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RUSVM Pathology II > Pathology II Final Exam Material > Flashcards

Pathology II Final Exam Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common CNS tumor?

A

Astrocytoma

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2
Q

These large discrete vacuoles in neuronal cells are typical of which neuronal injury?

A

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy (TSE)

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2
Q

The excessive doming of the skull shown in the image is indicative of:

A

hydrocephalus

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3
Q

Meningiomas are most common in what species?

A

Cats

but you can see them in dogs!

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4
Q

The most common cause of septic emboli in the dog is:

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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4
Q

The three most common causes of septic emboli ​in cattle are:

A
  • _A_ctinomyces pyogenes
  • _S_taphylococcus aureus
  • _H_istophilus somni

_A_hhhhhh, _S_eptic _H_eifers!

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4
Q

Listeria monocytogenes in cattle infects the brainstem by retrograde flow via _________ nerve

A

Trigeminal

(saliva)

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4
Q

Which form of Swayback has been reported in adult sheep?

A

Acute delayed swayback

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4
Q

What are two possible sequelas of a pituitary tumor?

A

Diabetes insipidus and hyperadrenocorticism (HAC)

  • Diabetes insipidus: Pressure on pars nervosa, interference with ADH transport to nervosa
  • Hyperadrenocorticism: ACTH-producing chromophobes
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5
Q

Secondary demyelination occurs after:

A

damage to the axon

After the axon is damaged, the myelin will begin to disintegrate

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5
Q

Concomitant degeneration of the axon and the nerve sheath is termed:

A

Wallerian degeneration

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5
Q

What is most common sequela of hemopericardium?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

Extensive hemopericardium can interfere with the dilatation and contraction of the ventricles, causing cardiac tamponade

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6
Q

Identify the pigment present in the cytoplasm of these viral-infected neurons

A

lipofuscin

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7
Q

T/F: Infectious agents, such as Listeria and Rabies, utilize retrograde axoplasmic flow to reach the central nervous system

A

Yes. These are facts.

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8
Q

What is the most consistent gross lesion found in birds affected by Marek’s Disease?

A

Enlargement of Peripheral Nerve Trunks

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9
Q

What is the most common type of glaucoma in most species?

A

Secondary glaucoma

Anything that obstructs the pupil or trabecular meshwork can result in glaucoma

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10
Q

Circling, head tilt, and facial paralysis associated with listeriosis are due to infection of which nerve?

A

CN VII (Facial Nerve)

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11
Q

Severe edema of the conjunctiva is termed:

A

Chemosis

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11
Q

Keratomalacia is also known as:

A

“Melting Ulcers”

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11
Q

Delayed Swayback coincides with Cu deficiency at the second peak of myelination, ~_____ days after birth

A

~​20 days after birth

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12
Q

Opisthotonus (star-gazing) is associated with which CNS deficiency disease?

A

Cerebrocortical Necrosis (CCN)

Due to thiamine deficiency (thiamine is critical for carbohydrate metabolism)

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13
Q

Is chromatolysis a reversible or irreversible change?

A

Reversible

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14
Q

T/F: Canine Distemper has only been reported to affect the respiratory and alimentary tracts

A

False

Canine Distemper affects the respiratory, alimentary, and urinary systems, as well as the skin (hardpad!)

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14
Q

There are three forms of Swayback. In which form do we observe acute brain swelling due to cerebral edema?

A

Acute delayed swayback

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15
Q

Inflammation of the uvea, retina, and vitreous is termed:

A

Endophthalmitis

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16
Q

Which components of the CNS are most sensitive to hypoxia: those of ectodermal origin or those of mesodermal origin?

A

Ectodermal origin

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16
Q

Name the parasite that matures in bile ducts, causing chronic fibrosing cholangitis

A

Fasciola hepatica

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17
Q

How would you diagnose TSE ante-mortem?

