairs, and there is no
access to other wings and hoseline operations are confined to their limited


17. During a MUD at the scene of a 3rd alarm H-type fire the new officer made the following
comments. Which one is correct? (5.2.6)
a. Dumbwaiter shafts are sometimes used as voids for new electrical wiring or water pipes.
The openings where these wires or pipes enter the apartment have all been fire stopped and will
not allow a shaft fire to readily enter the apartment.
b. After the fire is knocked down and opening up begins, areas where the lath has been burned
must be examined for the presence of steel columns. If present, locations above the fire must be
checked immediately
c. Steel columns are often located in voids behind closets and they are fire stopped at each
d. Waste pipe recesses exist wherever a kitchen or bathroom exists. If the pipe on the roof is
hot to the touch it indicates fire has extended and consideration should be given to transmitting
an additional alarm

17. B

If detected, locations above and below the
fire must be checked immediately.


18. In NFP buildings with steel frame construction, what is the most probable point for vertical
fire extension? (5.10.1)
a. the cockloft
b. closets
c. pipe recesses
d. vertical steel channels
e. the dumbwaiter shaft

18. D


19. Which of the following statements about engine and ladder operations at “H” type
buildings is not correct? (5.3.3, 5.4.2, 5.4.3)
a. Instead of stretching around the elevator shaft, it is much easier and faster to use a rope to
pull the hose line up to the floor below the fire via the outside of the building.
b. Aerial ladders, if first to arrive, should be positioned and raised so as to cover as much of
the throat area as possible.
c. If heavy fire conditions are encountered upon arrival, the aerial may be raised for the rapid
ascent of the roof firefighter if no rescues are required on the front of the building
d. If the fire is showing out windows in the throat, courtyard and front and a tower ladder
stream is being used, it should be directed at the windows in the throat first.

19. B


20. Which one of the following choices in an H-type building would be the primary means of
access for the Roof Firefighter? (5.4.3)
a. Aerial ladder
b. Tower ladder (if 1st to arrive)
c. Fire escape with gooseneck
d. Winged stairs in fire building

20. D


21. A properly placed, cut and pulled trench cut has saved many H-type buildings. Which one
of the following comments is incorrect concerning trench cuts? (5.9.9)
a. The trench should be cut about 20 feet from the roof bulkhead or throat
b. The trench must be at least 3' wide, and cut from wall to wall or other suitable fire stop
such as a stair or elevator bulkhead
c. A trench may be cut but may not be pulled before there is an adequate vent opening
directly over the fire
d. A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and the trench opening

21. A

E. The trench should be cut about 20 feet from the initial vent hole


22. Select the correct statement concerning the throat of an “H” type building. (5.2.10,
5.9.9 F, 5.11)
a. A fire escape in the throat often spans the firewall and indicates two (2) separate
apartments in the throat.
b. An apartment in the throat that spans a firewall with no fire escape is only required to have
one interior exit
c. Fire escapes in the throat with a street side courtyard will usually have goosenecks ladders
to the roof
d. With the exception of some smaller buildings, it is usually easy to determine the location of
subdividing walls from the exterior
e. Every H-type will have at least one fire escape that extends to the roof

22. A


23. You are a 2nd alarm engine company officer responding to a cockloft fire in a large H-type
MD. Upon arrival the IC orders you to put the cockloft nozzle in to operation on the top floor.
You would be correct if you had which thought?
a. The dispatcher will tell you which engine is carrying a cockloft nozzle
b. A 2 ½” line must be used to supply the cockloft nozzle
c. The cockloft nozzle must be supplied with 100 psi at the tips
d. A handline must be in place to protect the members with the cockloft nozzle

23. D

Squad and Division carries Cockloft nozzle

125 PSI

Supplied 1 3/4" line



Consider the illustrations below which depicts a taxpayer, H-type and a bar and billiards
saloon in separate buildings. You will need to consult the illustration to answer questions
#1 - 4.
1. If the fire is in the Florist, what is the proper exposure identification for the Bagel store?
a. 2
b. 2 0
c. 0 2
d. 0 2 a

1. C



Consider the illustrations below which depicts a taxpayer, H-type and a bar and billiards
saloon in separate buildings. You will need to consult the illustration to answer questions
#1 - 4.
1. If the fire is in the Florist, what is the proper exposure identification for the Bagel store?
a. 2
b. 2 0
c. 0 2
d. 0 2 a

