Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

008 > Other Questions > Flashcards

Other Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is ARP?

A

Address Resolution Protocol

Used to map IP network addresses to the MAC addresses used by a data link protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Given the following network address: 192.168.1.0/25, what is the last usable IP address in this subnet?

Also explain why?

A

192.168.1.126

/25 means 128 IP addresses
Minus 2 for the network address and the broadcast address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A network engineer needs to create subnets within a Class A network. The engineer decides to use a certain subnet mask. How many possible hosts are available per subnet if the subnet mask is 255.255.0.0?

Also explain why?

A

65534 possible hosts

Class A network with a subnet mask 255.255.0.0 means /16 subnet. This means there are 16 bits available for host addresses (32 total bits - 16 network bits = 16 host bits). The formula to calculate the number of hosts is 2^n - 2, where n is the number of host bits. In this case, 2^16 - 2 = 65536 - 2 = 65534 hosts. The ‘-2’ accounts for the network and broadcast addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is traffic shaping?

A

AKA Packet Shaping

A congestion management method that controls bandwidth usage by network traffic. It can be used to prioritize, limit, or guarantee bandwidth to specific traffic types to prevent network congestion

delaying certain packet types—based on their content—to ensure that other packets have a higher priority. This can help to ensure that latency is reduced for critical applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which topology provides the highest redundancy?

A

Mesh

Each network node is connected to every other node. If one connection fails, there are still multiple paths for data to take.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the ‘dig’ command?

A

Domain Information Grouper

Used in Linux to troubleshoot DNS related issues. It can be used to pull up a wealth of DNS record information, which can help determine where a problem might lie.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False:

The “ping” command uses the ICMP protocol to test network connectivity

A

True

The ping command does use the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). It works by sending ICMP Echo Request packets to the target host and waiting for an Echo Reply, testing network connectivity and response time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is IPSec?

A

Internet Protocol Security

Provides security at the network layer, including data encryption and secure communication between hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is CRC?

A

Cyclical Redundancy Check

These errors usually indicate a problem with the cabling or a faulty port, as they are generally related to physical layer issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

nslookup

A

Command-line tool is best used to diagnose DNS servers. It can help find DNS details, like IP addresses of a particular computer, or the domain name and IP address of the DNS server for a particular organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MPLS

A

Multiprotocol Label Switching

Uses label-switching routers and label-edge routers to forward packets.

MPLS is a protocol-agnostic routing technique designed to speed up and shape traffic flows across enterprise wide area and service provider networks

QoS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SLA

A

Service Level Agreement

Define the level of service expected by a customer from a supplier, laying out the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

APIPA

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing

-when a DHCP server can’t be contacted.

169.254.0.1 - 169.254.255.254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Troubleshooting Methodology

A

Identify the problem
Establish a theory of probable cause
Test the theory to determine the cause
Establish Plan of Action
Implement Solution
Verifying full system functionality Document findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

OSI Model Layers

A

Physical Layer
Data Link Layer
Network Layer
Transport Layer
Session Layer
Presentation Layer
Application Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in an IP packet?

A

The TTL field in an IP packet is decremented by one each time the packet passes through a router. If the TTL field reaches zero, the packet is discarded, preventing it from looping indefinitely around the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a local area network (LAN)?

A

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that prevents switching loops (also known as bridge loops), which can cause broadcast radiation, by creating a spanning tree within networks that have redundant paths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Port 53

A

DNS

(query and zone transfers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Port 443

A

HTTPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a typical function of a load balancer?

A

Load balancers distribute network traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server becomes overwhelmed with too much traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First

An interior gateway protocol used to exchange routing information within a single Autonomous System (AS).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol

An exterior gateway protocol typically used to route traffic between different AS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Port 25

A

SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Port 161

A

SNMP

System Network Management Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which routing protocol uses the DUAL algorithm to build and maintain routing tables?

A

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) uses the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL) to create and manage routing tables and ensure there are no routing loops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or False:

A company implemented a VPN to secure remote access to its network. This solution alone will guarantee that data cannot be intercepted during transmission.