A

n/a

There is no antemortem diagnosis. Suspicion is based on clinical signs or post-mortem exam

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18
Q

T/F: Oligodendrocytes can be destroyed by viruses/toxins, resulting in primary demyelination

A

True

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19
Q

What is the most common malignant neoplasm of the oral cavity of cats?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

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20
Q

Is acidophilia a reversible or irreversible change?

A

irreversible

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20
Q

Phagocytosis of neurons by microglia/monocytes is termed:

A

Neuronophagia

“eating neurons”

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20
Q

In which species is Moldy Corn Toxicity most common? What change do you see in the brain?

A

Horses; leukoencephalomalacia

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22
Q

Inflammation of the choroid and retina is termed:

A

Chorioretinitis

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23
Q

The most common cause of septic emboli ​in the horse is:

A

Streptococcus equi

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25
Q

Identify the developmental ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

ankyloblepharon

adhesion of the ciliary edges of the eyelids to each other

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27
Q

If you see cyclopia or synophthalmos in lambs, it is usually a result of ingestion of:

A

Veratrum californicum

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28
Q

Water deprivation (salt poisoning) is most common in which species?

A

Pigs

It occasionally occurs in ruminants

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29
Q

What is a common sequela to ventricular septal defect (VSD) due to force of contraction in the left ventricle pushing into the right ventricle?

A

“Jet Lesions”

A jet lesion is a raised, rough, firm streak of endocardial fibrosis resulting from long-term trauma by a jet of blood leaking through the damages valve in the closed position

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30
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndrome is commonly associated with thymoma in cats?

A

Generalized exfoliative dermatitis

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32
Q

What are the two main general causes of corneal opacity?

A

Corneal edema and corneal deposits

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33
Q

What is the function of astrocytes?

A
  • Nutrient transport
  • Part of the BBB
  • Antigen presentation
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34
Q

With Cerebrocortical necrosis (CCN), the brain may appear grossly normal. How would you identify the affected areas?

A

Wood’s lamp

Affected areas will be yellow-tan colored with autofluorescence under UV light

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35
Q

Identify this CNS tumor:

A

Choroid plexus tumor

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36
Q

T/F: Necrotizing polioencephalomyelitis/ganglioneuritis is characteristic of Aujeszky’s Disease

A

True

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38
Q

What are the two types of astrocytes and where are they found?

A

Protoplasmic (grey matter) & Fibrillar (white matter)

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39
Q

Inflammation of the eyelid is termed:

A

Blepharitis

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40
Q

There are three forms of Swayback. In which form do we observe wallerian degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

Congenital Swayback

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41
Q

What is the term used for the brain parenchyma?

A

Neuropil

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42
Q

When microglial cells mop up myelin, they are called:

A

myelophages

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43
Q

There are three forms of Swayback. In which form do we observe chromatolysis of neurons?

A

Delayed Swayback

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44
Q

Which viruses are known to induce congenital lesions?

A

BVD (cattle) & FPV (cats)

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45
Q

Eosinophils in the perivascular space in the CNS of pigs is pathognomonic for:

A

Salt Poisoning!

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47
Q

In which species is **goniodysgenesis **most common?

A

Dogs

It is inherited and fairly common

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48
Q

Defective closure of the bony encasement of the spinal cord is termed:

A

Spina Bifida

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48
Q

T/F: Typically, the brain is grossly normal in a case of Listeriosis

A

True

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48
Q

With regard to CNS neoplasia, which is more common:

glial or neuronal?

A

Glial more common than neuronal

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48
Q

The skin of the eyelids, snout, and submandibular area of this pig are edematous as a result of production of a toxin by which bacterial organism?

A

Escherichia coli

This disease is known as Edema Disease or enterotoxemic colibacillosis, an infection that is specific for pigs. Bacterial endotoxin (verotoxin) causes endothelial cell injury in arterioles, resulting in fluid loss and edema.

One of the more significant changes associated with this disease is edema of the spiral colon (pictured below).