2. B


3. If the fire is in the H-type, what is proper exposure identification for the Bagel store?
a. 2 d
b. 2 0 d
c. 2 e
d. 0 2 d
e. 0 2 e

3. B


4. If the fire is in the bar, what is proper exposure identification for the Pizza shop?
a. 4
b. 0 4
c. 4 0
d. 0 4 a

4. C


5. Which is an incorrect statement about exposure identification terminology?
a. “Plain speak” exposure identification should not be used on the fireground
b. “Plain speak” exposure identification should not be used in reports to the dispatcher
c. A combination of “plain speak” and standard exposure numbering may be the most
effective method
d. The intent of “plain speak” is not to replace the standard exposure identification system

5. A


6. During an exposure ID drill with the outside firefighters, a ladder company officer made
the following statements; he was incorrect in which choice? (2.1, 5.2, 5.7, 7.2)
a. Any building to the rear is exposure “3”
b. Buildings separated by more than 20’ are not generally identified as an exposure
c. The right rear corner of the fire building should be identified as the “3-4” corner
d. “0” can be used to identify the subdivision of an exposure

6. B

2.1 Buildings separated by more than thirty feet from the fire building, should not be
identified as exposures unless the volume of fire or complexity of the incident causes an
exposure problem.

5.1 "0" - when used as the first digit, it indicates the FIRE BUILDING or FIRE AREA.
5.2 "0" - when used in any other position "0" refers to a subdivision of the building which is
identified by the number following the "0" or the letters following the "0".


7. Large buildings other than taxpayers often require sectoring. Which statement is not
correct? (7.4, 9, 9.2)
a. Large buildings can be subdivided by sectors starting on the left, “A”, “B”, “C”
b. Buildings may also be broken up by “front”, “center” & “rear”
c. H-type wings are identified by as “A”, “B”, “C” etc starting from the left
d. H-type throats are identified as “Throat A”, “Throat B”, “Throat C”, etc starting from the

7. D

The part of the building connecting each wing
shall be designated the throat and shall be referred to as the throat between "A" wing and
"B" wing etc.


PART III – TB – TOOLS #21, 24 & 26:
1. When using the Rabbit Tool, the door should be opened in ________ pumps of the handle?
a. 1 - 2
b. 3 - 4
c. 7 - 8
d. Minimum of 10

1. B


2. Select the correct statement about positioning of the rabbit tool during use: (3.4)
a. The tool is designed to operate in any position
b. The pump is designed to operate in the vertical position
c. When used horizontally, the tool’s effectiveness is reduced
d. To operate vertically the hose must face down

2. D

3.4 The pump is designed to be operated in the horizontal position, but may be used vertically if the
hose is facing down


3. You are the officer of a ladder company and supervising the use of a rabbit tool during
training when the high pressure hose ruptures causing the hydraulic fluid to leak under pressure.
You would be correct to instruct the firefighters to perform all but which action? (4)
a. Move away from the spray of the hydraulic fluid
b. Grasp the leaking hose and cover the leak with a gloved hand
c. Stop pumping the handle
d. Place the jaws on the floor

3. B


4. Select the incorrect statements about the hydra ram: (1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.3)
a. It can be used underwater
b. It should only be used on outward opening doors
c. The maximum opening is 4”
d. It should only be used parallel to the door

4. D, B *

2.2 Its main purpose is for forcible entry of outward and inward opening doors. Other
applications can be to provide an opening from the side of a vehicle hood or trunk for
placement of an extinguishing agent.


5. You are the officer of the 1st ladder for a fire on the second floor of a NLT. Your inside
team is using the hydra ram to force open the door to the fire apartment. Which two are incorrect
actions? (3.1, 4.2, 4.3, 5.3)
a. To gain a purchase the halligan was used to strike the hydra ram
b. After reaching the maximum opening distance, there were no additional strokes as this may
damage the tool even if the door is still not open
c. If additional space is needed after reaching maximum distance, place an axe head against
the door jamb
d. When not in use the hydra ram operating arm should be retained by the “O” ring and kept
in storage case

5. A, C

4.2 Never strike the Hydra Ram with a tool to gain a purchase.

If the 4-inch opening is not enough, retract the piston and place an axe head or other
substantial spacer flat on the door to provide additional opening distance.


6. Which is correct about the maintenance of the hydra ram? (5.1, 5.2)
a. Fluids are replenished annually
b. On a daily basis the hydra ram is tested for leaks
c. The hydra ram is lubricated weekly
d. After each use the hydra ram is inspected for damage and cleaned

6. D

4.2 Never strike the Hydra Ram with a tool to gain a purchase.


7. You are discussing the use of chain saws during drill. Which two of the following are
correct statements? (2.1, 3.5.1, 3.10.1 C, 7.17)
a. With the exception of pier fires, the chain saw is not to be used for the ventilation or
overhauling of any structural fires
b. Both feet must be on solid ground or well balanced on a substantial object (tree stump or
heavy rock) during use
c. The chain should be tightened and sharpened if the chain spins at idle
d. To avoid “pull-in” keep the bumper spike in contact with the wood

7. A, D *

3.5.1 Weight balanced on both feet - both feet on solid ground.

C. To avoid pull-in:
1. Always start a cut with the chain rotating at full speed and the
bumper spike in contact with the wood.
2. Pull-in may also be prevented by using wedges to open the kerf.
Note: The kerf refers to the space left behind the cutting blade as it cuts.


8. Members operating the chain saw must be properly protected. Which are not acceptable to
be worn during chain saw operations? (2.4, 7.3.1, 8.1.3)
a. Long sleeve work duty shirt or bunker coat
b. Helmet
c. Work duty shoes
d. Fire gloves
e. Work duty pants
f. Saw protected chaps over shorts

8. C, D, F

2.4 While operating the chain saw, the operator and control person shall wear the following
NFPA compliant and FDNY approved protective equipment: Long sleeve work duty
shirt or bunker coat, helmet, eye protection, ear protection, saw protected gloves, bunker
boots, and saw protected chaps.


9. Similar to the partner saw, a circle of danger is required for chain saw operations. Which
are correct statements? (4.4, 4.6, 4.7, 4.9)
a. Diameter of at least 10 feet
b. Saw operator, control person and officer are the only personnel in the circle of danger
c. Hand signals must be established between the operator, control member and officer
d. Saw refueling must take place outside the circle of danger

9. C, D

4.4 A circle of danger of a radius of at least 10' will be established before the commencement
of cutting. The saw operator and control person will be the only personnel in this area
during cutting. Officer is to monitor conditions and relay orders received from the officer
in command. If possible, the officer is positioned as to permit visual contact with the
control person

4.6 The control member should be positioned as to permit easy visual contact with the
operator maintaining a safe distance from the saw


10. FDNY members are permitted to utilize the chain saw in which situation? (5.2, 5.3,
AUC 301 3.4, 5.6)
a. A tree branch that is leaning on a detached, unoccupied 1-story garage
b. A large tree branch on the ground that is blocking the exit from a school
c. A tree that has fallen on an unoccupied car in a parking lot
d. A fallen tree blocking the only entrance to a private dwelling that is entangled with wires
e. A small tree branch that can only be performed from a ladder

10. B


11. During a chain saw cutting operation you observed the following actions, which one should
be corrected? (4.6, 4.9, 7.27)
a. The chain saw operator was wearing a handie talkie secured so it would not swing into the
cutting space
b. The control member was situated directly behind the saw operator
c. Debris was not removed until the saw operator indicated it was safe to do so
d. The control member cannot approach the immediate cutting area until the chain brake is
applied and the operator signals

11. B

4.6 The control member should be positioned as to permit easy visual contact with the
operator maintaining a safe distance from the saw


12. When chains require re-sharpening, unit is to forward it to _________________ with an
RT-2. (8.4.1)
a. It is not sent out, it should be sharpened by members in quarters
b. R & D
c. Tech Services
d. SOC Tools

12. C


13. Consider figure 12 from the book:

Which statement is incorrect?
a. “A” cuts are made before any “D” cuts
b. All supporting limbs are cut beyond their pressure points before any “C” cuts are made
c. Cribbing should be placed under the trunk
d. Some “D” cuts are made before all “C” cuts are completed

13. D


14. Power tools require regular testing and maintenance. Select the incorrect statement about
chain saw maintenance? (8.1.3)
a. Examined daily and tested monthly
b. Two members are required for testing
c. Saw protected gloves are required for testing
d. A circle of danger is required to be established prior to testing

