Pain Flashcards

1
Q

An injured worker with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), type 1, asks his physician to prescribe methadone instead of morphine because of ongoing pain. The physician orders blood work and an electrocardiogram (EKG) first. What finding would be a strong contraindication to prescribing methadone for this patient?

(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hypermagnesemia
(c) QT interval prolongation
(d) Premature atrial complexes

A

Answer: (c)
Commentary: A prolonged QT interval and serious arrhythmia (torsades de pointes) have been reported during treatment with methadone. Patients with cardiac hypertrophy, concomitant diuretic use, hypokalemia or hypomagnesemia are at higher risk for development of prolonged QT interval because methadone inhibits cardiac potassium channels. Premature atrial complexes without other cardiac abnormalities that would predispose the patient to QT interval prolongation would not be considered an absolute contraindication.

2013

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2
Q

Which pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic treatment combination is the most appropriate initial program in a patient with fibromyalgia?

(a) Duloxetine (Cymbalta) plus aerobic exercise
(b) Amitriptyline (Elavil) plus high intensity strength training
(c) Diazepam (Valium) plus trigger point injections
(d) Fentanyl (Duragesic) plus cognitive behavioral therapy

A

Answer: (a)
Commentary: Pharmacologic treatments used for fibromyalgia include tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs, e.g., duloxetine, venlafaxine), and some anticonvulsants such as pregabalin. Opiates (e.g., fentanyl) and benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam) are generally not recommended.
Non-pharmacologic therapies include cognitive behavioral therapy, aerobic exercise (low impact), and complementary therapies. To reduce the pain associated with exercise, it is recommended to “start low, go slow,” with gradual progression in exercise intensity. Patients with fibromyalgia would not likely comply with a high intensity strength training program.

2013

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3
Q

Which treatment is shown consistently to improve pain in patients with acute low back pain?

(a) Superficial heat
(b) Traction
(c) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
(d) Ultrasonography

A

Answer: (a)
Commentary: Superficial heat is the only modality listed that has consistently decreased pain in
acute low back pain, which is pain that has been present for less than 4 weeks.

2010

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4
Q

25-year-old man presents to clinic with an insidious onset of low back pain over the past 6

months. He denies any trauma, but is quite active running and biking. He does not report any leg
symptoms. His pain is worse in the morning, but improves with activity and with anti-inflammatory medication. What additional information would be most helpful in making the diagnosis?

(a) Blood work revealing elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
(b) Magnetic resonance imaging revealing degenerative disc disease
(c) Plain radiograph revealing sacroiliitis
(d) Physical examination revealing an absent Achilles deep tendon reflex (DTR)

A

Answer: (c)
Commentary: This patient presents with a clinical history consistent with ankylosing spondylitis
(AS).This spondyloarthropathy is more common in men in their late teenage years to early
twenties. It generally presents with morning stiffness in the low back and/or buttocks. Criteria for
diagnosis (modified New York classification) include the presence of sacroiliitis on x-ray and 1
of the following: history of inflammatory back, decreased range of motion of spine, and limited
chest expansion.

2010

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5
Q

The third occipital nerve innervates which structure?

(a) C2-3 zygapophysial joint
(b) C2-3 intervertebral disc
(c) C3-4 zygapophysial joint
(d) C3-4 intervertebral disc

A

Answer:(a)
Commentary: The third occipital nerve(TON) innervates the C2-3 zygapophysial joint. The C3-4
zyagpophysial joint is innervated by the C3 and C4 medial branches. Innervation to the cervical
discs involves the sinuvertebral nerve, vertebral nerve and sympathetic trunk.

2012

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6
Q

Which statement is TRUE when comparing a functional restoration program to active individual
therapy for chronic low back pain?

(a) Flexibility is increased to a greater extent with active individual therapy program.
(b) Pain intensity is reduced to a greater extent with active individual therapy.
(c) Functional restoration programs have a greater effect on flexibility and pain than do
active individual therapy programs.
(d) Functional restoration programs produce greater improvements in endurance than do
active individual therapy programs.

A

Answer: D
Commentary:Functional restoration programs produce a greater improvement in endurance, but
no differences are noted between functional restoration programs and active individual therapy
programs.

2009

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7
Q

Which nerve does NOT innervate the outer annulus of the lumbar intervertebral disc?

(a) sinuvertebral nerve
(b) lumbar medial branches of dorsal rami
(c) grey rami communicantes
(d) lumbar ventral rami

A

(b)
The lumbar medial branches of the dorsal rami supply the facet joints as well as the deep paraspinals, such as the rotators and multifidi. The sinuvertebral nerve, also termed the recurrent meningeal nerve is the primary source of nerve supply to the lumbar intervertebral disc. It is derived from portions of the ventral rami and grey rami communicantes (sympathetic input). Accordingly, the referral pattern seen with intrinsic disc pain is vague and diffuse.

2008

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8
Q

Which route of epidural steroid administration is most likely to deliver steroid to the junction of the posterior disc and anterior dura?

(a) Transforaminal
(b) Caudal with catheter
(c) Interlaminar
(d) Caudal

A

(a)
The subpedicular transforaminal route of epidural steroid delivery places the needle at the anterior portion of the intervertebral foramen. The retroneural route of delivery purposefully terminates needle placement at the posterior edge of the intervertebral foramen to avoid injuring radicular vasculature. The caudal and interlaminar approaches are of limited utility in delivering steroid anteriorly due to raphe within the epidural space.

2008

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9
Q

A 47-year-old woman develops complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) type I following a fall
at work which resulted in a distal radius fracture. Although no established gold-standard
Page 31 of 33
treatment for CRPS currently exists, which option has been studied in multiple, large-scale
randomized trials?
(a) Bisphosphonates
(b) Gabapentin
(c) Stellate/lumbar sympathetic blocks
(d) Calcitonin

A

Answer: (a)
Commentary: While all of the listed options have been used for the treatment of CRPS, only
bisphosphonates have been investigated in multiple, large-scale randomized trials. Clear benefits
have not been reported with gabapentin or stellate/lumbar sympathetic blocks. Available evidence
does not support the use of calcitonin.

2011

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10
Q

A firefighter who is now 5 days postsurgery for a rotator cuff and labral tear is in significant pain,
but is concerned about opioid use for pain control. He is concerned about becoming “addicted to
the pain killers.” In educating the patient about opioids and the issues of addiction, dependence
and tolerance, which statement is correct?
(a) While all 3 terms have subtle differences, they are essentially identical in meaning and
can be used interchangeably.
(b) Since he is a firefighter, he should avoid use of any opioids at all times since he is subject
to toxicology screening.
(c) Addiction is predictable and avoidable, and since he already concerned about it, he is
unlikely to have problems with addiction.
(d) Addiction is characterized by behavioral issues, whereas dependence and tolerance are
characterized by physiologic adaptation.

A

Answer: (d)
Commentary: Physical dependence, tolerance, and addiction are discrete and different phenomena
that are often confused. Addiction is characterized by behaviors that include one or more of thefollowing: impaired control over drug use, compulsive use, continued use despite harm, andcraving. Addiction is not a predictable drug effect, but represents an idiosyncratic adversereaction in biologically and psychosocially vulnerable individuals. Physical dependence is a state
of adaptation characterized by specific withdrawal symptoms that can be produced by abrupt
cessation, rapid dose reduction, and/or administration of an antagonist. Tolerance is a state ofadaptation that results in a decreased effect of a drug over time.

2011

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11
Q

Which statement describes the chronic-pain concept of “central sensitization”?

(a) The evoked response of A-delta fibers to subsequent input is amplified.
(b) The influx of sodium is fundamental to electrical signaling and subsequent generation of action potentials and excitatory postsynaptic potentials.
(c) A complex set of activation-dependent post-translational changes occurs at the dorsal horn, brainstem, and higher cerebral sites.
(d) The so-called “inflammatory soup,” rich in algesic substances, causes a lowering of threshold for activation and subsequent evoked pain.

A

(c) Central sensitization is a complex set of activation dependent post-translational changes occurring at the dorsal horn, brainstem, and higher cerebral sites that sensitizes the central nervous system to further perception of pain. Wind-up is an amplified evoked response to repeated afferent inputs at the level of the dorsal horn

2007

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12
Q

When using local steroid injections in patients with tendinopathies

(a) injection into the tendon substance is optimal.
(b) minimum interval between injections is 2 weeks.
(c) select the finest needle that will reach the area.
(d) early postinjection local anesthesia is a complication

A

(c) It is advisable to select the finest needle that will reach the area. The injection should be peritendinous with avoidance of the tendon to prevent rupture. The minimum interval between injections should be at least 6 weeks. Early postinjection local anesthesia is not a complication of steroids, but it will occur if local anesthetic is mixed with the steroid.