A

False

While a VPN does encrypt data for secure transmission, it alone does not guarantee that data cannot be intercepted. There are still potential vulnerabilities like a man-in-the-middle attack or malware on a user’s computer. Other security measures should be in place to ensure comprehensive network security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Port 20

A

FTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Port 21

A

FTP Secure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Port 22

A

SSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Port 23

A

Telnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Port 67

A

DHCP Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Port 68

A

DHCP Client

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Port 69

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Port 80

A

HTTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Port 110

A

POP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Port 123

A

NTP (Network Time Protocol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Port 143

A

IMAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Port 161

A

SNMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Port 389

A

LDAP
Lightweight Directiroy Access Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Port 445

A

SMB
Server Message Block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Port 514

A

Syslog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Port 587

A

SMTP TLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Port 636

A

LDAPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Port 993

A

IMAP SSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Port 995

A

POP3 SSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Port 1433

A

SQL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Port 1521

A

SQLNet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Port 3306

A

MySQL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Port 3389

A

RDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Port 5060/5061

A

Session Initiation Protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

802.11a

A

5GHz, 54Mbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

802.11b

A

2.4GHz, 11Mbps
Frequency issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

802.11g

A

2.4GHz, 54Mbps
Backwards compatible w/802.11b
Frequency issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

802.11n

A

2.4GHz or 5GHz
600Mbps
40MHz channel
MIMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

802.11ac

A

5GHz
160MHz
Eight MU-MIMO streams
7Gbps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

802.11ax

A

2.4GHz or 5GHz
20, 40, 80, and 160 MHz
1,201 Mbps
OFDMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is ATM?

A

Asynchronous Transfer Mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are SFP, SFP+ and QSFP?

A

Types of transceivers

SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable)- Eletrical to Optical
SFP+(Enhanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

True or False:
In modern Ethernet networks, a twisted-pair copper cable can have a TIA/EIA-568A standard on one end and TIA/EIA-568B standard on the opposite end forms

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cabling reduces what kind of interference?

A

Crosstalk and EMI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the Three Way Handshake for TCP?

A

1- Client SYN
2- SYN/ACK
3- Client ACK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

On-path attack

A

Formerly man-in-the-middle attacks

a specific type of spoofing attack where a threat actor
compromises the connection between two hosts and transparently intercepts and
relays all communications between them. The threat actor might also have the
opportunity to modify the traffic before relaying it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

DoS attack

A

Denial of Service

causes a service at a given host to fail or to
become unavailable to legitimate users. Resource exhaustion DoS attacks focus
on overloading a service by using up CPU, system RAM, disk space, or network
bandwidth. It is also possible for DoS attacks to exploit design failures or other
vulnerabilities in application software. A physical DoS attack might involve cutting
telephone lines or network cabling or switching off the power to a server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

802.1x

A

Port-based Network Access Control (NAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

802.3ad

A

LACP / NIC Teaming
802.3ax

66
Q

802.3af

A

PoE

67
Q

802.1d

A

STP

68
Q

NDA

A

Non Disclosure Agreement

  • Confidentiality agreement between parties
    – Information in the agreement should not be disclosed
  • Protects confidential information
    – Trade secrets, business activities
69
Q

SLA

A

Service Level Agreement (SLA)
– Minimum terms for services provided
– Uptime, response time agreement, etc.
– Commonly used between customers and service
providers

70
Q

MOU

A

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)
– Both sides agree on the contents of the memorandum
– Usually includes statements of confidentiality
– Informal letter of intent; not a signed contract

71
Q

AUP

A

Acceptable use Policy

What is acceptable use of company assets?
– Detailed documentation
– May be documented in the Rules of Behavior
* Covers many topics
– Internet use, telephones, computers,
mobile devices, etc.
* Used by an organization to limit legal liability
– If someone is dismissed, these are the
well-documented reasons why

72
Q

NAT

A

Network Address Translation

NAT is a service translating between
a private (or local) addressing scheme used by hosts on the LAN and a public (or
global) addressing scheme used by an Internet-facing device. NAT is configured
on a border device, such as a router, proxy server, or firewall. NAT is not a security
mechanism; security is provided by the router/firewallʼs ACL.

73
Q

Stateful firewall

A

. A stateful firewall operates at Layer 5 (Session)
of the OSI model. When a packet arrives, the firewall checks it to confirm whether it
belongs to an existing connection. If it does not, it applies the ordinary packet filtering
rules to determine whether to allow it. Once the connection has been allowed, the
firewall allows traffic to pass unmonitored, in order to conserve processing effort.