14. A


15. Select the incorrect about use and maintenance of the chain saw: (7.24, 7.26, 8.2.1,
a. The chainsaw should never be used without chain and blade being oiled
b. The air filter shall be cleaned after each cutting operation
c. The safety brake must be applied when not actively cutting
d. “Feathering” should be performed prior to the start and completion of each cut

15. D

7.26 The term “Feathering” refers to increasing and decreasing pressure on the throttle trigger.
This technique should be applied just prior to finishing each cut, this will help the
Operator maintain control of the saw as the chain breaks clean.


PART IV – HAZ MAT #2 & 3:
1. Engine 105 responds to a tanker truck accident on a highway. An unknown liquid has
spilled and contaminated 7 people. The officer should transmit which code?
a. 10-80 code 1
b. 10-80 code 2
c. 10-80 code 3
d. 10-80 code 4

1. A


2. Which of the DOT Hazard Classes are not correct? (2)
a. Class 1 Explosives
b. Class 3 Flammable Liquids and Solids
c. Class 4 Flammable Gases
d. Class 7 Radioactive
e. Class 8 Corrosives

2. B, C


3. Which route of entry is not correctly stated? (3.1)
a. Inhalation – breathing
b. Skin contact – ingestion
c. Puncture /wound
d. Eyes

3. B


4. Which is not a correct action for first arriving units at a haz mat incident? (4.1, 5.3,
6.1, p. 5)
a. Identification of the material involved should be the initial action taken by the first units
b. Every effort shall be made to obtain and evaluate all information concerning the hazards of
the involved material before any actions are taken
c. Strategy and tactics to control an incident will be formulated after a hazard assessment is
d. In cases involving the derailment of damaged railroad tank cars the Hazardous Materials
unit is to be called; when it appears there is no damage Haz Mat response is not necessary

4. D

Damage assessment requires specialized training and skill. Initial responders are not
qualified to fully assess these situations. In all cases involving derailment of railroad
tank cars the Hazardous Materials unit must be called, even when it appears there is no
damage. Haz-Mat will provide the technical knowledge and skills to assist the Incident
Commander in determining the condition and contents of the involved tank car(s). This
will aid in controlling the incident safely.


5. The DOT Emergency Response Guidebook is carried on all FDNY Apparatus. Which is
correct about using this reference book? (5.2)
a. The 4 digit ID number on the container is the guide number providing suggested actions
b. The recommendations and suggestions provided in the Guidebook are not always adequate
c. The first option for responders is to match the diamond shaped placard on the vehicle with
the guide from the book
d. A placard is required on vehicles carrying any amount of material from the hazard classes

5. B *

d. Only if no ID number or shipping name can be found should you resort to
matching the diamond shaped placard on tank, vehicle, or railroad car with
a placard in the back of the Guidebook, and then turn to the guide pace
number given.

B. It was developed for use by firefighters as a guide to initial actions to protect
themselves and the public until more specific information is obtained.
Recommendations given are those most likely to be helpful in the majority of
cases. They are not always adequate, nor applicable in every case.


6. After operating at an all hands for a rubbish fire on the roof of a building you are informed
the burning bags held asbestos containing material and that your equipment needs to be
decontaminated. You have been directed to overpack all your unit’s SCBAs in an overpack
drum pending tests to determine any exposure. Which is an incorrect action to perform before
placing SCBA in overpack drums? (p. 8)
a. The cylinder valve shall be opened fully
b. Open the purge valve and allow the air from the cylinder to be expelled through the
c. Disconnect the high pressure hose from the cylinder
d. When the entire cylinder has been purged of air, close the cylinder valve and purge valve
and place the entire assembly into the overpack drum

6. C

In order to prevent a reoccurrence of this incident, the following procedure shall be
adhered to before placing SCBA in overpack drums:
A. Open the cylinder valve fully
B. Open the purge valve and allow the air from the cylinder to be expelled through
the regulator.
C. Do not disconnect the high pressure hose from the cylinder
D. When the entire cylinder has been purged of air, close the cylinder valve and
purge valve and place the entire assembly into the overpack drum.


