Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VIR > Opening Round > Flashcards

Opening Round Flashcards

1
Q

Case 43
What ECG finding is concerning prior to pulmonary arteriography?
How is it circumvented?

A

Left bundle branch block

Transcutaneous pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Case 44

What is the most common source of emboli in lower extremities?

A

Left heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Case 45

What is the average patency rates of GJ tubes versus G tubes?

A

GJ tubes tend to occlude more often due to longer length and smaller diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Case 46

Are varicoceles more common on left or right?

A

Left side more common (or bilateral)

Right sided varicoceles in isolation warrant further imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Case 46

In varicocele embolization, which parts of the vein should be embolized?

A

From the superior pubic ramus to the orifice of the vein, including collateral channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Case 47

What % of patients with DVT develop post-thrombotic syndrome?

A

25-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Case 47

What are the signs/symptoms of post-thrombotic syndrome (PTS)?

A

Edema, aching, venous claudication, hyperpigmentation, ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Case 49

In a circumaortic left renal vein, where should an IVC filter be placed?

A

Ideally, below the lowest renal vein due to risk of circumvention of thrombus around filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Case 50

What is the primary patency rate of renal artery angioplasty?

A

60-70% 5-year patency for non-ostial lesions

25-50% 5-year patency for ostial lesions (usually need to be stented)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Case 51

For acute SMA thrombosis/embolism, what is the most appropriate therapy?

A

Emergent surgical thrombectomy

Endovascular techniques have not been shown to be as effective, unless very short segment proximal lesion allows for stenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Case 52

Name some reasons subclavian catheters should be avoided?

A
  1. Risk of PTX
  2. Pinch off syndrome
  3. Higher incidence of venous thrombosis
  4. Can compromise future AVF creation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Case 54

Why is MRI useful prior to UFE?

A
  1. Determine relative vascularity
  2. Identify vascular variants (ovarian, etc)
  3. Distinguish from locally aggressive tumors (sarcoma) or adenomyosis
  4. Characterize fibroids (pedunculated, subserosal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Case 55

What is the most common upper extremity arterial branching variant?

A

High origin of the radial artery (7-8%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Case 56

What is May-Thurner syndrome?

A

Left common iliac compression/DVT from right common iliac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Case 56

What is the preferred treatment of May-Thurner syndrome?

A

Catheter-directed thrombolysis, followed by left common iliac vein stenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Case 57
What are the most common causes of massive hemoptysis
1. In the non-Western world
2. In the Western world

A
  1. TB

2. CF, bronchogenic carcinoma, aspergillosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Case 57

What volume constitutes massive hemoptysis?

A

Usually 300-600 cc blood per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Case 57

What are the common findings of massive hemoptysis on bronchial arteriogram?

A

Vascular hypertrophy, tortuosity, neovascularity, pulmonary AV shunting
Active extravasation is rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Case 57

Where do the bronchial arteries typically originate?

A

Thoracic aorta at T5-T6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Case 57

What is the typical bronchial artery anatomy?

A

Usually 2 left arteries and 1 right (intercostobronchial trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Case 57

What embolic is usually used for BAE?

A

Particles (250-500 um). Coils not used due to exclusion for future treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Case 58

What are some strategies for occluded abscess drains?

A

More frequent flushes
tPA infusion (4-6 mg tPA in 50 cc NS)
Catheter manipulation/upsize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Case 60

What is the role for endovascular therapy in axillosubclavian vein thrombosis?

A

Typically reserved for cases refractory to medical therapy.

Up to 80% of patients become asymptomatic with anticoagulation alone due to mature collateral network formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Case 61
What is a risk when performing thermal ablation in subcapsular lesions (especially in the dome)?
What technique can be employed to reduce this risk?

A
  1. Diaphragmatic/chest wall thermal injury

2. Hydrodissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Case 62

In patients with thoracic outlet compression syndrome, what percentage have a cervical rib?

A

Up to 70%

Overall incidence of cervical rib is 0.5% of population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Case 63

What are important technical considerations when evaluating a patient for hemobilia s/p PTBD?

A
  • Biliary catheter occasionally needs to be removed over a wire to unmask the arterial injury
  • Have an angioplasty balloon ready to tamponade the bleed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Case 63

How are pseudoaneurysms treated with coils?

A

Important to coil distal to proximal across the pseudoaneurysm neck, to avoid backbleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Case 65

What would be the expected ABI in a patient with intermittent claudication?

A

0.5-0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Case 65

What would be the expected ABI in a patient with rest pain and without visible tissue loss?

A

0.2-0.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Case 65

How is aortoiliac junction stenosis treated typically?

A

Kissing stents, often bilateral regardless of the status of the non-diseased CIA

31
Q

Case 68

What are the indications for TIPS?

A

Variceal bleeding s/p failed endoscopic treatment, refractory ascites, hepatic hydrothorax

32
Q

Case 70

What is the incidence of duplicated IVC?

A

Approximately 2%

33
Q

Case 70

How would you place a filter in duplicated IVC?

A

Bilateral IVC filter or suprarenal filter

34
Q

Case 71

What are potential complications of lung cryoablation?

A

Pneumothorax (50-62%), hemoptysis, hemothorax

35
Q

Case 71

How often is chest tube placement needed following lung cryoablation?

A

12%

36
Q

Case 77

What are the branches of the posterior division of the internal iliac artery?

A

Iliolumbar a.
Lateral sacral a.
Sup. gluteal a.

37
Q

Case 77

What are the branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery?

A 
SO IV U MR PIG
Sup. vesical a. 
Obturator a. 
Inf. vesical a. 
Uterine a. 
Middle rectal a. 
Pudendal (internal) a. 
Gluteal (inf.) a.
38
Q

Case 82

What are some strategies for dealing with a fibrin sheath?