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49
Q

Along with other lesions of Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE), you will see accumulations of:

A

disease-associated (resistant) prion proteins (PrPd/PrPsc)

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50
Q

Name the three types of edema:

A

cytotoxic, vasogenic, interstitial

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51
Q

Where would you most commonly observe lesions associated with Louping-ill?

A

brainstem, cerebellum, cord

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52
Q

What sign may an owner see if their horse has Equine Protozoal Encephalomyelitis [EPM]?

A

pelvic limb paresis and ataxia

Sudden of gradual onset of pelvic limb paresis and ataxia

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54
Q

Inflammation of the ciliary body is termed:

A

cyclitis

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55
Q

What is the most common neoplasm in cats?

A

Lymphosarcoma

LSA is the most common neoplasm in cats and the alimentary form of lymphosarcoma has the highest incidence in cats

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56
Q

What is the fancy doctor term for enlargement of the eyeball?

A

Buphthalmia

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58
Q

Name the lesion in the brain of cattle that is associated with Histophilus somni infection:

A

Thrombotic Meningoencephalitis (TME)

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60
Q

What nutritional deficiency will result in dysmyelination/swayback?

A

Copper!

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61
Q

Name the toxic condition in lambs and calves associated with C. perfringens type D enterotoxemia that is characterized by acute onset head-pressing, paralysis, and death

A

Focal Symmetrical Encephalomalacia

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62
Q

The most likely cause of renal papillary necrosis in this horse is:

A

NSAID toxicity

NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, decrease production of PGE2, leading to loss of vasodilatory effect on arterioles in the region of the juxtamedullary nephrons. The result is ischemia and eventually papillary necrosis.

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63
Q

What is the most likely cause of the corneal opactiy in this image?

A

Corneal ulceration

Notice the green staining localized near the ulcer

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65
Q

Softening of the grey matter of the brain is termed:

A

polioencephalomalacia

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66
Q

MDx?

A

Conjunctivitis

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68
Q

Presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye is termed:

A

Hyphema

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69
Q

T/F: Malacia is a reversible softening of brain tissue

A

False

Malacia is softening of the brain tissue, but it is irreversible

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70
Q

Equine Motor Neuron Disease is characterized by degeneration and loss of motor neurons in the ________ horns of the spinal cord

A

Equine Motor Neuron Disease is characterized by degeneration and loss of motor neurons in the ventral horns of the spinal cord

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71
Q

If you’re in the UK, which virus is likely responsible for the arthrogryposis shown in the image?

A

Schmallenberg Virus

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72
Q

Cerebellar coning is considered a hallmark of:

A

brain edema

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72
Q

With regard to meningitis, which inflammatory cells would you expect to be present in the CSF?

A

Neutrophils (monocytes if it is chronic)

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72
Q

The image shows widespread distribution of prion proteins in brain tissue. Which disease would this most likely be associated with in sheep?

A

Scrapie

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73
Q

Which portion of the brain is affected with Aujeszky’s Disease?

A

Cerebral Cortex

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74
Q

This proliferative ileitis in a pig is caused by:

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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76
Q

Identify the Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathy affecting this sheep:

A

Scrapie

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78
Q

Ingestion of ___________ can cause an acquired form of mannosidosis as the plant contains potent inhibitors of α-mannosidase

A

Locoweeds (Astragalus & Oxytropis)

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80
Q

Softening of the white matter of the brain is termed:

A

leukoencephalomalacia

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81
Q

When there is exudate settling in the anterior chamber, what is the most appropriate morphologic diagnosis?

A

Anterior uveitis

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82
Q

What are the three primary pathogens associated with conjunctivitis in the cat?

A
  • Herpesvirus (FHV-1)
  • Chlamydophila felis
  • Mycoplasma felis
83
Q

What is the most likely cause of corneal edema in this example?

