Other Monitors Flashcards

1
Q

Temperature monitoring

A

the temperature of patients undergoing GA must be monitored

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2
Q

Hypothermia complications

A

is associated with delayed drug metabolism, increased blood glucose, vasoconstriction, impaired coagulation, and impaired resistance to surgical infection

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3
Q

Hyperthermia complications

A

leads to tachycardia, vasodilation, and neurological injury

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4
Q

Tympanic Membrane Monitoring

A

theoretically reflects brain temperature because the auditory canal’s blood supply is the external carotid artery

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5
Q

Rectal Temperatures

A

have slow response to changes in core temperature

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6
Q

Nasopharyngeal probes

A

prone to cause epistaxis, but accurately measure CORE temperature if placed adjacent to the nasopharyngeal mucosa

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7
Q

Axillary Temperature

A

there is variable correlation between axillary temp and core temp depending on skin perfusion

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8
Q

Liquid Crystal Adhesive Strips

A

these are placed on the skin and are inadequate indicators of core body temp during surgery

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9
Q

Esophageal Temperature Sensors

A

often incorporated into esophageal stethoscopes, provide the BEST combination of economy, performance, and safety.

To avoid measuring temp of tracheal gases, the temp sensor should be positioned BEHIND THE HEART in the LOWER THIRD of the esophagus

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10
Q

Urinary Output

A

is a reflection of kidney perfusion and function and an indicator of renal, cardiovascular, and fluid volume status.

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11
Q

Oliguria

A

inadequate urinary output is defined as output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr

This is a function of the patient’s concentrating ability and osmotic load

Urine electrolyte composition, osmolality, and specific gravity aid in the differential diagnosis of oliguria

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12
Q

Peripheral Nerve Stimulator Current

A

delivers a current of 60-80 mA to a pair of either ECG silver chord pads or subcutaneous needles placed over a peripheral motor nerve

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13
Q

Most commonly monitored areas for peripheral stimulation?

A

ulnar nerve stimulation of the adductor pollicis muscle

facial nerve stimulation of the orbicular is oculi

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14
Q

Train of Four Stimulation

A

denotes 4 successive 200-us stimuli in 2 sec (2 Hz)

The twitches in a TOF pattern progressively fade as NONDEPOLARIZING muscle relaxant block increases

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15
Q

Disappearing Twitches

A

disappearance of the 4th twitch represents 75% block

the 3rd twitch represents 80% block

the 2nd twitch represents 90% block

Clinical relaxation requires 75-95% neuromuscular blockade

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16
Q

Tetany

A

at 50 or 100 Hz is a sensitive test of neuromuscular function

sustained contraction for 5 sec indicates adequate - but not complete - reversal from NMB

17
Q

Double Burst Stimulation (DBS)

A

represents two variations of tetany that are less painful to the patient

18
Q

DBS 3,3 Pattern

A

consists of 3 short (200 us) high frequency bursts separated by 20 ms interval (50 Hz) followed 750 ms later by another 3 bursts

19
Q

DBS 3, 2 Pattern

A

consists of 3 200 us impulses at 50 Hz followed 750 ms later by two such impulses

20
Q

DBS pros

A

it is more sensitive than TOF stim for clinical (visual) evaluation of fade

21
Q

Muscle Group Differences

A

muscle groups differ in their sensitivity to NMB agents

recovery of adductor pollicis function does not exactly parallel recovery of muscles required to maintain an airway

22
Q

Which muscles recover first?

A

The diaphragm, rectus abdominis, laryngeal adductors, and obicularis oculi muscles recover from NMB sooner than do the adductor pollicis

23
Q

Other indicators of adequate muscle recovery

A

sustained (>5s) head lift, the ability to generate an inspiratory pressure of at least -25cm H2O, and a forceful hand grip

24
Q

Postoperative Residual Curarization (PORC)

A

remains a problem in post anesthesia care, producing injurious airway and respiratory compromise