7. Haz Mat must be special called to a spillage of muriatic acid. Do you agree or
disagree? (p. 8)
a. Agree or d. Disagree

7. A


1. Select the correct statement about the danger from asbestos: (2.1)
a. Asbestos in its natural state and intact presents a severe danger
b. Asbestos poses an inhalation and/or ingestion hazard
c. Disturbing asbestos during fire and overhaul operations causes it to become inert and
removes the danger
d. When asbestos flakes off due to age it is no longer dangerous

1. B


2. During Haz Mat Tech refresher the instructor made the following comments about the
location of asbestos. He was incorrect in which statement? (3.1)
a. The insulated coverings on boilers, heat pipes and duct linings may contain asbestos
b. Sprayed on fire retarding for structural steel may be asbestos
c. During a high energy steam line break asbestos will likely be released
d. Asbestos and asbestos containing material have been removed from Con Ed steam

2. D*

3.1 Asbestos or asbestos containing material may be found in many locations, including, but
not limited to, the following:
 Insulated coverings on boilers, heat pipes, and duct linings.
 Insulation for Con Edison steam pipes, in steam manholes, and expansion joints.
 Sprayed on asbestos fire retarding for structural steel.
 Ceilings (white popcorn type texture).
3.2 All asbestos locations cannot be documented. If asbestos is suspected, the precautions
outlined in this procedure must be taken.


3. You are a Lieutenant commanding an Engine company operating at a rubbish fire in a
boiler room of a high rise MD. You notice the insulation on the pipes was dislodged and is on
the floor near where your members are operating; due to the age of the building you suspect
asbestos is present. Which is an incorrect action? (4.2, 4.5)
a. The Haz Mat Battalion was notified
b. A signal 10-80 was transmitted specifying asbestos release
c. You directed your company to wash down the suspected asbestos containing material with
a solid stream
d. The members and civilians suspected of contamination were isolated

3. C

4.5 Gently wet down suspected asbestos material using a fog or spray stream. This will
minimize the amount of fibers that become airborne.


4. When asbestos contamination is suspected or confirmed the affected members must be
breathing air from their SCBA until they are: (4.7)
a. Isolated from the fire area and IDLH
b. Out of the fire building
c. Notified of negative asbestos test results by DEP
d. Washed down

4. D

4.7 Isolate members suspected of being contaminated to prevent cross-contamination of
apparatus or other members. NO EATING, DRINKING, OR SMOKING is permitted
from the time of exposure until decontamination is complete. SCBA must be used until
decon procedures are initiated or the member has been washed down.


5. Agree or disagree: The major health issue with asbestos is skin contact with the fibers.
(p. 2)
a. Agree or d. Disagree

5. D


1. Which is not a characteristic of CO? (2.1, 2.2)
a. Colorless
b. Odorless
c. Irritating
d. Toxic
e. By-product of incomplete combustion

1. C


2. Choose the incorrect statement about exposure to CO: (3.1, 3.2, 3.15)
a. CO has no early warning signs
b. Residential levels should not exceed 9 ppm for an 8 hour average
c. 25 ppm is the maximum safe working level in the general work place over an 8 hour period
d. CO can kill before its presence is known

2. C

35 PPM

3.15 The Occupational Safety and Health Administration has established a maximum safe
working level for CO at 35 parts per million (p.p.m.) over an eight (8) hour period in the
general work place. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has established
that residential levels are not to exceed 9 p.p.m. over an 8 hour average.


3. You are the officer working in Engine 267 operating at an incident where a CO detector
has activated. You would be correct to request the utility company to respond in all but which
situations? (4.1.5)
a. The occupant’s CO detector activated with a reading of 9 ppm
b. You shut off gas at the stove
c. The occupant is complaining of a headache and nausea
d. You (the IC) feel the utility company response is required

3. A

"our" meter


4. During a CO investigation you should start to take readings at the ___________:
a. Detector location
b. Door to the building’s boiler room
c. Entrance to the kitchen
d. Front door to the premises

4. D


55. While operating at a CO detector activation at a house where a large group of people are
celebrating a birthday you notice six people exhibiting symptoms of CO poisoning. You would
be correct to do all but which? (4.1.1, 4.1.3, 4.1.5 c)
a. Evacuate the affected area
b. Request EMS to respond
c. Transmit a 10-80 code 3
d. Ventilate
e. Investigate to find source of CO
f. Request utility company to respond

