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Flashcards in Oral Exam Guide Deck (257):
1

When must the TSA access panel inspection be conducted?

Before the first flight of the day for that aircraft.
Before any flight departing the US to any foreign location (except Canada).
Before any flight departing a foreign location to the US (except Canada).
Upon arrival into the US from any foreign location (except Canada).

2

Is there a requirement to open an access panel secured with a screw fastener
during the aforementioned TSA inspection?

No, crewmembers are not required to open any panel that requires a screw
driver in order to open the panel.

3

How can an RVSM critical area be identified?

RVSM critical areas may be identified by markings surrounding the areas of
the fuselage adjacent to the primary static sources.

4

When inspecting RVSM critical areas, what conditions would preclude flight in
RVSM?

Creases, dents, deformations or bulges in the skin and/or deformations of the
static sources. On the other hand, rub marks, dirt without obvious damage or
deformation DO NOT preclude RVSM operations.

5

What requirement exists for the nose gear static discharger?

It must be touching the ground.

6

How many static dischargers are found on EP/LR wings versus an XR aircraft?

5 static dischargers are installed on each EP/LR wing. 7 static dischargers
(including winglets) are installed on each XR wing.

7

Can the aircraft be dispatched with missing static dischargers?

Yes, dispatch of an aircraft is permitted with missing static dischargers
provided that they are deferred in accordance with the provisions of the CDL.

8

Regarding tire wear, what is the minimum acceptable condition of an aircraft tire?

The tire should not be worn past the bottom of the tire grooves. Operating
past the grooves will result in the loss of cut protection and penetration of the
first ply will render the tire unsatisfactory for retread.

9

How can brake wear be checked?

Brake wear can be checked by inspecting the brake wear indicators from a
vantage point in front of and behind the aircraft tires. A fully worn-out brake
exists when the brake wear indicator is flush with its housing. The parking
brake must be set prior to checking the brake wear indicators.

10

If a gear uplock hook is in the locked position, what must be done?

Maintenance action is required

11

When fluid is present within the nacelle drain sight glass, what else should be
checked prior to notifying maintenance?

The six holes located around the sight glass must be inspected for presence
of leaks, stains, or other evidence of fluid. If multiple indications of a leakage
are present and/or the leakage appears to be excessive or consists of
flammable fluids, Maintenance must be notified.

12

What would a missing safety disc next to the oxygen service panel indicate?

A missing disc indicates that the oxygen system has been over-pressurized
during servicing.

13

How many vortex generators are installed above each wing?

There are 12 vortex generators installed on the upper surface of each wing.

14

How many vortilons does each wing have?

There are 4 vortilons on the lower surface of each wing.

15

Who calls for all checklists while on the ground?

The Captain.

16

Who may do the Termination checklist?

The Termination checklist may either be performed as a single pilot checklist,
or by having the First Officer challenge and the CA respond to all items.

17

When must the full Receiving checklist be accomplished?

If a Terminating checklist was completed on the previous flight.
If there was a change in crew.
If any maintenance action/inspection has taken place.
Anytime the configuration of the aircraft may have been changed during a
ground layover.

18

May “XR Only” checklist items be skipped if in an LR/EP?

Yes

19

What emergency equipment is located in the cockpit?

2 escape ropes, 3 smoke goggles, 3 life jackets, 1 PBE, 1 Halon extinguisher,
1 crash ax, 2 flash lights.

20

Is the Supplementary Performance Manual required to be on board?

No. However if it is missing, it should be replaced as soon as practicable.

21

What is the procedure to use if the status LED light for the CVR does not
illuminate?

Plug a headset into the CVR plane, press the TEST button and listen for a
tone.

22

When must you start the APU as soon as possible after establishing power to the
aircraft?

If the battery voltage is below 24V but more than 19V.

23

How do you test the crossfeed valve?

Go to LOW 1 and LOW 2, look for the FUEL XFEED OPEN advisory
message and for the respective pump to turn off.

24

What EICAS messages are shown during a fire detection test?

ENG 1(2) FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE, E1 (2) FIRE DET FAIL, and APU
FIREDET FAIL.

25

What is the procedure to use if, after a fire test, if the BAGG EXT button remains
illuminated?

Wait 6 seconds, then repeat the test by pressing and holding the fire
detection test button for at least 2 seconds.

26

When does the APU Generator come online?

Once reaching 95% plus 7 seconds (unless GPU is being used).

27

What procedure is used if the APU generator exceeds 500 Amps?

Turn the #1 BATT knob to OFF. Once 3 minutes have passed or the load
decreases below 400 A, whichever occurs later, turn the #1 BATT knob back
to AUTO and place the shed bus selector to OVRD.