2007

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13
Q

Which term describes a maladaptive pattern of drug use marked by increasing doses to achieve a similar pain relieving effect and a withdrawal syndrome?

(a) Dependence
(b) Addiction
(c) Craving
(d) Tolerance

A

(a) Dependence is a maladaptive pattern of drug use marked by tolerance and a drug-class-specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose reduction, decreasing blood levels of drug, or administration of an antagonist. Tolerance is a state of adaptation in which exposure to a drug induces changes that result in diminution of 1 or more of the drug’s effects over time. Addiction is a chronic biopsychosocial disease characterized by impaired control over drug use, compulsive use, continued use despite harm, and craving.

2007

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14
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding post-stroke central pain?

(a) Damage to the thalamus plays a central role in the pathogenesis of central pain.
(b) Amitriptyline is the drug of first choice to treat central pain.
(c) 80% of stroke patients with central pain develop the pain within a month of their stroke.
(d) The pain usually resolves spontaneously and does not require medication.

A

(b) The onset of central pain following a stroke occurs more than 1 month after the stroke in 40% to 60% of all patients. The pathogenesis of central pain is still largely a matter of conjecture and hypothesis. It is generally believed that damage to the spinothalamicocortical sensory pathways plays a significant role in the pathogenesis, but central pain can occur with lesions in any part of the brain. Treatment options are limited and at present amitriptyline is the drug of first choice, other drugs, including antidepressants, anticonvulsants, antiarrhythmics, and opioids may provide relief for some patients who do not respond to amitriptyline.

2007

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15
Q

If the L3 and L4 medial branches of the dorsal rami are ablated, the patient will experience blocked afferents from the

(a) L5-S1 facet joint.
(b) L4-5 facet joint.
(c) L3-4 facet joint.
(d) L2-3 facet joint.

A

(b) The medial branches of the dorsal rami supply innervation to the facet joints and the deep paraspinals, namely the segmental multifidi and rotators. The sacral multifidi are innervated by the sacral (rather than the lumbar) dorsal rami. Each lumbar medial branch innervates the facet joint at and below its derivation. The L4-5 facet joint is innervated by the L3 and L4 medial branches, derived from the L3 and L4 nerve roots.

2007

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16
Q

What is one reason for placing a suprapubic catheter in a person with a complete cervical spinal cord injury who currently uses intermittent catheterization?

(a) Decreased rate of bladder/kidney infections
(b) Decreased high bladder pressures
(c) Decreased rate of bladder/kidney stone formation
(d) Reduced risk of developing autonomic dysreflexia

A

(b) The rates of infections and stones are higher with suprapubic catheters. An indwelling catheter results in a slight increased risk of bladder cancer. High internal bladder pressures may occur as a result of detrusor sphincter-dyssynergia and avoiding reflux by allowing continuous drainage can be safer than intermittent catheterization for some individuals

2007

17
Q

Which spinal level has the greatest depth of posterior epidural space?

(a) C3-4
(b) C4-5
(c) C5-6
(d) C6-7

A

(d) The C6-7 and C7-T1 epidural levels have the greatest amount of space. Interlaminar epidural injections should be performed with caution in the spaces that have a smaller diameter, such as those at stenotic levels or high cervical levels. Practitioners should also be aware that the ligamentum flavum may have defects in a high percentage of individuals

2007

18
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS)?

(a) Pain is characterized by allodynia.
(b) Local osteopenia is a common early occurrence.
(c) CRPS type 1 is also known as causalgia.
(d) Adults with CRPS have a better prognosis than children with CRPS.

A

(a) Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), previously known as reflex sympathetic dystrophy, as well as by other names, is characterized by a preceding noxious event; allodynia is an exaggerated pain response (ie, hyperesthesia) in response to a non-noxious stimulus or to vascular changes such as those indicated by paleness and coolness or by edema. Sudeck’s atrophy is a name previously given to late stage CRPS when osteopenia is present. Osteopenia is a rare and late occurrence with CRPS. CRPS type 2 is also referred to as causalgia and is instigated from an initial nerve injury. Children with CRPS have a better prognosis than adults

2007

19
Q

Which finding is more characteristic of atypical facial pain than of trigeminal neuralgia?

(a) Lancinating pain
(b) Burning pain
(c) Paroxsymal pain
(d) Stabbing pain

A

(b) Trigeminal neuralgia has a lancinating and paroxsymal quality. Atypical facial pain is most often described as burning pain, usually in areas not encompassing the trigeminal region. Atypical facial pain is continuous rather than paroxysmal. Atypical facial pain occurs in young females whereas trigeminal neuralgia occurs in the eldrly. Atypical facial pain is initially treated with amitriptyline while, trigeminal neuralgia is initially treated with anticonvulsants, particularly carbamazepine

2006

20
Q

Which statement regarding complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) is TRUE?

(a) Pain is characterized by allodynia.
(b) Local osteopenia is a common early occurrence.
(c) Causalgia is also known as CRPS type 1.
(d) Adults have a better prognosis than do children with CRPS

A

(a) Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS), previously known as reflex sympathetic dystrophy as
well as by other names, is characterized by a preceding noxious event; allodynia (exaggerated pain,
ie, hyperesthesia) in response to a non-noxious stimuli; vascular changes such paleness and
coolness; and edema. Sudeck’s atrophy is a name previously given to late stage CRPS when
osteopenia is present. Osteopenia is a rare and late occurrence with CRPS. CRPS type 2 is also
referred to as causalgia and is instigated from an initial nerve injury. Children have a better
prognosis than adults

2006

21
Q

When performing an intra-articular facet joint injection on a patient with no previous history of
surgery, you note extravasation of dye, which is flowing anteriorly into the epidural space. A defect
in what structure will cause this scenario?
(a) Posterior facet capsule
(b) Ligamentum flavum
(c) Interspinous ligament
(d) Dural sac

A

(b) The ligamentum flavum forms the anterior border of the facet joint. Rents in the facet capsule allow contrast material to leak and therefore medication will also leak out of the intended area. Intra-articular injections into the facet joint performed for diagnostic purposes may lose specificity when this extravasation into the epidural space occurs, because other pain generating structures
may also be blocked from receiving the medication.

2006

22
Q

What is the most effective type of medication for treating pain in patients with fibromyalgia?

(a) Tricyclic antidepressants
(b) Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
(c) Narcotics
(d) Anticonvulsants

A

(a) Tricylic antidepressants are more effective than serotonin reuptake inhibitors in the treatment of
chronic pain syndromes. There is no definitive evidence that narcotics or anticonvulsants are
effective in fibromyalgia

2006

23
Q

Which of the following opioid prescriptions is the LEAST potent in terms of morphine equivalents per day?

A. hydrocodone/acetaminophen (Norco), 5/325mg 1tab orally, 4 times daily
B. Oxycodone/acetaminophen (Percocet), 5/325mg 1 tab orally, 4 times daily
C. Methodone (Methadose) 5mg, 1 tab orally, 4 times daily
D. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 5mg, 1 tab orally, 4 times daily

A

A.

When using various opioid medications, it is important to understand the different potencies in terms of morphine equivalents per day (MEDs). There are many conversion tables that provide this information. It is particularly important to pay attention to methadone, since its potency does not increase in a simple linear fashion. Using opioid calculators such as the one in the reference cited below, the Norco prescription is 20 MEDs, the Percocet prescription is 30 MEDs, and the hydromorphone and methadone prescriptions are both 80MEDs.

2015

24
Q

What is the mechanism of action of gabapentin for modulating neuropathic pain?

a. GABA (y-aminobutyric acid) agonist
b. NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptor blockade
c. presynaptic calcium channel blockade
d. norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor

A

c

gabapentin, although structurally related to the y-aminobutyric acid (GABA), is an alpha2-delta ligand. The alpha2-delta receptor is a protein associated with neuronal voltage-gated calcium channels. Binding to this channel reduces presynaptic calcium influx into the cell at the dorsal horn, reducing the release of several neurotransmitters (glutamate, substance P, norepi, and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP).

2015