A

Ulceration

84
Q

Identify the ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

corneal dermoid

85
Q

Identify the developmental ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

distichia

A distichia is an eyelash that arises from an abnormal location on the eyelid or grows in an abnormal direction

86
Q

Histologically, what are some characteristics of Aujeszky’s Disease?

A

Neuronophagia, intranuclear inclusions, cuffing/gliosis

88
Q

The corneal edema is the result of immune complex deposition in the corneal endothelium. What viral infection is this condition typically associated with?

A

Infectious Canine Hepatitis

Canine Adenovirus 1 (CAV-1)

90
Q

Equine recurrent uveitis is the result of a hypersensitivity to a previous systemic infection, specifically by:

A

Leptospira interrogans

92
Q

T/F: Old Dog Encephalitis (a type of Canine Distemper) is associated with extensive demyelination

A

False

93
Q

Identify the developmental ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

Eyelid agenesis

94
Q

Identify the ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

iris hypoplasia

94
Q

Abnormal accumulation of CSF in the brain is termed:

A

hydrocephalus

95
Q

GM-1 Ganglioidosis is an accumulation of ganglioside as a result of a defect or decifiency in which enzyme?

A

β-galactosidase

In lysosomes, β-galactosidase breaks down GM1 ganglioside. If the enzyme is absent or defective, the substance will accumulate to toxic levels in the brain, leading to nerve cell destruction

This is most commonly seen in Fresian Calves

96
Q

T/F: Myelin is synthesized by Schwann cells in the CNS

A

False

  • Myelin is synthesized by Schwann cells in the PNS. Myelin is synthesized by oligodendrocytes in the CNS.*
  • Oligodendrocytes connect to multiple internodes. Schwann cells only connect to 1*
97
Q

T/F: Sarcocystis neurona replicates in the muscle tissue of the horse and invades the CNS

A

False

In the horse, the organism replicates in the CNS rather than in muscle

99
Q

Lead poisoning is most common in cattle/calves. Lead inhibits enzyme systems with free __________ groups, and binds to endothelial cells

A

Lead poisoning is most common in cattle/calves. Lead inhibits enzyme systems with free sulphydryl groups, and binds to endothelial cells

100
Q

What is/are the most common cause(s) of verminous encephalomyelitis in the horse?

A

Halicephalobus gingivalis (H. deletrix) and Strongylus vulgaris larvae migration

102
Q

How is Canine Distemper typically transported to the CNS?

A

Lymphocytes

103
Q

Corneal inflammation is termed:

A

keratitis

104
Q

What ocular abnormality is present in this Boston Terrier?

A

Corneal Edema

MDx: diffuse corneal edema

105
Q

T/F: Equine encephalomyelitis induces leukoencephalomalacia

A

False

Equine encephalomyelitis induces polioencephalomyelitis

106
Q

Name the stain commonly used to observe astrocytes:

A

GFAP

107
Q

Absence of cerebral hemispheres is termed:

A

Hydraencephaly

108
Q

T/F: The axon remains intact in primary demyelination

A

True

In primary demyelination, only the myelin is damaged, but the axon remains intact

109
Q

Most likely diagnosis in this cat?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

110
Q

Does remyelination occur in a greater capacity in the CNS or the PNS?

A

PNS

111
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis is caused by which bacterial organism?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

112
Q

Identify the developmental ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

ectropion

Ectropion is a condition in which your eyelid (typically the lower lid) turns out

113
Q

Identify the ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

Entropion and secondary trichiasis

Entropion is a genetic condition in which a portion of the eyelid is inverted or folded inward

Trichiasis is a term for abnormally positioned eyelashes that grow back toward the eye, touching the cornea or conjunctiva

114
Q

Identify the developmental ocular abnormality shown in the picture:

A

microphthalmia

a disorder in which one or both eyes are abnormally small

115
Q

Congenital Swayback is observed when Cu deficiency occurs during ________ days of gestation

A

100-120 days

116
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the external acoustic meatus of dogs and cats?