74
Q

Stateless firewall

A
75
Q

Netflow analyzer

A

Gather traffic statistics from all traffic flows
– Shared communication between devices
* NetFlow
– Standard collection method - Many products and options

76
Q

Spectrum analyzer

A

View the frequency spectrum
* Identify frequency conflicts

Wi-Fi

77
Q

Segmentation

A

Physical segmentation
* Separate devices
– Multiple units, separate infrastructure
Logical segmentation with VLANs
* Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs)
– Separated logically instead of physically
– Cannot communicate between VLANs without
a Layer 3 device / router

78
Q

ICMP

A

Internet Control Message Protocol
– “Text messaging” for your network devices
* Another protocol carried by IP - Not used for data transfer
* Devices can request and reply to administrative requests
– Hey, are you there? / Yes, I’m right here.
* Devices can send messages when things don’t go well
– That network you’re trying to reach
is not reachable from here
– Your time-to-live expired, just letting you know

79
Q

Severity levels

A

0 - Emergency - The system is unusable
(kernel panic)
1 - Alert - A fault requiring immediate
remediation has occurred
2 - Critical - A fault that will require
immediate remediation is
likely to develop
3 - Error - A nonurgent fault has
developed
4 - Warning - A nonurgent fault is likely to
develop
5 - Notice - A state that could potentially
lead to an error condition
has developed
6 - Informational - A normal but reportable
event has occurred
7 - Debug - Verbose status conditions
used during development
and testing

80
Q

OTDR

A

Fiber

If a break
is identified in an installed cable, the location of the break can be found using an
optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR). This sends light pulses down the
cable and times how long it takes for any reflections to bounce back from the break.
A broken cable will need to be repaired (sp

81
Q

Out-of-band management

A

The console port is a physically out-of-band
management method; the link is limited to the attached device. When you are using
a browser-based management interface or a virtual terminal, the link can be made
out-of-band by connecting the port used for management access to physically
separate network infrastructure. Obviously, this is costly to implement, but out-ofband management is more secure and means that access to the device is preserved
when there are problems affecting the production network.

82
Q

in-band management

A

An in-band management link is one that shares traffic with other communications on the “production” network.

With an in-band connection, better security can be implemented by using a VLAN
to isolate management traffic.

83
Q

LACP

A

(Link Aggregation Control Protocol)

84
Q

BPDU

A

Bridge Protocol Data Unit

STP info is packaged as BPDU multicast frames

85
Q

Port 3306

A

MySQL

86
Q

Straight-through cable

A

Patch cables - the most common Ethernet cable
* Connect workstations to network devices
– Workstation to switch
– Router to switch

87
Q

Crossover Cable

A

Connect MDI to MDI
* Connect MDI-X to MDI-X
* Auto-MDI-X is on most modern Ethernet devices
– Automatically decides to cross-over
* This is obviously not 568A on one side and 568B on the other
– 568A and 568B are cabling standards
– The TIA-568 standard does not define Ethernet (or other)
crossover cables

-Switch to switch
-Router to router
-Workstation to workstation
-Workstation to router

88
Q

Evil twin

A

Looks legitimate, but actually malicious
– The wireless version of phishing
* Configure an access point to look like an
existing network
– Same (or similar) SSID and security
settings/captive portal
* Overpower the existing access points
– May not require the same physical location
* WiFi hotspots (and users) are easy to fool
– And they’re wide open
* You encrypt your communication, right?
– Use HTTPS and a VPNPublic access to
public resources

89
Q

ARP

A

Address Resolution Protocol

Determine a MAC address based on an IP address

90
Q

OSPF

A

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)
– Large, scalable routing protocol

It is a Link-state routing protocol
* Information passed between routers is related
to the current connectivity

91
Q

RIPv1

A

Routing Information Protocol

v1 - a classful protocol and uses inefficient broadcasts to communicate
updates over UDP port 520.

92
Q

VRRP

A

Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol

The default router isn’t real
– Devices use a virtual IP for the default gateway
– If a router disappears, another one takes its place
– Data continues to flow

93
Q

MIB

A

Management Information Base

holds statistics relating to the activity
of the device

94
Q

OID

A

Object Identifier

can be referenced by name or
number
– .iso(1).org(3).dod(6).internet(1).mgmt(2).mib-2(1).
snmp(11).snmpOutT

95
Q

TACACS+

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System
– Remote authentication protocol
– Created to control access to dial-up lines to ARPANET

  • TACACS+
    – The latest version of TACACS, not backwards compatible
    – More authentication requests and response codes
96
Q

Kerberos

A

Network authentication protocol

Authenticate once; SSO

Protect against on-path or replay attacks

97
Q

route command

A

Command to view device’s routing table
-Find out where packets will go

route print

98
Q

nslookup

A

Command to troubleshoot DNS name resolution

(d)nslookup

Dig is a similar command

99
Q

unicast

A

One station sending information to another station

1:1

only two systems

100
Q

multicast

A

Delivery of information to interested systems

101
Q

broadcast

A

Sending information to everyone at once

Not used in IPv6

102
Q

anycast

A

Single destination IP address has
multiple paths to two or more endpoints
– One-to-one-of-many
– Looks like any other unicast address
* Packets sent to an anycast address are delivered to the closest interface

103
Q

DNS Poisoning

A

Attack that compromises the name resolution process

Attack where a threat actor injects false resource records into a client or server cache to redirect a domain name to an IP address of the attacker’s choosing.