28

When does the CVR begin recording?

As soon as power is established to the aircraft.

29

When do the engine driven generators come online?

56.4% N2.

30

An EMB-145XR is approximately how long?

98 feet in length.

31

Which doors, when open, will cause an “ACCESS DOOR OPN” EICAS message?

Under cockpit access hatch, forward electronic access hatch, rear electronic
access hatch.

32

What doors, if open, give a MASTER CAUTION or MASTER WARNING?

Master Caution: access panels (forward avionics, rigging bay, rear avionics),
emergency exit access panels, fuel access panel). Master Warning: main
and service door (anytime in flight or on the ground with ENG 1 running)

33

Which doors on the MFD DOORS page are not pressurized?

Forward avionics compartment, fuel access panel.

34

Does the ELT battery receive a charge from the electrical system?

No, the ELT contains its own internal battery and is not charged by the
electrical system.

35

How many Halon fire extinguishers and PBE’s does the EMB-145 contain?

3 of each.

36

What type of fire extinguisher should be used to fight burning paper?

An H20 fire extinguisher.

37

In an electrical emergency (essential power mode), will RMU 1 remained powered?

Yes.

38

Does the takeoff configuration warning test for two engines running/operating?

No

39

During a decreasing performance windshear warning, should the aircraft be
immediately re-configured to Gear Up/Flaps 9°?

No.

40

What does pressing the takeoff configuration button check for?

Pitch trim between 4°-8° (green band), flaps between 9°-22°, parking break
not set, and spoilers stowed

41

What happens if the DAU 1A channel fails? What pilot action should be taken to
restore lost data?

Engine #1 indications are replaced with amber dashes. Per the QRH, select
the appropriate EICAS reversionary button, however not all data will be
restored.

42

When is the aircraft aural warning unit tested?

As soon as the electrical system is powered, provided the aircraft has been
de-energized for at least 2 minutes (Power Up Test).

43

What will be heard if the aural warning unit test is successful?

If both aural warning unit channels are operating properly, the voice message
“AURAL UNIT OK” is generated

44

During a failure of symbol generator 1, would RMU 1 automatically display engine
backup page 1 indications?

Yes.

45

The EICAS caution message “AURAL WARN FAIL” will only be presented when?

The message is displayed when both channel A and channel B of the aural
warning unit have failed simultaneously.

46

How many transponders are on the EMB-145 aircraft?

2

47

How do the 5 cockpit CRTs appear following the loss of DC Bus 2?

Red ‘X’ on MFD 2, MFD 1 and PFD 2 are blank.

48

A failure of an ADC would be indicated by___________. The proper corrective
action is to______________.

A red X failure indication appearing on the airspeed tape, altitude tape, and
the vertical speed pointer is removed and replaced by a red boxed VS.
Reference the QRH Navigation/Flight Instruments Failures Index, press the
associated/affected side ADC button on the reversionary panel per the QRH.
This will allow cross-side ADC information to be used, operation in RVSM
airspace not authorized; notify ATC.

49

What does an amber HDG comparator flag on the PFD/MFD indicate?

A difference of 6 degrees between the heading information compared by the
two symbol generators.

50

When would an amber IAS comparator flag be presented?

When the CA and FO indicated airspeeds (calibrated) differ by more than 5
knots for longer than 2 seconds.

51

What messages will be presented if the CA side AHRS fails:

The Captain’s PFD and MFD will display the following messages: ATT FAIL
(EADI), HDG FAIL (Digital Compass), and HDG FAIL (MFD Digital Compass
if map view is selected).

52

What does the message ‘CAS MSG’ indicate when presented on the PFD?

There is a disagreement between the IC-600’s on the EICAS message
displayed.

53

If the EICAS screen fails, will the information be displayed anywhere else
automatically?

No, the information doesn’t appear anywhere immediately. EICAS
information is only automatically displayed on the RMU engine page
automatically following an SG1 failure.

54

When does the digital flight data recorder begin recording?

By turning on the beacon or weight off wheels

55

What indications would be displayed on the MFD and PFD immediately following
an AHRS 2 failure?

ATT FAIL, HDG FAIL, HDG FAIL (on MFD if in MAP mode)

56

When will the stick shaker activate?

When the aircraft symbol touches the PLI.

57

When your airspeed is in the amber band of the low speed awareness tape, what
color is the PLI?

The PLI is red.

58

When is the stick pusher inhibited?

 On the ground (except during the test)
 Below .5 G
 If the quick disconnect button is kept pressed
 Below 200 ft. AGL (reverts to 10 seconds after takeoff if the radio altimeters
have failed)
 If either SPS cutout button has been pressed (released or, unlatched button
position)
 Above 200 KIAS
 If at least one SPS channel is inoperative

59

What does the EICAS message SPS ADVANCED indicate?

SPS ADVANCED indicates that Stick shaker and pusher actuation is set to
lower AOAs (higher speeds) due to a system component failure.

60

Under what conditions will the electrical system operate as two separate,
independent systems?

When 4 or more generators are online.

61

When is the ground service bus powered?

The ground service bus will be powered when a GPU is powered and
plugged into the aircraft but not selected and the batteries are off.

62

What buses are energized while in the essential power mode?

The essential buses, hot battery buses and the central dc bus.

63

Which of the following is still available in essential power mode? Flaps,
pressurization, and/or normal gear extension.

Normal gear extension.

64

Describe the number of generators and respective voltage of the electrical
system.

5 generator each capable of producing 28 VDC and 400 amps.

65

Can the GPU be used to recharge the main aircraft batteries?

No, BC1 and BC2 open automatically when the GPU is selected and
supplying power.

66

What items are powered from the 115 VAC Bus?

TCAS, E-GPWS, Windshear.

67

Which electrical bus supplies power to the ISIS on the 145XR?

The backup battery hot bus.

68

Under what conditions are shed buses powered while on the ground?

With GPU powering the aircraft and the shed bus switch in the auto or
override position.
With at least one generator online and the shed bus in the override position.
With 3 or more generators online.

69

How many minutes will the NICAD main batteries supply power in flight when in
the essential power mode?

40 minutes or 45 minutes with pitot/static 3 heat deselected.

70

Will the electrical system still be configured as two separate systems after the
loss of the APU generator and engine driven generator 1?

No. At least 4 generators must be online to have redundant electrical
systems.

71

Of the cockpit screens, FMS, RMU’s, and flight instrumentation, which are
available in the essential power mode following a loss of all generators?

The EICAS, RMU1/2, and the standby instruments/ISIS.

72

What criteria must be established in order to have shed bus power in flight?

At least 3 generators must be online for shed bus power in flight.

73

With GPU power available and selected, where should the shed bus switch be
positioned to energize the shed buses?

Auto or Override.

74

Is DME available when is essential power mode?

VOR or LOC type approaches may be flown so long as DME is not required.

75

Define the EICAS master warning ELEC ESS XFR FAIL.

The electrical system has failed to properly transfer into the essential power
mode following a loss of all generators.

76

What is the function of the backup battery button on the overhead panel?

The backup battery button connects or disconnects the backup battery from
the electrical system (via hot bus1).

77

What does the GPU AVAIL inscription on the GPU button on the overhead panel
indicate?

The GPU AVAIL inscription indicates that the GPU is properly connected to
the aircraft receptacle and is some power is available (not necessarily
sufficient or stable power though).

78

What items are powered from the backup battery/backup hot bus?

The Electrical Distribution Logic, the 5 Generator Control Units and the ISIS
(XR only).

79

What is the power source for SG 2?

DC Bus 2.

80

How are the emergency light batteries charged?

The emergency light batteries are charged by Essential DC Bus 2.

81

How are the aisle pathways illuminated on the XR, and what charges it?

The aisle path lighting is provided from photoluminescent strips. The strips
must be charged by allowing an un-obstructed exposure to the normal cabin
lighting for 10 minutes on the first flight of the day.

82

What power source energizes the emergency lighting system on the 135 EP/LR,
145 EP/LR?

Four dedicated batteries provide power to the emergency lighting system.
The batteries are charged via essential DC bus 2 when they are not in use.

83

How long will the emergency lighting last?

The batteries will provide power for approximately 15 minutes.

84

Is it possible for the flight attendant to activate emergency lighting if the cockpit
emergency light switch is set to OFF?

Yes, the flight attendant may override the cockpit switch and turn on
emergency lighting anytime.

85

Can the emergency light batteries be charged while they are in use?

No, the batteries are only charged when the emergency light switch is in the
ARM position and the lights are not in use.

86

Will the nosewheel taxi and landing light remain illuminated following gear
retraction?

Will the nosewheel taxi and landing light remain illuminated following gear
retraction?

87

What is the power source of the nosewheel taxi and landing lights?

The nosewheel lights are shed bus powered.

88

How can the flight crew determine whether or not the lavatory fire extinguisher
has been used?

No cockpit indication is available. The extinguisher is inspected by MX
personnel.

89

What occurs when the fire handle is pulled?

When pulled, the fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and engine lip anti-icing shutoff
valves of the associated engine are closed.

90

How many smoke goggles are in the cockpit?

3.

91

What generates a FIRE DET FAIL message?

Low pressure in the fire loop of the engine(s) and/or APU.

92

What happens when the APU EXT button is pressed?