A

Ceruminous neoplasia

Adenomas are more common in dogs; Carcinomas are more common in cats

117
Q

T/F: Uveal melanoma is the most common intra-ocular neoplasm in all species

A

False

Uveal melanoma is the most common intra-ocular neoplasm in all species except the cat.

Diffuse iris melanoma is the most common intra-ocular neoplasm in the cat

118
Q

What is the most common intra-ocular neoplasm in felines?

A

Diffuse Iris Melanoma

(especially in cats with yellow eyes)

119
Q

T/F: Intraocular sarcomas are unique to the dog

A

False

Intraocular sarcomas are unique to the cat

120
Q

What is the most common metastasis involving the eye?

A

Uveal lymphoma

Uveal lymphoma is the most common metastasis involving the eye, especially in cats

121
Q

______ gene promotes ovarian differentiation and development

A

DAX1

122
Q

Individuals composed of two or more cell populations, each arising from different individuals:

A

Chimeras

The most common example in vet med is the _Freemartin calf_

123
Q

True hermaphodites fall into which category of sexual development disorder?

A

Abnormalities of gonadal sex

124
Q

Female pseudohermaphrodites are often the result of iatrogenic administration of ___________ during gestation

A

androgens or progestagens

125
Q

Complete absence of an entire uterine horn is termed:

A

Uterus unicornis

Commonly found in white Shorthorn cattle (“white heifer disease”); associated with the recessive gene for white coat color

126
Q

Persistence of a tissue band running across the vagina just cranial to the opening of the urethra is termed:

A

Imperforate Hymen

127
Q

Identify this abnormality found in Swedish Highland Cattle:

A

Ovarian hypoplasia

128
Q

Cystic Graafian follicle is the most common type of cystic change. It occurs as a result of insufficient release of:

A

luteinizing hormone

129
Q

Inflammation of the ovary is termed:

A

Oophoritis

130
Q

Identify the ovarian abnormality in this mare:

A

Intrafollicular hemorrhage

131
Q

Ovarian tumors are not very commonly found in dogs. However, if you do see an ovarian tumor in a dog, it is more than likely a(n):

A

epithelial tumor

132
Q

T/F: All dysgerminomas are considered malignant

A

True

Dysgerminomas are tumors of primordial germ cells of the embryonic gonad (female counterpart of testicular seminoma

133
Q

What is the most common ovarian tumor in cows and mares?

A

Granulosa cell tumor (granulosa-theca cell tumor)

134
Q

Identify this disease of the uterine tube. The tube is distended and filled with clear watery mucus:

A

Hydrosalpinx

135
Q

Which bacteria are commonly associated with salpingitis?

A

Mycoplasma **and Ureaplasma**

136
Q

Cystic Gartner’s ducts are vestigial remnants of _________

A

Wolffian ducts

Seen in cows secondary to hyperestrogenism or following local inflammation

137
Q

Infectious pustular vulvovaginitis (IPV) in cattle is caused by:

A

BHV-1

The disease is venereally transmitted and causes epithelial necrosis

138
Q

Dourine is caused by:

A

Trypanosoma equiperdum

139
Q

This aggressive, large, invasive tumor was found in the vulva/vaginal region of a cow. What should be at the top of your differential list?

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

140
Q

This occurs in mares and results in death from exsanguination. What’s going on?

A

Ruptured uterine artery

141
Q

Identify the abnormality. This is most common in the bitch and involves cystic distention of endometrial glands

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

If endometrial secretions accumulate, infection may follow and lead to cystic endometrial hyperplasia-pyometra syndrome

Endometrial hyperplasia is often due to prolonged hyperestrogenism or excess progesterone

142
Q

Presence of endometrial glands and stroma between the muscle bundles of the myometrium is termed:

A

Adenomyosis

143
Q

Inflammation of the endometrium only is termed:

A

endometritis

144
Q

Inflammation of all layers of the uterine wall:

A

metritis

145
Q

Inflammation extending to the tissues surrounding the uterus:

A

Perimetritis

146
Q

Accumulations of pus in the lumen of the uterus:

A

Pyometra

147
Q

Which bacterial organism is responsible for Contagious Equine Metritis (CEM)?

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

CEM is a reportable disease!!

148
Q

In which species are uterine adenocarcinomas very common?

A

Rabbits

149
Q

What are the contagious causes of mastitis?

A

Streptococcus agalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma spp.

150
Q

Name the contagious cause of mastitis that characteristically heals by fibrosis:

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

151
Q

This image is most likely associated with which contagious cause of mastitis in cattle?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Some strains elaborate an α-toxin that causes gangrenous staphylococcal mastitis. The toxin causes vasoconstriction and ischemia to the udder resulting in gangrene

152
Q

T/F: Granulomatous mastitis caused by Mycobacterium bovis is reported to be iatrogenic

A

False

  • Mycobacterium bovis* is likely spread hematogenously.
  • Nocardia asteroides, Cryptococcus neoformans, Candida* spp., and other Mycobacterium spp are often reported to be iatrogenic
153
Q

Mastitis in the ewe and goat is usually caused by:

A

Staphylococcus aureus or Mannheimia haemolytica

154
Q

What are two viral diseases that can cause mastitis in sheep and goats?

A

Ovine progressive pneumonia (Maedi-Visna) and Caprine arthritis encephalitis (CAE)

155
Q

________ is the single most important prognostic factor in cats with mammary gland neoplasia

A

Tumor size is the single most important prognostic factor in cats with mammary gland neoplasia.

Tumors less than 2 cm in size have a better prognosis

156
Q

This mammary fibroadenomatous hyperplasia is a benign proliferation of mammary ducts and connective tissue in neutered male and female cats on prolonged ____________ therapy

A

progesterone therapy (megestrol acetate)

157
Q

Identify the abnormality

A

None.

These are amniotic plaques, which are foci of squamous epithelium on the internal surface of the amnion; they are commonly present on the bovine amnion during the middle trimester of gestation

158
Q

Identify this fetal abnormality. The dead fetus is retained and infected by bacteria:

A

maceration

May be associated with dystocia or incomplete abortion; May lead to pyometra and maternal death from peritonitis and toxemia

159
Q

These gross lesions (Chronic placentitis) are fairly characteristic for:

A

Brucella abortus

This is zoonotic!!

160
Q

T/F: Listeriosis may cause tiny pinpoint yellow foci of necrosis in the liver

A

True

161
Q

Which portion of the placenta is most affected by Ureaplasma diversum?

A

amnion

162
Q

Inflammation of the testes is termed:

A

orchitis

163
Q

T/F: Leydig cell tumors are most common in the dog and exhibit endocrine effects

A

False

Leydig cell tumors are most common in the dog, but _do not_ exhibit endocrine effects

164
Q

Name a testicular neoplasia that is usually unilateral and solitary, generally enlarges the testis, and exhibits no endocrine effect

A

Seminoma

Seminoma is a tumor of spermatogonia, usually unilateral and solitary, generally enlarges the testis, and exhibits no endocrine effect. Cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor!

165
Q

Name a testicular neoplasia that is usually unilateral and solitary, generally enlarges the testis, and usually has endocrine effects:

A

Sertoli cell tumor

The key differentiating factor between this and a seminoma is that sertoli cell tumors have endocrine effects and seminomas do not

166
Q

Endocrine effects of sertoli cell tumors relate to estrogen production. What 4 things should you be thinking about with increased estrogen production?

A

Sertoli Cell Tumor? ​Balls Probably Got Stuck

  • Bone marrow suppression
  • Prostate hyperplasia
  • Gynecomastia (man boobs)
  • Symmetrical alopecia (sebaceous gland atrophy)

Remember, cryptorchidism is a predisposing factor!!

167
Q

Developmental lesion in young male horses, originating from the testes:

A

Teratoma

168
Q

There is an occlusion of the epididymis, leading to dilation with sperm accumulation. What is this called?