Attacker will replace the valid IP address vor a trusted website with the attackers IP address. The attacker can then intercept all the packets directed to that IP address and bounce them to a real site, leaving the victim unaware of what is happening

104
Q

DMZ

A

Demilitarized Zone AKA Screened Subnet

Use of two firewalls placed on either side of the permieter network zone

105
Q

NAC

A

Network Access Control

802.1X
Port-based Network Access Control
No access until you authenticate

-Physical interfaces [connecting to the switch]

-EAP/RADIUS

-Enabling/disabling ports

106
Q

Throughput

A

Average data transfer rate achieved over a period of time

107
Q

Bandwidth

A

Frequency range measured in cycles per second or Hz

Also used to describe the amount of data that can be transferred, measured in bps

108
Q

RIPv2

A

Routing Information Protocol

v2 - supports classless addressing and uses more efficient multicast
transmissions over UDP port 520. It also supports authentication.

109
Q

Physical segmentation

A

Separate devices; separate infrastructures

110
Q

Screened subnet

A

Previously DMZ

Don’t want the internet to have direct access to your internal network

The screened subnet holds all necessary information for the internet

111
Q

Separation of duties

A

Split knowledge
-No one person has all of the details [One person has half of a safe combination]

Dual Control
-Two people must be present to perform the business function [two keys to open a safe]

112
Q

Honeypot

A

Attract attackers

Create a virtual world and once they’re connected, log all of their attempts to get around the security to gain more info about what the attackers are doing on your network

113
Q

RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service

Centralize authentication for users
– Routers, switches, firewalls
– Server authentication
– Remote VPN access, 802.1X network access

114
Q

EAP

A

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) – An authentication framework
* Many different ways to authenticate based on
RFC standards
– Manufacturers can build their own EAP methods
* EAP integrates with 802.1X
– Prevents access to the network until the
authentication succeeds

115
Q

Posture assessment

A

Device related

Before connecting to the network, perform a health check – Is it a trusted device?
– Is it running anti-virus? Which one? Is it updated?
– Are the corporate applications installed?
– Is it a mobile device? Is the disk encrypted?
– The type of device doesn’t matter - Windows, Mac,
Linux, iOS, Android

116
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information and Event Management
– Logging of security events and information
* Security alerts
– Real-time information
* Log aggregation and long-term storage
– Usually includes advanced reporting features
* Data correlation
– Link diverse data types
* Forensic analysis
– Gather details after an event

117
Q

VLAN hopping

A

“Hop” to another VLAN - this shouldn’t happen

Switch spoofing
* Some switches support automatic configuration – Is the switch port for a device, or is it a trunk?
* There’s no authentication required – Pretend to be a switch
– Send trunk negotiation
* Now you’ve got a trunk link to a switch
– Send and receive from any configured VLAN
* Switch administrators should disable trunk negotiation – Administratively configure trunk interfaces and
device/access interfaces

Double tagging
* Craft a packet that includes two VLAN tags
– Takes advantage of the “native” VLAN configuration
* The first native VLAN tag is removed by the first switch
– The second “fake” tag is now visible to the second switch – Packet is forwarded to the target
* This is a one-way trip
– Responses don’t have a way back to the source host
* Don’t put any devices on the native VLAN – Change the native VLAN ID
– Force tagging of the native VLAN

118
Q

Ephmeral port

A

temporary port numbers
– Ports 1,024 through 65,535
– Determined in real-time by the clients

119
Q

Non-ephemeral ports

A

permanent port numbers
– Ports 0 through 1,023
– Usually on a server or service

120
Q

Netstat

A

allows you to check the
state of ports on the local host

121
Q

Nmap

A

Network mapper - find network devices
* Port scan - Find devices and identify open ports
* Operating system scan
– Discover the OS without logging in to a device
* Service scan

122
Q

Scope

A

Range of addresses and options configured for a single subnet

123
Q

Default gateway

A

IP address of router

124
Q

DHCP Reservation

A

mapping of a MAC address or interface ID to a specific IP address within the DHCP server’s address pool

AKA Static or fixed address assignment

125
Q

DHCP Relay

A

Configuration of a router
to forward DHCP traffic where the client
and server are in different subnets.

126
Q

IP Helper

A

Command set in a router
OS to support DHCP relay and other
broadcast forwarding functionality.