When pressed, the APU fuel shutoff valve is closed, an APU shutdown is
initiated (a stop request signal is sent to the FADEC) and the APU fire
extinguisher bottle is discharged.

93

How many Halon fire extinguishers are available for the engines?

2 Halon fire extinguishers are installed and are useable by either engine.

94

Is APU fire detection and protection available when the aircraft is de-powered?

No.

95

How does pulling a fire handle affect the hydraulic system?

Pulling the fire handle closes the hydraulic shutoff valve. Hydraulic pressure
could still be supplied by the electric hydraulic pump on the associated side.

96

With a loss of all generators and the C fuel pumps selected, will the engines flame
out?

No. The A and B pumps continue to cycle to provide fuel pressure to the
engine. This is not seen anywhere since the MFD is lost.

97

What happens when the cross feed valve is placed to LOW 1?

The pump turns off in tank 1 and the cross feed valve opens.

98

Where is the cross feed valve placed when de-fueling?

Low 2.

99

Is a takeoff allowed with the Fuel Imbalance EICAS message displayed?

As long as the imbalance is not exceeded (800 lbs). The EICAS message
remains illuminated until the imbalance is within 100 lb.

100

How many fuel pumps are in each collector box?

3 electrical fuel booster pumps and 1 transfer ejector pump.

101

What does the EICAS warning FUEL LOW LEVEL mean?

Less than approximately 30 minutes of fuel remains in the respective tank.

102

What prevents pump cavitation during extended wing low maneuvers and uncoordinated
flight?

A collector box keeps the fuel pumps submerged in fuel. Flapper valves
prevent fuel from moving from the wing root to tip. An ejector pump also
assists in supplying fuel to the collector box.

103

When does ventral tank transfer occur on the EMB-145XR?

Automatic fuel transfer from the ventral tank to the main wing tanks occur
when both wing tanks individually have a quantity less than 4630 lbs. for 30
at least 30 seconds.

104

Tank 1 has 3500 lbs. Tank 2 has 3700 lbs. How should the crossfeed switch be
positioned to balance fuel?

The switch should be set to LOW 1.

105

Is it possible to transfer fuel from between the main wing tanks?

No, fuel cannot be transferred between the two wing tanks.

106

What fuel pumps are available when DC power is lost?

The A and B pumps in each wing tank are available.

107

What happens if the selected fuel pump fails?

If fuel pressure drops below 6.5 psi, the remaining wing pumps are
automatically switched on and start cycling, until the pilot selects one of them.

108

Where is the MFD fuel temperature value measured?

The temperature is measured in the left wing tank.

109

Is fuel crossfeed available without DC power?

Yes, the valve is essentially powered.

110

What happens when the APU fuel shutoff button is pressed?

The APU Fuel SOV closes and the APU fuel solenoid valves close (via a
request signal).

111

What controls the APU?

A FADEC.

112

What will the APU shut down for automatically on the ground? In flight?

On the ground, essentially any malfunction (Fire, after 10 seconds), in flight,
anything not heat related.

113

What is the minimum battery voltage for attempting an APU start?

19.0 V

114

What power sources may be used to start the APU?

Three power sources may be used to start the APU: a GPU, battery 2 alone
or battery 2 assisted by the main generators. Battery 1 cannot be used for
APU starting; instead, it is isolated from the load buses to provide stable
electrical power for voltage-sensitive equipment.

115

Three power sources may be used to start the APU: a GPU, battery 2 alone
or battery 2 assisted by the main generators. Battery 1 cannot be used for
APU starting; instead, it is isolated from the load buses to provide stable
electrical power for voltage-sensitive equipment.

An automatic shutdown will occur 10 seconds after a fire is detected or after
holding the fire detection test button 10 seconds.

116

What controls the APU starting sequence?

A dedicated FADEC.

117

What is the procedure for stopping the APU?

Press the STOP button, monitor deceleration to 0% RPM. At 0% RPM,
select the APU master knob to the OFF position.

118

What will not cause an APU automatic shutdown in flight?

Any heat-related malfunction.

119

What actuates the stators equipped with compressor variable geometry?

The stators are positioned by means of fuel pressure from the FPMU.

120

What is the power source for the engine ignition system (igniters)?

The PMA above 10% N2. Nothing below 10 N2%

121

Of the following thrust ratings, which is not selectable via the T/O data setting
function? ALT-TO, TO, E-TO, TO-RSV

TO-RSV

122

What thrust ratings are available for the XR using the T/O data setting function?

ALT-TO, TO, E-TO.

123

What is the power source of the engine FADECS?

The PMA at all engine speeds above 50% N2, otherwise, the FADECS are
powered by the essential buses.

124

When approximately is fuel introduced during the engine starting sequence?

Fuel should be introduced at approximately 28.5% N2.

125

Where can engine oil quantity be monitored? What

MFD TO page.

126

What portion of the compressor section is equipped with compressor variable
geometry?

The inlet guide vane and the first five stages of the compressor.

127

Of the following, which component is not located in the engine’s accessory drive
gear box? Engine driven generator, oil pump, ejector pump, hydraulic pump.

Ejector pump.

128

What happens when a thrust reverser deploys in flight?

The FADEC reduces the engine thrust to idle.

129

What happens to the engine when the FADEC in control fails?

The other FADEC takes over control of the engine.

130

What will happen to the engine in the event of an N1 overspeed?

The FADEC will initiate an automatic engine shutdown

131

What drives the items on the Accessory Drive Gearbox?

The items on the Accessory Gearbox are driven by the high-pressure spool
via the tower shaft.

132

What happens when both FADECs for an engine fails?

An engine shutdown would occur. The engine requires at least one FADEC to
operate.

133

Which hydraulic accumulator is responsible for supplying hydraulic pressure for
emergency brake applications?

System #2 accumulator.

134

The System 2 accumulator has enough stored hydraulic pressure to supply a total
of ________ applications or ________ hours of continuous emergency brake
pressure?

6 applications or 24 hours.

135

During normal flight, the engine drive hydraulic pump supplies a total pressure
output of _______ PSI.

3,000 PSI.

136

Which hydraulic system is responsible for flap operation?

Neither, the flap motors are DC powered and do not depend on hydraulic
power for operation.

137

Assuming both engines running with the electric hydraulic pump knob in the
AUTO position, what is the status of the electric hydraulic pumps?

The pump is kept in standby until the engine driven pump pressure drops
below a set value of 1600 PSI or the associated engine N2 drops below a set
value of 56.4%N2.

138

Can the hydraulic system temperature be monitored on the EICAS or MFD’s?

No.

139

The ailerons are normally powered by which hydraulic system(s)?

System 1 and System 2.

140

Can the hydraulic quantity for system 1 and system 2 be monitored?

Yes, MFD (HYD) Hydraulics page.

141

If describing the hydraulic systems what is the main difference between system1
and system 2 from a mechanical/components standpoint?

System 1 utilizes a priority valve.

142

What is the purpose of the priority valve in hydraulic system 1?

It restricts hydraulic pressure from the landing gear during retraction to
ensure adequate hydraulic pressure for the flight controls during electric
hydraulic pump operation. The system 1 accumulator pressure will provide
the necessary pressure required for gear retraction during this particular
instance.

143

In essential power, are the electric hydraulic pumps powered?

No, they are DC powered.

144

The hydraulic accumulator #1 provides pressure for what?

Landing gear retraction.

145

The hydraulic accumulator #2 provides pressure for what?

Emergency Brakes.

146

In normal cruise flight conditions, the electric hydraulic pumps are producing a
psi output of___________.

O PSi.

147

The nose wheel steering is hydraulically powered by which hydraulic system?

Hydraulic System 1

148

During a hydraulic system test, what is the first step in performing the test?

Ensure that the nose wheel steering is disengaged and both engine
hydraulic pump shutoff buttons are deselected (normal position).

149

On the nose landing gear tires, the tire chines are mounted outboard or inboard?

Outboard.

150

When using the emergency brakes, do you have the anti-skid, locked wheel and
touchdown protections?

No.

151

Describe the anti-skid braking function.

Anti-skid provides the maximum allowable braking effort for the runaway
surface in use. It minimizes tire wear, optimizes braking distance, and
prevents skidding. The BCU computes the wheel speed signals from the four
wheel speed transducers. If one signal/wheel falls below the wheel speed
average, a skid is probably occurring, and braking pressure is relieved on that
side. After that wheel speed has returned to the average wheel speed,
normal braking operation is restored. The anti-skid protection is available
above 10 knots wheel speed to allow the pilot to lock and pivot a wheel.

152

Describe the locked wheel protection.

If one wheel speed is 30% lower than that of another as calculated by the
wheel speed transducers and computed by the BCU, a full brake pressure
relief is commanded to the associated wheel, allowing wheel speed recovery.
The 30% tolerance between the wheel speeds is provided to permit an
amount of differential braking, for steering purposes. The locked wheel
protection is active above 30 knots wheel speed.

153

In essential power mode, is nose wheel steering available?

No.

154

When operating the emergency brakes, hydraulic pressure is applied to which
brakes?

All main gear brakes.

155

What does the Free-Fall actuator do?

It requires no electrical or hydraulic power to extend the landing gear. It
extends the gear by mechanically actuating the Free-Fall Selector Valve, thus
removing hydraulic pressure and unlocking the three landing gear leg uplocks
via cable linkage. All three gear then gravity fall to their downlock devices.

156

With a total loss of hydraulic system #1, will the landing gear deploy/operate
normally?

No.

157

When in essential power mode would you have normal braking?

Yes.

158

The nose wheel air/ground (WOW) sensor provides a signal for?

Nose wheels steering activation and thrust reverser logic.

159

Nose wheel tire rotation is stopped on retraction by a ________.

Mechanical snubber.

160

The landing gear is normally help up ___ and extended ___

Mechanically/Hydraulically.

161

What is the purpose of the landing gear over-center brace?

The over-center brace keeps the landing gear down and locked.

162

In essential power, how is the landing gear extended?

Normally.

163

Does the emergency brake provide anti-skid protection?

No, it has no anti-skid protection, touchdown protection, or wheel lock
protection.

164

The emergency brake lines supply how many brakes?

4 brakes.

165

If emergency brakes are all that remain due to system malfunction the hydraulic
accumulator 2 can provide how many applications of the emergency brakes?

6 applications of the emergency brakes or 24 hours.

166

If engine 1 is shutdown in flight, how is the landing gear extended?

Normally with the gear handle.

167

Will the landing gear deploy normally with a total loss of hydraulic system 1?

No, the gear will not deploy/operate normally. It must be deployed by using
the freefall actuator as directed by the QRH. Once the gear is deployed and
extended it cannot be retracted.

168

What is the maximum landing gear retraction speed?

200 KIAS.

169

When in manual reversion, the elevators, ailerons and rudder can all be actuated
mechanically.

Yes.

170

True/False. The flaps are powered by DC power.

True, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

171

ExpressJet allows landings to be made with the following flap settings.

Flaps 22°/Flaps 45°

172

Which panels are used as speedbrakes?

The outboard panels powered by hydraulic system number 2.

173

True/False: The ground spoilers open when the airplane is on the ground (WOW),
wheel speed >25 knots and a low TLA.

True.

174

During normal cruise flight (above 135 KIAS), the rudder Power Control Unit
receives hydraulic pressure from which hydraulic system?

Hydraulic system 2.

175

The EICAS message "FLAP LOW SPEED" is a result of a loss of __________.

One of the flap motors.

176

True/False: The gust lock prevents the movement of the ailerons.

False, the gust lock restricts the elevator from moving.

177

Ailerons are normally positioned utilizing how many hydraulic systems in flight?

2, both hydraulic system 1 and 2 power the ailerons in flight.

178

The caution "Rudder Overboost" means?

Rudder hydraulic system 1 is still on above 135 KIAS.

179

True/False: The rudder PCU is normally powered by both hydraulic systems below
135 knots KIAS

True.

180

True/False: The flaps are powered in essential power.

False, the two flap motors responsible for flap actuation are DC powered.

181

True/False: The speedbrakes will not open if the flaps are extended to flaps 22°.

True.

182

True/False: ExpressJet allows takeoffs to be made with flap 22 degrees selected.

False, Flaps 9 or Flaps 18 are the only approved takeoff flaps settings
approved for ExpressJet aircraft.

183

What are the requirements for the speedbrakes to be open?

The flap lever has to be at 0 or 9 degrees, the speedbrake lever has to be
selected to OPEN, a low TLA (thrust lever angle).

184

True/False: Pitch trim is accomplished by positioning the horizontal stabilizer.

By positioning the horizontal stabilizer.

185

Where does engine bleed air come from?

The 9th and 14th stages of the compressor.

186

How would the bleeds and packs be configured for a summer takeoff in IAH with
an MEL’d APU?

Engine bleeds open, APU bleed closed, PACKS off.

187

When does the aircraft use 14th stage bleed air?

Low thrust settings, cross-bleed engine starts, icing operations

188

What is the normal, in-flight position of the crossbleed knob and the crossbleed
valve?

The cross-bleed valve is in the AUTO position, and the cross-bleed valve is
closed.

189

When will the cross-bleed valve open automatically when the cross-bleed knob is
in the AUTO position?

During a cross-bleed start or anytime that there is demand for bleed air from
the other side of the system. Other examples include: engine 1 start from an
external air source and an engine 2 start with the APU.
17. Regarding the priority logic of the available bleed sources, if the APU

190

Regarding the priority logic of the available bleed sources, if the APU bleed was
selected open, what would occur after opening the engine 1 bleed valve?

The APU bleed valve would close.

191

What are the indications of a bleed leak?

A red ‘LEAK’ inscription appears over the button of the affected bleed.
Additionally, the EICAS BLD 1(2) LEAK master warning will be presented.