A

spermatocoele

169
Q

Identify this scrotal disease:

A

Variocele

Dilation and tortuosity of the veins of the pampiniform plexus and the cremasteric veins

170
Q

T/F: Inflammation of the bulbourethral glands in dogs is fairly common

A

False

  • it’s not common at all… because dogs don’t have bulbourethral glands.*
  • The only accessory gland that dogs have is a prostate.*
171
Q

T/F: Prostatic atrophy is a senile change that occurs following castration

A

True

172
Q

This condition is fairly common in older intact male dogs. It is not seen in castrated animals:

A

Prostatic hyperplasia

173
Q

Prostatic metaplasia is caused by:

A

estrogen

  • ​Sertoli cell tumors
  • Estrogen administration
  • Columnar epithelial cells change to squamous
174
Q

Identify this disease of the penis & prepuce. In which animal is this seen?

A

Persistent frenulum

Connection between the ventral penis and prepuce; causes penile deviation. Seen in bulls.

175
Q

Failure of closure of the urogenital groove is termed:

A

hypospadia

176
Q

Narrowing of preputial orifice preventing retraction of already protruding penis is termed:

A

Paraphimosis

Pa_r_aphimosis - has to do with _r_etraction

177
Q

Narrowing of preputial orifice preventing protrusion of the penis is termed:

A

Phimosis

178
Q

What’s that?

A

It’s a penis.

…with TVT

179
Q

All of these lesions may be found in dog with diabetes mellitus except:

  • cataracts
  • glomerulosclerosis
  • insulinoma
  • pancreatitis
A

insulinoma

180
Q

These German Shepherds are littermates. This condition is usually the result of:

A

Congenital Pituitary Cyst from Rathke’s Pouch

181
Q

Calcinosis cutis is a very characteristic lesion associated with which Endocrinopathy?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism (HAC)

182
Q

Cotyledons are bright to dark red and have numerous small soft white nodules (“strawberry-like lesions”). What is the agent involved?

A

Toxoplasma gondii

T. gondii plays a major role in ovine abortion!!

183
Q

This acute diffuse suppurative placentitis in goats is likely a result of infection by:

A

Coxiella burnetii (Q fever)

184
Q

Woah, placenta. There is patchy thickening with fibrosis and multifocal areas of necrosis, hemorrhage, and fibrin exudation. What is the most likely agent involved?

A

Ureaplasma diversum

185
Q

Intercotyledonary placentitis and multifocal necrotizing hepatitis is most likely associated with which cause of abortion in shee**p?

A

Campylobacter spp.

186
Q

This presentation of placentitis is most often associated with infection by:

A

Brucella abortus

  • Abortions are more common at 7-9 months. The gross lesions in the placenta are very characteristic (necrotiing placentitis)*
  • **ZOONOTIC***
187
Q

At what stage of gestation are abortions normally seen with Brucella abortus?

A

7-9 months

188
Q

This lesion was found in the brain of a cow. What is the most likely etiology?

A

Neospora caninum

Most abortions due to Neospora caninum occur at 5-6 months of gestation. The brain is needed for diagnosis

189
Q

This fibrin cast was found in the trachea of a horse, along with multifocal necrosis in the liver. What is the most likely etiology?

A

Equine Herpesvirus 1 (EHV-1)

190
Q

T/F: In dogs, most pituitary adenomas arise from the pars intermedia

A

False.

In dogs, most pituitary adenomas arise from the pars distalis

In horses, most pituitary adenomas arise from the pars intermedia

191
Q

Identify these hyperkeratotic plaques of the concave external ear of horses:

A

Aural Plaques

Thought to be caused by papilloma virus spread by fly bites

192
Q

T/F: Myxedema is commonly seen associated with Cushing’s disease

A

Wrong.

193
Q

What is the likely cause of mastitis in a cow with sudden onset of agalactia, involvement of all 4 quarters, and severe swelling of the udder?

A

Mycoplasma bovis

194
Q

What is the most likely etiology for the valvular endocarditis pictured below in the heart of a pig?

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

(Streptococcus suis could be another differential diagnosis)

195
Q

This pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia is a classic presentation associated with which etiological agent?

A

Rhodococcus equi

196
Q

Inflammation of the renal pelvis and renal parenchyma is referred to as:

A

Pyelonephritis

Unlike other forms of nephritis, the lesions of pyelonephritis are not necessarily symmetrical

(pictured below: unilateral pyelonephritis in a cat)

197
Q

Etiology?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

This is oral necrobacillosis, aka “Calf Diphtheria”

198
Q

Porcine Contagious Pleuropneumonia is (as the name suggests) a highly contagious and often fatal disease of pigs 2-5 months of age.

What is the etiology?

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

199
Q

What is the name of this condition in pigs?

A

Atrophic rhinitis

  • This is a multifactorial disease in growing pigs. It is thought to be the result of a combined infection of Bordetella bronchiseptica and Pasteurella multocida types D and A*
  • The toxigenic strains of P. multocida produce cytotoxins that inhibit osteoblastic activity and promote osteoclastic reabsorption of the nasal turbinates.*
200
Q

Are neurons, astrocytes, and oligodendrocytes of ectodermal origin or of mesodermal origin?

A

ectodermal origin

201
Q

T/F: Cryptococcus causes bloody diarrhea

A

False.

It’s false.

It’s not true.

202
Q

Which four cardiac abnormalities are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Overriding aorta: coming out over intraventricular septum instead of left ventricle
  2. Pulmonary stenosis: narrowing of the pulmonary valve
  3. Ventricular septal defect: working against pressure due to stenosis
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy

Tetralogy of Fallot is a complicated cardiac anomaly characterized by these 4 lesions. TOF is inherited in Keeshond dogs and is frequent in English bulldogs

203
Q

You have a young piglet with diarrhea. Upon histological examination of the intestines, you notice severe villous atrophy (blunting) and fusion.

What should be at the top of your differential list?

A

Transmissible Gastroenteritis (TGE)

204
Q

What is the common name for this presentation in a pig?

A

Mulberry Heart Disease

(caused by Vitamin E/Se deficiency)

205
Q

Ingestion of which amino acid is believed to be responsible for Fog Fever in cattle?

A

L-Tryptophan

Fog Fever is characterized by pulmonary edema and emphysema. It occurs in cattle grazing “fog” pastures (re-growth pasture after a har or silage has been cut, etc.)

206
Q

Name the substance found in moldy potatoes that is metabolized in the lung (Clara cells) to a potent pneumotoxin:

A

4-ipomeanol

207
Q

What are the top two etiologies that present with coronary atherosclerosis in dogs?

A

Diabetes mellitus and Hypothyroidism

208
Q

What is the etiology of this condition in a cat?

A

Feline calicivirus

209
Q

Clusters of variably-sized, intensely basophilic, intracytoplasmic botryoid inclusion bodies within histiocytes are pathognomonic for:

A

Postweaning Multisystemic Wasting Syndrome [PMWS] (Porcine Circovirus 2)

**pigs 5-12 weeks old are most commonly affected**

210
Q

What is the most common paraneoplastic syndrome of thymoma in dogs?

A

Myasthenia gravis (resulting in megaesophagus)

211
Q

A pig presents with diffuse severe splenic congestion. What is your top differential?

A

African Swine Fever

(If this was a cow, Anthrax should be high on your list)

212
Q

In cattle, Anthrax is a cause of splenomegaly. Would this spleen be hard or soft upon palpation?

A

Soft!

Dark red to black, soft spleen. This is an example of ‘bloody spleen’

213
Q

What is the most appropriate morphologic diagnosis?

A

Keratitis

RUSVM Pathology II (5 decks)

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