5. C


6. Which of the following statements are correct about CO incidents? (4.2)
a. If occupants are symptomatic but meter readings are 9 ppm or less, it is a CO incident
b. If meter readings are 10 ppm or more but no occupants are symptomatic, it is a CO incident
c. SCBA must be used at all CO emergencies
d. Members may operate in teams of three while searching the premises during a CO

6. C, D

4.2.1 CO Incidents: No occupants are symptomatic and meter readings of 9PPM or less.
4.2.2 CO Emergencies: Occupants are symptomatic or meter readings greater than

4.2.5 SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations, and used at all CO Emergencies.
4.2.6 Search of the premises is to be conducted by a radio equipped team of a least two


7. Select the incorrect statement about evacuation at CO incidents and emergencies:
(4.3.1, 4.4.3, 4.5.2)
a. Evacuation is not necessary for meter reading of 7 ppm
b. Evacuation is recommended for meter reading of 25 ppm
c. Evacuation is mandatory for meter reading above 50 ppm
d. A meter reading above 100 ppm is potentially lethal and the area must be evacuated

7. C

4.4 CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM:
4.4.1 Readings of greater than 9 PPM shall not be considered normal.
4.4.2 Inform occupants that they have a potentially dangerous level of CO.
4.4.3 Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.
4.4.4 If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it
should be shut down.
4.4.5 Once the faulty appliance is shut down and ventilation has reduced the CO level to
9 PPM or less the premises may be reoccupied.
4.4.6 Attempt to reset the detector as in section 4.3.2
4.4.7 Inform the occupant of all actions taken and that the utility company has been
requested to respond.
4.4.8 Inform the occupant that if the detector activates again they should again notify the
Fire Department by calling 911.
4.5 CO Emergency: Meter Readings of 100 PPM and Greater:
4.5.1 Inform occupants that we have detected a potentially lethal level of CO.
4.5.2 Begin evacuation of the affected area and ventilate.
4.5.3 If a malfunction appliance is found producing CO it should be shut down.
4.5.4 Once the source of CO has been mitigated and the level of CO reduced to 9 PPM
or less the area may be reoccupied.
4.5.5 Attempt to reset the detector as in section 4.3.2.


8. You are the Lieutenant working in Engine 51 directed to respond to a CFR-D run for a
person reported dizzy. As you enter the apartment and initiate patient contact you observe the
patient is conscious but complaining of a headache and dizziness. Your CO meter measures 8
ppm, there is not CO detector activation. After treating the patient, members investigate and find
a CO detector that has been tampered with and is not in working condition. You would be
correct to transmit which radio code signals and take which action? (5.1.1, Comm chaptr 8)
a. 10-31
b. 10-37-2
c. 10-37-3
d. 10-38-2
e. 10-38-3
f. 10-38-4
g. 10-40-2
h. Issue an NOV
i. Issue a summons

8. C, F, I *

10-37 Medical Assignment Not Associated with Fire Operations
Code 1: Victim deceased.
Code 2: Victim/Patient is NOT breathing and requires resuscitation or may
be suffering from a serious, apparently life threatening injury or
Code 3: Victim/Patient IS breathing and suffering from a non-serious,
apparently not life threatening injury or illness.
Code 4: Medical assignment where the unit is 10-84, has no patient contact
and EMS is on-scene.
Note: Signal 10-45 with appropriate sub-code shall be transmitted in lieu
of signal 10-37 for thermal burn injuries which occur as a direct
result of heat from a flame.
The officer transmitting signal 10-45 for this type of burn injury
shall request the response of a Battalion Chief to the scene.
Where doubt exists as to which signal to transmit, a Battalion
Chief shall be requested to respond to the scene.


9. At _____ppm the Gasalert CO monitor will have a low audible warning and at _____ ppm
it will have a high audible warning. (add 1: 1.2, 1.3)
a. 10 & 35
b. 10 & 50
c. 36 & 101
d. 50 & 100

9. C


10. Select the correct statement about wearing and using the Gasalert Extreme monitor:
(add 1: 2.1, 2.3)
a. It should be secured low on the h/t strap near the h/t antenna
b. The green circular button on the left is used to turn on and activate the monitor
c. Field units should use the two right buttons to reset the monitor
d. The red circular button on the right is used to turn the monitor off

10. B

2.1 The monitor is equipped with four push buttons. To turn on and activate the monitor,
press the green circular button on the left only. When activated, monitor will perform a
self-test showing date, time, CO low and high alarm ranges, calibration due date and then
go into operational mode. To turn off the monitor, press and hold same circular button on
the left for 5 seconds. The left button is the only button to be used by field units.
The other 3 buttons are for use by the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit only. (See Photo 1


11. Which two statements are correct about the maintenance of the Gasalert Extreme CO
monitor? (3.2-3.6)
a. The Fire Tools and Equipment unit will schedule calibration every 6 months
b. Field units should only open the device if necessary to replace batteries
c. Malfunctioning monitors are exchanged at the Division; messengers should be notified for
pick up
d. When marking the meter, do not etch or use marker

11. A, D *


PART V – AUC #149 & 150:
1. What does the Iroquois pipeline carry? (1.1)
a. Gasoline
b. Propane
c. Jet fuel
d. Natural gas
e. Crude oil

1. D


2. Which of the following is correct about the closing of Iroquois pipeline valves?
(3.2.1, 4.5, 8.1)
a. Con Ed, Iroquois or FDNY personnel may perform the manual closing of any valve during
actual incidents
b. FDNY personnel can never close any valves without approval from the FDNY IC
c. Valves may be fully closed during drills
d. Partial valve closing during drills is not permitted without prior consultation with
Iroquois/Con Ed personnel

2. D

Note: Con Edison or Iroquois personnel should perform the manual closing of
this valve when ordered by the FDNY

4.5 Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be
opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con
Edison/Iroquois personnel.

8.1 There will be two types of drills conducted during the year; Familiarization Drills
conducted in October/November and Borough Drills conducted in April/May. Multi Unit
drills may be utilized for Familiarization and Borough Drills.
NOTE: Under no circumstances shall valves be operated without prior consultation with
Iroquois/Con Edison personnel during drills. Partial closure of the valves may be
permitted after consultation with pipeline personnel. Under NO circumstances will full
closure of these valves be permitted during drills.


3. Which is an incorrect statement about the Iroquois pipeline Alarm assignment /Instruction
cards that have been issued to all 1st thru 3rd alarm units? (5.1-5.3)
a. One card is carried on the apparatus
b. One card, the backup, is stored in the company office
c. Unit duties could involve manually shutting valves and/or patrolling the pipeline
d. Units may be directed to respond to the command post or a staging area

3. B


4. During an MUD/familiarization drill on the Iroquois pipeline the following comments were
made. Which is incorrect? (7.1.1, 7.1.2, 7.2.1, 7.3)
a. Initial actions of units are to setup a perimeter and eliminate ignition sources
b. Large clouds of escaping gas should be dispersed with a fog line
c. The primary consideration of FDNY units is evacuation of the area
d. If operating near railroad tracks, have all train traffic stopped

4. B

7.1.2 Due to the extremely high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration
shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere
without the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may
actually hinder the dissipation of the gas. The Incident Commander must evaluate
existing conditions such as weather, exposure problems, etc. in determining the
most effective method in dispersing the gas.


5. Which is not an accurate statement about the manual valve on Food Center Drive?
a. There is a special manual wrench located just inside the gate at Food Center Drive
b. Rescue 3 carries a special hydraulic wrench that can open this valve
c. A backup hydraulic wrench is stored at the FDNY Command Post building on Food Center
d. All Bronx Battalions carry the special manual wrench

5. D


6. You are the officer of the 1st arriving engine for a reported leak in the Iroquois pipeline. If
you observe a leak from the pipeline you would be correct to perform which action?
(7.2.6, 7.3.1)
a. Transmit a 2nd alarm
b. Establish an Incident Command Post at a location consistent with existing conditions
c. Immediately stretch and operate a foam line on the escaping product
d. Patrol the pipeline for pooling or puddles of the product

6. A


7. You arrive at an alarm for a confirmed leak in the Iroquois pipeline. The IC directs you
have your firefighters to operate as the flag persons since the incident is near railroad tracks.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (7.3.1, AUC 207)
a. Position flag persons at least 1000 feet on each side of the incident
b. Each flag person should be equipped with a H/T and flashlight
c. The flag persons must warn all members immediately upon any suspicion of train
d. To stop a train members should hold a flashlight chest high and wave it up and down

7. D


AUC 149
8. Select the correct statement about the Buckeye pipeline: (1.1)
a. One 24” pipe that carries gasoline
b. One 12” pipe that carries propane
c. Two 12” pipes that carry gasoline and aviation fuel
d. Two 24” pipes that carry diesel fuel and gasoline

8. C


9. FDNY personnel are expected to shut down the Buckeye valves in the event of an actual
leak. Which is a correct statement about the shutting of valves? (2.3.2)
a. Some manual valves are on concrete pads just below the surface with no covering
b. If a cover is present, it can be opened with a subway emergency exit key
c. 48 full turns are required to shut most Buckeye valves
d. The valves on the shipper’s line require 48 half turns to close

9. D

2.3.2 Manual shut off valves are generally located below ground in a valve housing
under a hinged cover. The cover is opened by inserting a short tee wrench, into a
latching device and by making a quarter turn left or right (the handle of the
combination type wrench can also be used to open the cover). The three and onehalf
foot long wrench with a female fitting is then inserted into the valve box onto
a male square fitting and turned clockwise 42 full turns (84 half turns) to shut off
the valve. The only exceptions are the valves located on the shipper's lines
extending from the Long Island City terminal which require 24 full turns (48 half
turns) clockwise


10. Select the incorrect statement concerning the wrenches used for the Buckeye pipeline
a. There are three different wrenches that are issued to assigned and alternate Buckeye
pipeline units. All wrenches are painted yellow.
b. A short tee wrench is used for opening the hinged cover of the valve
c. A three and one-half foot long wrench with a female fitting, for insertion into the valve box
to mate with a square male fitting on the valve
d. A combination wrench which can both open the cover and close the valve

10. A

2.3.1 Wrenches - There are three types of wrenches designed for use on the pipeline
which are issued to units.
A. A short tee wrench used for opening the hinged cover of the valve.
B. A three and one-half foot long wrench painted yellow with a female
fitting, for insertion into the valve box to mate with a square male fitting
on the valve.
C. A combination wrench. The combination wrench combines the short tee
wrench and the long wrench into one tool. This tool is approximately
three and one-half feet long, painted yellow. The fitting for opening the
latched valve cover is on one end of the cross handle, while the longer
portion of the wrench is capable of performing the function of the long


11. Select the correct statement about the different cards associated with the Buckeye pipeline:
a. Pipeline profile cards are only located in the valve boxes
b. Unit alarm assignment cards have been issued to all FDNY units
c. Instruction cards should be carried on apparatus of assigned and alternate units
d. Unit alarm assignment cards always indicate which unit an alternate is replacing

11. C *

3.3.1 Pipeline profile cards showing the elevation of valves above sea level and the
amount of product carried in barrels between each valve have been issued to all
Assigned units and Alternate units.


Use this Alarm Assignment Card to answer questions 12 and 13.

12. Select the correct statement about the card: (4.1, 4.2.1, 4.8)
a. A map of a section of the Buckeye pipeline is on the back of this card
b. Engine 201 is the 1st engine on a 3rd alarm for this location
c. If Engine 310 is assigned to respond on the initial alarm they should contact the dispatcher
for location of nearest unit with Buckeye wrenches and cards
d. Only units listed on this card will be assigned to an incident at Box 9004 (Section 4 of the
Buckeye pipeline)

12. A *


13. You are the officer of Ladder 157 and while 10-8 receive a run to box 9004 (Buckeye
pipeline). After you consult the above Unit alarm assignment card you would be correct to?
a. Report to the staging area and await orders from the IC
b. Return to quarters to pick up additional cans of foam concentrate
c. Refer to the appropriate instruction card to determine which unit you are replacing
d. Return to quarters to pick up the appropriate maps and wrenches
e. Contact the dispatcher

13. E *

4.2.1 Units designated as Alternate Units are not to be confused with multiple alarm
units. These are assignment cards specifically for pipeline boxes. Some
Alternate Units are designated as such for more than one company (example:
Staten Island responses); consequently, if not specifically assigned as an alternate
for a particular company, the officer shall ascertain from the dispatcher for which
company his or her unit is an alternate. This is necessary to determine the unit's
duties as specified on the UAAC and related Instruction Cards.

Decks in Firetech Class (61):