A

Low dose tPA
Angioplasty
Stripping (using a snare device from another access)

39
Q

Case 86

What are some arterial findings in hepatic cirrhosis?

A

Corkscrew appearance is seen when parenchyma becomes atrophic
Relative arterial flow is increased (due to decreased portal flow)

40
Q

Case 87

In which direction should a TJ liver biopsy sample be obtained if the cannula is within the middle hepatic vein?

A

Posterolaterally

41
Q

Case 88

What are the indications for iliac artery stent placement?

A

Technical failure of PTA (>30% residual stenosis or >10 mmHg gradient)
Recurrent stenosis following PTA
Arterial dissection
Eccentric or heavily calcified stenoses

42
Q

Case 89
What are PTX rates following lung biopsy?
How many need chest tubes?

A

PTX rate 15-30%

2-5% require chest tube

43
Q

Case 92

What is the normal hepatic venous pressure gradient (HVPG)? What are other important cutoffs to know?

A

Normal >5 mmHg
Portal hypertension >6 mmHg
Incr. risk of variceal bleeding >12 mmHg

44
Q

Case 93

What symptoms may be present with a renal AV fistula?

A

Hematuria
Hypertension
High output heart failure

45
Q

Case 94

What would increase the risk of hepatic ischemia when undergoing transarterial embolization?

A

Presence of portal vein thrombosis or portal hypertension

46
Q

Case 95

What is the indication for percutaneous drainage of a pelvic lymphocele?

A

Pain, fever, leg swelling (due to compression)

47
Q

Case 95

If there is persistent drain output s/p percutaneous drainage of a lymphocele, what can be done?

A

Ethanol sclerosis (which can sometime need to be done 2-3 times/week)

48
Q

Case 96

What is the risk of rupture of a popliteal aneurysm?

A

Relatively low risk (

49
Q

Case 96

What are the potential complications of popliteal artery aneurysm?

A 
Thrombosis (40%)
Distal embolization (20%)
50
Q

Case 96

What is the treatment of choice for popliteal artery aneurysm?

A

Surgical resection and bypass

51
Q

Case 97

What would you manage ruptured cholecystitis with pericholecystic abscess?

A

Percutaneous cholecystostomy + abscess drain

52
Q

Case 99

How often is arterial inflow the cause of HD graft malfunction?

A

Rarely (5-10%)

53
Q

Case 103

What is the likely cause of diffuse biliary strictures in a transplant patient?

A

Hepatic artery thrombosis/stenosis

54
Q

Case 104

What is the role for IVC filter placement in ‘free floating’ caval thrombus?

A

Indicated via jugular approach

55
Q

Case 108

CBD transection with biloma. How would you manage?

A

Biloma perc drainage first. After mature tract has formed, the biloma drain can be injected, facilitating PTBD if leak persists

56
Q

Case 109

What is internal iliac embolization performed in some EVAR cases?

A

When AAA involves CIA, endoleak can develop from cross-pelvic collaterals.

Ipsilateral IIA embolization can prevent

57
Q

Case 112

Name 3 physiologic test to diagnose renal artery stenosis.

A
  1. Catheter arteriography (>10 mmHg pressure gradient)
  2. Captopril renal scintigraphy
  3. Direct renal vein renin sampling
58
Q

Case 113

What is the ‘pseudovein’ sign seen in UGI bleeding?

A

Contrast collecting within a mucosal tear

59
Q

Case 113
In the setting of UGI bleeding due to Mallory-Weiss tear, what should be done if no extravasation is seen in the left gastric artery

A

Empiric embolization with Gelfoam

60
Q

Case 116

What are contraindications to vasopressin therapy for GI bleeding?

A

CAD, cerebrovascular disease, arrhythmia, severe HTN

61
Q

Case 117

What is the MC type of partial anomalous pulmonary venous return?

A

Right upper lobe vein draining to SVC

62
Q

Case 117

What is scimitar syndrome?

A

PAPVR where the right lower lobe pulmonary vein drains into the IVC

63
Q

Case 118

What are the findings of Takayasu arteritis?

A

Aortic arch and great vessel stenoses

64
Q

Case 118

What is the role of endovascular intervention for Takayasu arteritis?

A

PTA can be used for flow limiting stenosis IF the patient is not in the acute inflammatory phase.

65
Q

Case 120

What percentage of patients do not have clinical response following UFE?

A

10-15%

66
Q

Case 121

What artery is affected in hypothenar hammer syndrome?

A

Distal ulnar artery

67
Q

Case 121

What predisposes the ulnar artery to injury in hypothenar hammer syndrome?

A

Potential to be compressed by the hook of the hamate

68
Q

Case 121

What are the 2 subtypes of Type III endoleak?

A

Type IIIA - leak at junction of modular components

Type IIIB - leak due to graft defect

69
Q

Case 127

What is the 5 year patency of a carotid-subclavian bypass graft?

A

95%

70
Q

Case 132

What is high flow priapism?

A

Laceration of cavernous artery leading to constant flow of arterial blood into erectile tissue

71
Q

Case 132

What artery supplies the penis?

A

Internal pudendal artery

72
Q

Case 135

What are the preferred routes of establishing post-pyrloci enteral feeding?

A

Gastrojejunostomy and surgical jejunostomy

73
Q

Case 135

In what scenario would a primary percutaneous jejunostomy be required?

A

Poor operative candidate who has had prior gastrectomy, esophagectomy with gastric pullthrough

74
Q

Case 135

How are gastrostomy tubes and G-J tubes used differently (in terms of feeding)?

A

Gastrostomy tubes are bolused, G-J tubes need continuous low flow rates

VIR (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions