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PACOP > Organic Pharm Chem > Flashcards

Organic Pharm Chem Flashcards

0
Q

The generic name of Nizoral

A

Ketoconazole

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1
Q

The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella typhi

A

Phenol coefficient

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2
Q

An antifungal preservative used in syrups, elixirs, ointments, and lotions containing components such as sugars that support mold growth.

A

Potassium sorbate

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3
Q

Brand names of miconazole

A

Monistat

Micatin

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4
Q

Brand names of clotrimazole

A

Lotromin

Mycelex

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5
Q

Sulfonamides used for burn therapy

A

Mafenide

Silver sulfadiazine

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6
Q

MOA of Sulfonamide

A

PABA antagonists

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7
Q 
The ff are preservatives except:
Undecylenic acid
Methyl paraben
Benzoic acid
Potassium sorbate
A

Undecylenic acid

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8
Q

The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:

A

Co-trimoxazole

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9
Q

It is the treatment of choice for chronic UTI

A

Cotrimoxazole

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10
Q

A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic

A 
Amphotericin B (from Streptomyces nodosus)
Nystatin (from Streptomyces noursei)
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11
Q

Benzyl penicillin is also known as

A

Penicillin G

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12
Q

Penicillin V is also known as

A

Phenoxymethyl penicillin

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13
Q

Ampicillin is chemically known as

A

D-alpha-aminobenzylpenicillin

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14
Q

First generation urinary tract anti-infective

A

Nalidixic acid

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15
Q

The first fluorinated quinolone

A

Norfloxacin

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16
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolones

A

Inhibit the replication of bacterial DNA by interfering with action of DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)

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17
Q 
Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
Ethambutol
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Streptomycin
A

Streptomycin (only 2nd line)

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18
Q 
These drugs are used in the treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:
Tinidazole
Chloroquine
Etofamide
Metronidazole
A

Chloroquine

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19
Q

It is the drug of choice for amoebiasis caused by Entamoeba histolytica, giardiasis caused by Giardia lambia and trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis.

A

Metronidazole

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20
Q

A fourth generation cephalosphorin

A

Cefepime

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21
Q 
This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:
Zidovudine
Chloroquine
Acyclovir
Metronidazole
A

Acyclovir

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22
Q

Acyclovir has potent activity against several DNA viruses, more commonly including?

A

Herpes simplex type 1 and 2 viruses
Varicella zoster virus (chicken pox)
Epstein-Barr virus

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23
Q

Zidovudine, a pyrimidine analog, is one of the most effective drugs approved for the treatment of what?

A

HIV infection and AIDS

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24
Q

It is the drug of choice in the treatment of erythrocytic falciparum malaria.

A

Chloroquine

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25
Q

The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples is

A

Clindamycin

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26
Q

The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:

A

Chemotherapy

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27
Q

Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues

A

Antiseptics

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28
Q

A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine

A

Povidone-Iodine

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29
Q

The generic name of new Merthiolate is

A

Benzalkonium chloride

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30
Q

MOA of quinolones

A

Inhibition of DNA gyrase

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31
Q

Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines

A

Biguanides

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32
Q

7 chloro 7-deoxy lincomycin

A

Clindamycin

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33
Q

This drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria

A

Cycloguanil

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34
Q

Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria

A

Mefloquine

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35
Q

It is recommended as a second-line treatment for chloroquine-sensitive or resistant Plasmodium falciparum malaria, and is deemed a reasonable alternative for uncomplicated chloroquine-resistant Plasmodium vivax malaria.

A

Mefloquine

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36
Q

An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness

A

Pentamidine

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37
Q

Trypanosomiasis refers to two chronic and eventually fatal diseases caused by Trypanosoma:

A

African sleeping disease (Trypanosoma brucei) and American sleeping disease (Trypanosoma gondii)

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38
Q

Methylated erythromycin

A

Clarithromycin

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39
Q

A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin

A

Amikin (amikacin)

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40
Q

Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza

A

Rimantadine
(Symmetrel is amantadine)
Amantadine and rimantadine have been shown to be equally effective in preventing influenza A infections

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41
Q

More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin

A

Levo

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42
Q

These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective

A

Sulfones

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43
Q

Mechanism of action of thiabendazole

A

Inhibition of cell division

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44
Q

This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis

A

Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon)

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45
Q

DOC for filarial infections

A

Diethylcarbamazine

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46
Q

Causative agents of lymphatic filariasis

A

Wucheria bancrofti

Brugia malayi

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47
Q

River blindness is caused by

A

Onchocerca volvulus

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48
Q

Active form of the sulfonamide

A

Ionized

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49
Q

Use of crotamiton

A

Scabicide

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50
Q

MOA of mebendazole

A

Decreased glucose uptake in the parasite (not affecting the host)

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51
Q

A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of apetite

A

Dexfenfluramine (Adifax)

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52
Q 
An example of a glycine conjugation pathway
Phenol to phenolsulfate
Benzoic acid to hippuric acid
Noradrenaline to epinephrine
Antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid
A

Benzoic acid to its glycine conjugate, hippuric acid

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53
Q 
The ff are characteristic of active transport, except:
Follow saturation kinetics
Expenditure of energy
Carrier mediated
Higher to lower conc gradient
A

Higher to lower conc gradient

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54
Q

These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease the pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools

A

Astringent

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55
Q

This anti-histamine possesses the same indication as that of diphenhydramine

A

Dimenhydrinate

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56
Q

Fertility vitamins:

A

Alpha tocopherol (vitamin E)

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57
Q

Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from

A

Vitamin D3

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58
Q

A metabolite of chloral hydrate

A

Trichloroacetic acid

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59
Q

A sample drug excreted via the saliva

A

Lidocaine

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60
Q

A vitamin A derivative used in the mgt of psoriasis

A

Etretinate (Tegison)

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61
Q

Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:

A

Ability to bind on a specific receptor

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62
Q

The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol

A

Primary

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63
Q

The antibacterial potencies of primary alcohols increase with molecular weight up to

A

C8

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64
Q

In alcohols, branching (increases/decreases) antibacterial potency

A

Decreases

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65
Q

Order of alcohols by decreasing potency

A

Primary>secondary>tertiary

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66
Q

Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins

A

Penicillenic acid

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67
Q

Cidex is the commercial product of

A

Glutarol

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68
Q

A dialdehyde used as a dilute solution for equipment and instruments that cannot be autoclaved

A

Glutarol disinfectant solution (glutaraldehyde)

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69
Q

Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render

A

Acid stability

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70
Q

Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render

A

Penicillinase resistance

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71
Q

A glycopeptide antibiotic

A

Vancomycin

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72
Q

A tumor is benign if

A

Tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur

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73
Q

1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to

A

1 billion cancer cells

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74
Q

The following are mucolytics, except
Bromhexine
Acetylcysteine
Caramiphen

A

Caramiphen is an antitussive whose activity is less than that of codeine

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75
Q

The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given

A

Via inhalation

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76
Q

Common side effects of long-term corticosteroid therapy are

A

Negative calcium imbalance (osteoporosis)
Impaired wound healing
Increased appetite
Hypertension

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77
Q

A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer

A

Depo-provera

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78
Q

DOC for absence seizure

A

Ethosuximide

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79
Q

An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens

A

Butylated hydroxytoluene (BHT)

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80
Q

Pentavalent antimony in the presence of HCl gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye

A

Para-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol

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81
Q

Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora

A

Guaiafenesin

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82
Q

Mescaline is a ________ derivative

A

Phenylethylamine

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83
Q

Anesthetic of choice for labor

A

Methoxyflurane

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84
Q

DOC for acute attack of migraine

A

Ergotamine (avamigran - derivative of ergotamine)

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85
Q

Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma

A

Enflurane

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86
Q

First propionic acid derivative

A

Ibuprofen (then joined by naproxen, fenoprofen, ketoprofen, flurbiprofen, and oxaprozin)

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87
Q

An example of iodophor

A

Povidone-iodine

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88
Q

Phenylmethanol is also known as

A

Benzyl alcohol

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89
Q

A characteristic of cancer cells:

(1) lack of normal growth controls
(2) synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase
(3) G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
(4) none of the above

A

(1)

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90
Q

Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper

A

Polychlorinated biphenyl

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91
Q

Prostaglandins are also known as

A

Eicosanoids

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92
Q 
Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?
Imide
Amide
Amine
Aniline
A

Amine

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93
Q

Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are

A

Oral hypoglycemics

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94
Q

A necessary precursor of visual pigment is

A

Retinal

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95
Q

Paracetamol is a/an

A

Aniline derivative

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96
Q 
All of the ff are progestins except:
Norethindrone
Testosterone
Ethynodiol diacetate
Progesterone
A

Testosterone

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97
Q

Aspiring is to salicylic acid as morphine is to

A

Heroin

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98
Q

The functional group in pyridoxine is

A

Alcohol

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99
Q

Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are

A

Enols

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100
Q

MAO is classified as a/an

A

Enzyme

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101
Q

When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is

A

Oil soluble antioxidant

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102
Q

Naturally occurring alkaloid derivatives of tropane are

A

Anticholinergics

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103
Q

Local anesthetic that is not a derivative of benzoic acid

A

Lidocaine

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104
Q 
All of the ff are macrolide antibiotics, except:
Erythromycin
Oleandomycin
Vancomycin
Spiramycin
A

Vancomycin is a tricyclic glycopeptide

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105
Q

Ativan has this generic name

A

Lorazepam

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106
Q

Plasil is

A

Metoclopramide

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107
Q

The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is

A

Salicylic acid

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108
Q

Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually

A

Ultra short acting

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109
Q 
Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following chemically:
Enzymes
Porphyrins
Proteins
Lipids
A

Lipids

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110
Q

The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its

A

Lipid solubility

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111
Q

The prototype narcotic antagonist is

A

Naloxone

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112
Q

Lysergic acid diethylamide is

A

Ergot derivative

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113
Q

Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is

A

Salicylic acid

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114
Q

Diamox has a generic name of

A

Acetalozamide

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115
Q

Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of

A

Meperidine

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116
Q

Cevitamic acid is

A

Ascorbic acid

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117
Q 
Match the brand names:
Atabrine
Artane
Aralen
Akineton
A

Quinacrine
Trihexyphenidyl HCl
Chloroquine phosphate
Biperiden

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118
Q

Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics

A

Kanamycin sulfate (Kantrex) is an aminoglycoside

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119
Q

Epinephrine is also known as

A

Adrenalin

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120
Q

1,3-dimethylxanthine

A

Theophylline

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121
Q

3,7-dimethylxanthine

A

Theobromine

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122
Q

Ethylenediamine salt of theophylline

A

Aminophylline

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123
Q 
Of the ff penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
Pen V
Methicillin
Carbenicillin
Oxacillin
A

Carbenicillin (has activity against P. aeruginosa)

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124
Q

Zantac is

A

Ranitidine

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125
Q

Tagamet is

A

Cimetidine

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126
Q

Pepcid, H2-bloc is

A

Famotidine

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127
Q

Axid is

A

Nizatidine

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128
Q

Cytotec is

A

Misoprostol

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129
Q

Ma huang is a/an

A

Alkaloidal amine

130
Q

It is the entire plant or the overground portion of Ephedra sinica

A

Ma huang (astringent, yellow)

131
Q

Procaine is chemically a/an

A

Esters

132
Q

The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an

A

Ether

133
Q

Aureomycin is

A

Chlortetracycline

134
Q

Bonamine is

A

Meclizine

135
Q

Meclizine is a

A

Meclizine is a moderately potent antihistamine used as an antinauseant in the prevention and treatment of motion sickness and in the treatment of nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo and radiation sickness

136
Q

Polyene antibiotics include:
Nystatin
Amphotericin B
Griseofulvin

A

Nystatin and Amphotericin B

137
Q

Among the three xanthines, it is the drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS

A

Caffeine

138
Q

A polysaccharide that is used as a plasma expander

A

Dextran

139
Q

Te combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:

A

Estrogen and progestin (most common)

140
Q

Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an

A

Silicone

141
Q

An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks

A

Tartaric acid

142
Q

This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics

A

Meperidine HCl (Demerol HCl)

143
Q

Benzaldehyde is synthetic

A

Bitter almond oil

144
Q

The ring common among penicillins and cephalosporins

A

Beta-lactam ring

145
Q

Retin-A is

A

Tretinoin

146
Q

Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action (3-6hrs)

A

Amobarbital, Butarbital, Talbutal

147
Q

Barbiturates with long duration of action

A

Barbital, Phenobarbital, Methabarbital

148
Q

Barbiturates with short duration of action

A

Pentobarbital, Secobarbital

149
Q

Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the

A

Collagen formation

150
Q 
CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
Methacarbamol, USP
Carisoprodol, USP
Baclofen
Buspirone
Meprobamate
A

Meprobamate

151
Q

DOC for genital herpes being potent against DNA formation

A

Acyclovir

152
Q

The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within erythrocytes

A

Primaquine

153
Q

Feldene is

A

Piroxicam

154
Q

Voltaren is

A

Diclofenac

155
Q

Depo-provera is

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

156
Q

Which of the ff actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonists

(1) increase in salivary excretion
(2) increase in gastric secretions
(3) vasodilation
(4) itchiness

A

(2) is controlled by H2 receptors

157
Q

Opium is an example of

A

Narcotic analgesic

158
Q

Opium is obtained from the unripe capsules of

A

Papaver somniferum

159
Q 
Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase:
Methicillin
Disodium carbenicillin
Ampicillin
Oxacillin
Phenoxymethyl penicillin
A

Oxacillin

160
Q 
A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:
Triamterene
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Chlorothiazide
A

Spironolactone

161
Q

Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are

A

Ototoxic

162
Q

Benzalkonium Cl is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of

A

Soaps and other anionic detergents

163
Q

Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it

A

Causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine

164
Q

The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _______ compound

A

Dibenzoxazepine

165
Q

Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to

A

Meperidine

166
Q 
Which of the ff is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
Ampicillin
Pen G
Na methicillin
K phenethicillin
A

Ampicillin

167
Q 
An antimanic agent:
Haloperidol
Lithium salts
LSD
Phenol
A

Lithium salts

168
Q

Liquefied phenol, USP:

A

Phenol containing 10% water

169
Q

Castellani’s paint

A

Carbol-fuschin solution

170
Q

This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper

A

Penicillamine

171
Q

Tetracycline is a

A

Broad-spectrum, bacteriostatic agent

172
Q 
Which of the ff is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?
Ether
Acacia
Methanol
Phenobarbital
Water
A

Acacia

173
Q

The drug used in all types of tuberculosis

A

Isoniazid

174
Q

Levarterenol (Levophed) is

A

L-norepinephrine

175
Q

The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Streptomycin

176
Q

The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is

A

Tetracyclines

177
Q

Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of?

A

Tetracycline

178
Q 
Which of the ff penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?
Polymyxin B
Pen G
Dicloxacillin
Carbenicillin
Streptomycin
A

Dicloxacillin

179
Q

The quinolone derivative effective against P. aeruginosa is

A

Norfloxacin

180
Q

Rancidity of fats may be due to

A

Oxidation of double bonds

181
Q

A thiazide diuretic can

A

Enhance the action of amphetamines

182
Q

Surfactants are characterized by

A

the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing groups in the same molecule

183
Q

Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole (Mintezol) are all:

A

Anthelmintics

184
Q

AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of

A

HIV or AIDS

185
Q

Is a folate-reductase inhibitor

A

Trimethoprim

186
Q

The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring

A

Penicillin

187
Q

Generic name of Duracef

A

Cephadroxil

188
Q

This preparation is used as pediculicide

A

Lindane (Kwell)

189
Q

An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei

A

Nystatin

190
Q

The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vinblastine

A

Periwinkle (Catharanthus roseus)

191
Q

A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer

A

Alopecia

192
Q

The generic name of Diabinese

A

Chlorpropramide

193
Q

A loop or high-ceiling diuretic

A

Furosemide

194
Q

This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic

A

Mannitol

195
Q 
These are narcotic analgesics, except:
Morphine
Codeine
Nalbuphine
Mefenamic acid
A

Mefenamic acid

196
Q

This is the prototype inhalation anesthetic

A

Halothane

197
Q

Levodopa is used in the treatment of

A

Parkinson’s disease

198
Q

Generic name of Nubain

A

Nalbuphine HCl

199
Q

Methenamine is also called

A

Urotropin

200
Q

Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with

A

Pyridoxine

201
Q

A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic name of Antiox

A

Mebendazole

202
Q

A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches

A

Nicotine

203
Q

Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat infections caused by

A

Strongyloides

204
Q

One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain infections is to

A

Prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria

205
Q

ACE inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the following adverse reactions?

A

Cough, proteinuria, rashes, fever, hyperkalemia

206
Q 
Which of the ff chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the CSF?
Streptomycin
Gentamicin
Tobramycin
Chloramphenicol
Cefalexin
A

Chloramphenicol is completely absorbed via the oral route

207
Q

Father of chemotherapy

A

Paul Ehrlich

208
Q

Ineffective administration of nitroglycerin

A

Oral

209
Q

This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol

A

NO2 group

210
Q 
Diazepam is used in the tx of the ff, except:
Anxiety
Status epilepticus
Skeletal muscle spasm
Analgesia
Preoperative sedatkon
A

Analgesia

211
Q 
Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:
3rd gen
Resistant to B-lactamase
Administered parenterally
OD
Resistant to acid
A

Resistant to acid

212
Q 
All of the ff subs are present in opium, except
Thebaine
Methadone
Codeine
Morphine
Papaverine
A

Methadone

213
Q

An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity

A

Acetaminophen

214
Q

The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents

A

Methoxyflurane

215
Q 
Which of the ff antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite:
Methotrexate
Thioguanine
Etoposide
Fluorouracil
Cytarabine
A

Etoposide

216
Q

Which of the ff statements is NOT TRUE regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?

(1) highly ionized in solution
(2) bactericidal
(3) more effective in alkaline medium
(4) ototoxic and nephrotoxic
(5) easily absorbed after oral admin

A

(5)

217
Q

Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in

A

Spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis

218
Q

Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of these is NOT TRUE?

(1) they chelate calcium ions
(2) predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in infant
(3) cause abortion
(4) cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
(5) deposited in growing bones

A

(3)

219
Q 
All the ff antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:
Ampicillin
Kanamycin
Streptomycin
Neomycin
Amikacin
A

Ampicillin

220
Q

For the tx of systemic mycosis, which antifungal can be administered by IV?

A

Amphotericin B

221
Q 
Which of the ff agents is NOT used for local candidiasis?
Nystatin
Gentian violet
Griseofulvin
Miconazole
Clotrimazole
A

Griseofulvin - fungistatic, effective only for dermophytes (Trichophyton, Microsporum, Epidermophyton)

222
Q 
All of the ff are useful against Ascaris lumbricoides, except:
Piperazine
Niridazole
Mebendazole
Pyrantel pamoate
Thiabendazole
A

Niridazole - for schistosomiasis (Schistosoma haematobium)

223
Q

What drug possesses “triad of features” which includes antiamebic, antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal?

A

Mebendazole

224
Q

Heparin is a/an

A

Extract of animal tissue

225
Q

The DOC for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria

A

Cloroquine

226
Q

Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite

A

Will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis

227
Q

DOC for ringworm infection is

A

Griseofulvin

228
Q 
Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in the following conditions, except:
Rheumatic disease
Patients with peptic ulcer
Patients with bronchial asthma
Children with influenza
Children with chicken pox
A

Rheumatic disease

229
Q

Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:

A

They are at least absorbed from oral route

230
Q

What is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?

A

It is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory with antipyretic and uricosuric actions

231
Q

What preparation is a depot penicillin?

A

Benzathine penicillin

232
Q 
All of the ff drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:
Aspirin
Dimercaprol
Protamine
Warfarin
Anisindione
A

Dimercaprol

233
Q

6-aminopenicillanic acid is

A

The common nucleus of all penicillins

234
Q

Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is

A

Related to meperidine

235
Q 
Class I antiarrhythmic drugs, except:
Quinidine
Procainamide
Disopyramide
Phenytoin
Amiodarone
A

Amiodarone

236
Q 
Which of the ff drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?
Clofibrate
Epinephrine
Destrothyroxine
Cholestyramine
Colestipol
A

Epinephrine

237
Q

What is the longest-acting nitrate?

A

Pentaerythritol tetranitrate

238
Q

What is the primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?

A

Carbamazepine

239
Q

What penicillin is acid stable and therefore orally effective?

A

Cloxacillin

240
Q

MAO inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug

A

Tranylcypromine

241
Q 
Which of the ff is not used for topical application on external surfaces?
Mafenide
Silver sulfadiazine
Sodium sulfacetamide
Sulfisoxazole
Resorcinol
A

Sulfacetamide sodium - ophthalmic

242
Q 
The ff benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:
Chlordiazepoxide
Clonazepam
Alprazolam
Lorazepam
Diazepam
A

Clonazepam - epilepsy, for absence and myoclonic seizures

243
Q

All of the ff statements are true concerning the penicillins, except

(1) damage the cell wall of bacteria
(2) piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against P. aeruginosa
(3) contraindicated to px with allergy to any one penicillin
(4) obtained from Streptomyces

A

(4)

244
Q

In choosing benzodiazepine for tx of insomnia, all are impt except

(1) age of px
(2) mental status of px
(3) half life of drug
(4) absorption of drug
(5) underlying sleep disorder

A

(2)

245
Q

Antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations

A

Bacitracin

246
Q

Preferred agent for HTN emergencies

A

Sodium nitroprusside

247
Q

Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates

A

Vidarabine

248
Q 
Which of the ff bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?
Adenosine
Cytosine
Thymidine
Guanine
Uridine
A

Guanine

249
Q

Vincristine is used primarily in the tx of?

A

Hodgkin’s disease

250
Q 
Which of the ff chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?
Carbenicillin
Gentamicin
Cefuroxime
Eryhtomycin
Vancomycin
A

Erythromycin

Macrolides are bacteriostatic generally, they may be cidal at higher doses.

251
Q

For the tx of systemic mycoses, what is the DOC that can be administered through IV route?

A

Amphotericin B

252
Q 
Penicillin is the DOC for the ff infective conditions, except:
Gonococcal
Pneumococcal
Treponema pallidum
Streptococcal
Pseudomonal
A

Pseudomonal

253
Q

Active metabolite of levodopa

A

Dopamine

254
Q

Active metabolite of prednisone

A

Prednisolone

255
Q

Active metabolite of bacampicillin

A

Ampicillin

256
Q

Active metabolite of cyclophosphamide

A

Phospharamide mustard

257
Q

DOC for scabies

A

Benzyl benzoate

258
Q

Sensitivity of gram (-) bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its

A

Amino group

259
Q 
Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the toxic effect of the ff, except:
Oxytetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Methotrexate
Mitomycin
Dactinomycin
A

Oxytetracycline

260
Q 
The ff possess antimalignant property except:
Mitomycin
Bleomycin
Streptomycin
Daunorubicin
Plicamycin
A

Streptomycin

261
Q

Utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin

A

Freeze-drying

262
Q

The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property

A

Sulfanilamide

263
Q 
Which of the ff antiviral agents is not useful for the tx of herpes viral infection?
Vidarabine
Interferon
Trifluridine
Acyclovir
Idoxuridine
A

Interferon

264
Q

All of the ff chemotherapeutic agents are prophylactic, except:
Amantadine against influenza A
Chloramphenicol against typhoid fever
Isoniazid against TB
Tetracycline against rickettsia
Pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas

A

Chloramphenicol is used as tx not prophylaxis of typhoid fever

265
Q

Amphetamine causes (hyper/hypo)tension

A

Hypertension

266
Q

Nitrous oxide is characterized by?

A

Low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation

267
Q 
A drug receptor may be all of the ff except
Isolable enzyme
Functional component of cell membrane
Protein or nucleic acid
Chelates
A

Chelates

268
Q

MOA of trimethoprim

A

Folate reductase inhibitor

269
Q

A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity

A

Agonist

270
Q

Antidote for Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

271
Q 
Which is not a chelating agent?
8-methoxyquinoline
8-mercaptoquinoline
8-hydroxyquinoline
4-AZA-Oxime
A

8-methoxyquinoline

272
Q

Dimercaprol is also known as

A

BAL
dithioglycerol
2,3-dimercapto-1-propanol

273
Q

Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure

A

Tetrachloroethylene

274
Q

Passive diffusion includes what drug?

A

Lipid soluble

275
Q

It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor

A

Affinity

276
Q

Brand name of bisacodyl

A

Dulcolax

277
Q

Pen G is also known as

A

Benzylpenicillin

278
Q

Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups

A

Silicons

279
Q

A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil

A

Eugenol

280
Q

Which vitamin B is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?

A

Cyanocobalamin

281
Q

A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo

A

Erythromycin

282
Q 
The ff antimalarials are synthetic except
Atabrine
Aralen
Camoquin
Quinine
A

Quinine

283
Q

Polyene antibiotics for fungi

A

Amphotericin B

Nystatin

284
Q

Also known as solvent shift

A

Bulk transport

285
Q

Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as

A

Refrigerant
Rubefacient
Astringent

286
Q

Carbonic acid gas

A

Carbon dioxide

287
Q

For px allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative

A

Erythromycin

288
Q

These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system

A

Adsorbents

289
Q

DOC for UTI

A

Co-trimoxazole

290
Q

MOA of sulfamethoxazole

A

Inhibits incorporation of PABA into folic acid

291
Q

MOA of trimethoprim

A

Prevents reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate

292
Q

Chemical name of Phenethicillin

A

Phenoxyethyl penicillin

293
Q

Uses of methylene blue except
CN poisoning
Nitrate poisoning
Barbiturate poisoning

A

Barbiturate poisoning

294
Q

MOA of this anti-tb is to inhibit protein synthesis

A

Streptomycin

295
Q

Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure

A

Chelates

296
Q

Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation

A

Absorption

297
Q

Methylsalicylate is also known as

A

Oil of wintergreen

298
Q

Agents that facilitate evacuation of bowels

A

Cathartics

299
Q

Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by

A

Azeotropic distillations

300
Q

Nubain is

A

Nalbuphine HCl

301
Q

Kaopectate

A

Kaolin + Pectin

302
Q

Least stable of all vitamins

A

Ascorbic acid

303
Q

A change in the structure of isoniazid causes

A

Decrease in the potency of the drug

304
Q

Most toxic vitamin

A

Retinoic acid

305
Q

Major organ for excretion

A

Kidney

306
Q

Generic name of Benadryl AH

A

Diphenhydramine

307
Q

A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections

A

Prontosil

308
Q

Halazone is a/an

A

Chlorine-containing anti-infective

309
Q

DOC for leprosy

A

Dapsone

310
Q

Metabolic function of niacin

A

Redox reactions

311
Q

Fat-soluble vitamins

A

A, D, E, K

312
Q

In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the

A

Stomach

313
Q

Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier

A

Helium

314
Q 
The ff drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except
Isoproterenol
Propranolol
Lidocaine
Paracetamol
A

Paracetamol

315
Q

A dye used in vital nerve staining

A

Methylene blue

316
Q

A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with

A

Chloramphenicol

317
Q 
Which is not true for cephalosphorins?
Broad spectrum
Bactericidal
Affected by penicillinase
Acid-stable
A

Affected by penicillinase

318
Q

Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of

A

Sulfamethoxazole and Trimethoprim

319
Q

What drug, in high doses, is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss?

A

Aspirin

320
Q 
An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:
Lasix
Geocillin
Morphine
Valium
A

Lasix

321
Q

All of the ff are correct except
Sulfonamides increase risk of neonatal kernicterus
Ketoconazole penetrates CSF
Metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
Mebendazole is the DOC for whipworm infections

A

Ketoconazole does not enter the CNS

322
Q

Large overdoses of acetaminophen are likely to cause

A

Hepatic necrosis

PACOP (4 decks)

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