192

What automatically happens after a bleed leak has been detected?

The affected bleed valve should automatically close.

193

What indications would be visible on the APU bleed valve button if the APU is OFF
and the APU bleed valve is selected open?

A white line only. The ‘OPEN’ inscription would not be visible.

194

What does the message ‘BLD 1(2) OVTEMP’ mean?

A bleed over-temp message indicates that the air downstream of the precooler
is too hot. The bleed valve, however, will not automatically close.

195

While taxiing in icing conditions, is it possible for the APU bleed to be used on the
ground for the PACKS while simultaneously using engine lip anti-ice protection?

Yes, the bleed air used for engine lip anti-ice protection does not require the
engine bleed valve to be open.

196

When would the crossbleed valve open when in the auto position?

During a crossbleed engine start

197

How would the PACKS operate in icing conditions at 2000’ AGL in CLB thrust?

PACK 1 is off and PACK 2 is on.

198

What is a PACK overheat?

A PACK overheat is caused by the air leaving the pack being too hot.

199

How would the PACKS operate during a go-around at 1100 AGL?

Both PACKS would turn off.

200

What is a PACK overload?

This problem indicates that the air pressure entering the PACK is too high or
that the air temperature downstream of the compressor is too hot.

201

What altitude must be set in the pressurization controller?

The landing elevation

202

What is the maximum operational altitude with one PACK inoperative?

FL250

203

During a takeoff in icing conditions, when will pressurization begin?

The cabin will begin to pressurize when the PACKs are selected ON during
the after takeoff flow/checklist.

204

What is the static source of the Cabin Pressurization Acquisition Module (CPAM)?

Pitot/Static 3.

205

What is the function of the DUMP button on the automatic pressurization
controller?

The DUMP button will de-pressurize the cabin of the aircraft to an altitude of
14,500’ MSL or to the actual altitude of the aircraft, whichever is lower.

206

What is the purpose of the pressurization/ static ports located on the lower / rear portion
of the fuselage?

The purpose of the pressurization/static ports is to provide overpressure/
under-pressure relief should the cabin differential exceed 8.1 PSI or
-0.3 PSI.

207

Would engine lip anti-ice protection be available on the aircraft after a loss of all
DC power?

Yes. Although the engine lip anti-ice valve is DC powered, it fails in the open
position.

208

When is the wing and horizontal stabilizer anti-ice protection inhibited?

On the ground with a wheel speed < 25 knots.

209

What differences are found in the XR anti-ice systems compared to the other EMB-
135/145 variants?

The 145XR upper wing surface contains DC-powered clear ice detectors that
function on the ground only.

210

What power sources allows for electrical heating of Pitot/Satic 3?

An essential bus.

211

When will the clear ice detectors on the 145XR trigger a CLR ICE EICAS message?

On the ground only, when clear ice is detected on the upper surface of the
wing.

212

What is the functionality of engine lip anti-ice protection in the essential power
configuration with a loss of all generators?

The engine lip anti-ice system operates continuously and cannot be turned
off. The engine-lip anti-ice valve is DC powered and fails open.

213

During essential power with a loss of all generators, is wing and stabilizer anti-ice
protection available?

No, wing & stabilizer anti-ice is DC powered.

214

During ice test A, where should the override knob be positioned and how long
should the test switch be held?

The override knob should be placed in the ALL position and the test switch
must be held in each position for at least 10, no longer than 15 seconds.

215

How are the bleeds configured for a takeoff in icing conditions?

The engine bleeds should be open and the APU bleed should be closed.

216

Is it possible to use the APU bleed for air conditioning while taxiing in icing
conditions?

Yes. The APU bleed may be used to provide air conditioning. The engine lip
anti-icing bleed air is tapped off prior to the engine bleed valve. For this
reason, the engine bleed may be closed during a taxi in icing conditions.

217

When is engine lip anti-ice required?

Whenever the temperature is less than or equal to 10° C and at least one
form of visible moisture is present.

218

When is an ice protection penalty required when evaluating the runway analysis
charts?

Whenever Ref A/ICE ON is selected in the takeoff data during a takeoff in
icing conditions.

219

What ice protection is available for the static ports, pitot tubes, and TAT probes?

When will the ice protection system be automatically activated?

220

What differences exist between the oxygen mask testing procedures for the
CA/FO and the ACM?

The ACM does not have a dedicated test sliding control or a flow indicator
installed on the oxygen mask storage box. The ACM test must be
accomplished by momentarily placing the mask in the EMER mode while
listening for the flow of oxygen through the speaker on the CA or FO side.
One pilot must have their digital audio panel configured as follows: PTT yoke
switch set to HOT, BOOM selected out to MASK, SPKR OFF.

221

How can the crew be assured that the oxygen cylinder pressure regulating shutoff
valve is open?

By inspecting the cylinder head located behind the FO seat in the cockpit.
This should be accomplished during the cockpit safety inspection.

222

What supplies oxygen to the flight crew while wearing the oxygen mask?

The fixed oxygen cylinder.

223

When will the passenger oxygen masks drop when the passenger oxygen switch
is in the AUTO position?

At cabin altitudes of 14,000 ft, or 14,500 +/- 500 ft (XR).

224

What is the minimum pressure of the portable oxygen bottle allowed for dispatch?

1200 PSI.

225

What will occur if the passenger oxygen selector knob is set to MANUAL?

The oxygen masks will deploy immediately, regardless of cabin altitude.

226

What associated actions occur following the deployment of the passenger oxygen
masks?

The NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign will automatically be
illuminated.

227

What provides oxygen supply for the passenger oxygen masks?

Oxygen is supplied via chemical oxygen generators.

228

What is the purpose of the green discharge indicator on the fuselage, adjacent to
the oxygen service panel?

The green discharge indicator provides evidence of over-servicing of the
oxygen cylinder if it is missing/blown out.

229

What must occur for the passenger to receive oxygen from the mask?

They must pull downward on the mask to commence the oxygen generation
and the flow of oxygen.

230

What does the OXYGEN LOW PRESS EICAS message indicate?

The message indicates that the crew oxygen system (fixed cylinder) pressure
is at or below 400 PSI.

231

The standby instruments receive information from which aircraft pitot/static
source?

Pitot/Static tube 3.

232

Can COM 3 be used for voice communication when the emergency button (EMER)
is pushed in (selected) on the digital audio panel?

No.

233

What does the emergency button (EMER) on the digital audio panel do?

The Captain is connected directly to COM 1 and NAV 1 and the First Officer
is connected directly to COM 2 and NAV 2. Observer radio communication capability is
lost. Interphone is disabled.

234

Will the tuning backup control head (TBCH) remain powered in essential power?

No, it is powered by DC Bus 2.

235

How can the radar be brought out of FSBY on the ground?

The forced standby mode may be overridden on the ground by pushing the
STAB button 4 times in 3 seconds.

236

What is the function of the GAIN knob?

The GAIN knob can be used to vary the sensitivity of the receiver. This will
also result in a variance of color intensity displayed for a radar return.

237

What mode can be used to display areas where all radar energy has been
attenuated?

The REACT, or rain echo attenuation compensation technique mode.

238

Where does the standby airspeed indicator receive its pitot/static information
from?

Pitot/Static 3 provides dynamic pressure to the standby airspeed indicator.

239

What vertical speed does FLC give you in a descent above 12,000 feet?

2,000 FPM.

240

In Heading mode, Low Bank will give lateral guidance restricted to a maximum
bank angle of ____.

14°.

241

When pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground while taxiing:

TO mode is activated on the flight director.

242

What is the minimum engagement height for the autopilot (feet)?

500’ AGL.

243

On non-XR aircraft above 12,000 in FLC, the aircraft climbs at what speed?

270 KIAS until MACH 0.56.

244

Which button should be pressed to display FMS course data on the PFD?

FMS.

245

Full bank is equal to _______ degrees?

27°

246

At what altitude must the autopilot be disengaged on a CAT I ILS approach?

200’ AGL.

247

The aircraft heading must be within ___ degrees of the final approach course
(front course) prior to selecting the APR or NAV mode.

90°.

248

What actions will disconnect the autopilot?

Pilot actuation of either of the pitch trim switches, the ‘AP’ or ‘YD’ button on
the Flight Guidance Control Panel’, pressing the quick disconnect button.

249

During climb, FLC works just like.

IAS/Mach but with preset speeds.

250

True/False: The yaw damper is automatically turned on when the autopilot is
engaged.

True.

251

What pitch attitude does the GA flight guidance mode present immediately after
being armed (airspeed above the white band of the low speed awareness tape)?

10°.

252

The flight-guidance DES mode is programmed to function like.

VS mode but with preset vertical speeds.

253

Crews must always verify that the autopilot is coupled to the PF by looking at the
___________.

Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA).

254

If FMS is the selected NAV source on the display control panel, which button on
the flight control panel would push to arm LNAV?

NAV.

255

Arming the TO vertical flight guidance mode will position the command bars to:.

14° pitch up attitude - flaps 9°/13° pitch up attitude - flaps 18°.

256

What is the default vertical flight guidance mode?

PIT (pitch).

257

Pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground causes the following lateral/vertical
guidance to be displayed on the FMA.

ROL/TO (roll/takeoff).