127
Q

SLAAC

A

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration

IPv6

Automatically configure an IP address
without a DHCP server

128
Q

FQDN

A

Unique label specified in a DNS
hierarchy to identify a particular host
within a subdomain within a top-level
domain.

129
Q

Iterative lookup

A

When a name server responds to a query with either the requested record or the address of a name server at a lower level in the hierarchy that is authoritative

DNS query type whereby a server responds with
information from its own data store only

130
Q

Recursive lookup

A

DNS query type whereby a server submits additional
queries to other servers to obtain the requested information.

131
Q

SOA

A

Start of Authority Records

Identifies the primary authoritative name server that maintains complete resource records for the zone

132
Q

NS

A

Name Server Records

List the name servers for a domain - NS records point to the name of the server

133
Q

A vs AAAA

A

Address records

IPv4 host name vs IPv6 host name

134
Q

CNAME

A

Canonical Name Record

Alias for an existing address record

135
Q

MX

A

Mail Exchange Record

Used to identify an email server for the domain

136
Q

SRV

A

Service Record

contains the service name and port on which a particular application is hosted

  • Find a specific service
    – Where is the Windows Domain Controller? Where is the instant messaging server? Where is the VoIP controller?
137
Q

TXT

A

Text Record

Used to store any free-form text that may be needed to support other network services

Used as part of Sender Policy Framework (SPF) and DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

SPF
– Prevent mail spoofing
– Mail servers check that incoming mail
really did come from an authorized host

DKIM
– Digitally sign your outgoing mail
– Validated by the mail server,
not usually seen by the end user
– Put your public key in the DKIM TXT record

138
Q

PTR

A

Pointer Record

The reverse of an A or AAAA record – Added to a reverse map zone file

139
Q

Forward lookup vs reverse lookup

A

Forward lookup:
– Provide the DNS server with an FQDN
– DNS server provides an IP address

Reverse Lookup
– Provide the DNS server with an IP address
– The DNS server provides an FQDN

140
Q

Zone transfer

A

Mechanism by which a secondary name server obtains a read-only copy of zone records from the
primary server.

141
Q

Internal DNS

A

managed on internal servers
– Configured and maintained by the local team
– Contains DNS information about internal devices – DNS service on Windows Server

142
Q

External DNS

A

Records that Internet clients must be able to access

– Often Managed by a third-party
– Does not have internal device information – Google DNS, Quad9

143
Q

SMB

A

Server Message Block protocol

Allows a host to share its directories/files and printers to make them available for other machines to use

SMBv3 supports message encryption

144
Q

SIP

A

Session Initiation Protocol

Ports 5060 and 5061

145
Q

Syslog severity levels

A

0 - Emergency - The system is unusable (kernel panic)
1 - Alert - A fault requiring immediate remediation has occurred
2 - Critical - A fault that will require
immediate remediation is likely to develop
3 - Error - A nonurgent fault has developed
4 - Warning - A nonurgent fault is likely to develop
5 - Notice - A state that could potentially lead to an error condition has developed
6 - Informational - A normal but reportable event has occurred
7 - Debug Verbose status conditions used during development and testing

146
Q

Latency

A

the time it takes for a transmission to reach the recipient,
measured in milliseconds (ms)

147
Q

Jitter

A

a variation in the delay (latency)

the time between frames

148
Q

Posture Assessment

A

Process for
verifying compliance with a health policy
by using host health checks

149
Q

Zero-day

A

A vulnerability that is exploited before the developer
knows about it or can release a patch

150
Q

Vulnerability Assessment

A

an evaluation of a system’s security and ability to
meet compliance requirements based on the configuration state of the system

determines if the current configuration
matches the ideal configuration (the baseline)

151
Q

CVE

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

dictionary of vulnerabilities in
published operating systems and applications software

152
Q

SIEM

A

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)

Solution that provides real-time or near-real-time analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications

153
Q

penetration testing

A

uses authorized hacking
techniques to discover exploitable weaknesses in the target’s security systems

154
Q

Least privilege

A

a user is granted sufficient rights to perform his or
her job and no more

155
Q

Role-based access

A

Administrators provide access based on the role
of the user

156
Q

Zero trust

A

Security design paradigm where any request (host-to-host or container-to-container) must be authenticated before being allowed

Everything must be verified
– Nothing is trusted
– Multifactor authentication, encryption, system
permissions, additional firewalls, monitoring and
analytics, etc.

157
Q

ACL

A
158
Q

IAM

A
159
Q

Authentication factors

A

Something you know
something you have
something you are
something you do
somewhere you are

160
Q

EAP

A
161
Q

LDAP

A
162
Q
A

008 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions