Patient Care Flashcards

1
Q

Personal injury law

A

Torts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Action that causes fear or apprehension in the patient

A

Assault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Inappropriate touching or harm done to the patient

A

Battery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Unjustified restraint

A

False imprisonment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Written defamation of character

A

Libel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Spoken defamation of character

A

Slander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Unintentionally omitting reasonable care

A

Negligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An employer is responsible for the employee’s actions

A

Respondeat superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Res ipsa loquitur

A

Cause of negligence is obvious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Microorganisms have been eliminated as much as possible

A

Medical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complete removal of all organisms from equipment and environment

A

Surgical asepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Infected person touches susceptible person

A

Direct contact transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Inanimate object containing pathogenic organisms is placed in contact with a susceptible person

A

Indirect contact transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Airborne transmission

A

Droplets and dust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary transmission by coughs, sneezes, or other methods of spraying onto a nearby host

A

Droplet transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Transmission by contaminated items such as food, water, meds, devices and equipment

A

Common vehicle transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How an animal contains and transmits an infectious organism to humans

A

Vector-borne transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal adult temp

A

98-99° F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Normal adult pulse

A

60 BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Normal adult respirations

A

12-16 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Heart rate less than 60 bpm

A

Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HR more than 100 BPM

A

Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Measurement of the pumping action of the heart

A

Systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Measurement of the heart at rest

A

Diastolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common negative contrast agent

A

Air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Water soluble sterile contrast agent

A

Aqueous iodine compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Contains salts of organic iodine com-

pounds; composed of positively and negatively charged ions

A

Iodinated ionic contrast agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Contrast agents that do not ionize into separate positive and negative charges

A

Iodinated nonionic contrast agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Anaphylactic reactions to contrast

A
  • flushing
  • hives
  • nausea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cardiovascular reactions to contrast

A
  • hypOtension
  • tachycardia
  • cardiac arrest
31
Q

provide direction for handling precautions, safe use of the product, clean up and disposal of biohazardous materials

A

MSDS

Material safety data sheet

32
Q

Types of intentional misconduct

A
  • assault
  • battery
  • false imprisonment
  • invasion of privacy
  • libel
  • slander
  • Manipulation of electronic data ( i.e. cropping anatomy)
33
Q

radiographing the wrong patient or the wrong body part or performing radiography against a patient’s will, can be considered

A

Battery

34
Q

Negligence is considered

A

Unintentional misconduct

35
Q

Acts that show reckless disregard for life or limb

A

Gross negligence

36
Q

Based on how a reasonable person with similar education and experience would perform under similar circumstances

A

Reasonably prudent person doctrine

37
Q

Instance in which the injured person is a contributing party to the injury

A

Contributory negligence

38
Q

Four conditions needed to establish malpractice

A
  1. Establishment of standard of care
  2. Demonstration that standard of care was violated by the radiographer
  3. Demonstration that loss or injury was caused by radiographer who is being sued
  4. Demonstration that loss or injury actually occurred and is a result of the negligence
39
Q

Let the master answer

A

Respondeat superior

40
Q

The thing speaks for itself

A

Res ipsa loquitur

Legal doctrine stating that the cause of the negligence is obvious (e.g., forceps left inside a patient during surgery)

41
Q

T/F

X-ray images are legal documents

A

True

42
Q

How long are images retained?

A

5 to 7 years after the date of the last radiographic examination
(Mammos and black lung images are kept for the life span of the patient)

Files on minors are normally retained for 5 to 7 years after the minor reaches age 18 or 21, depending on the state

43
Q

Patient Rights

A
  • respectful care
  • Obtain up-to-date and understandable medical information regarding diagnosis, treatment, and likely outcomes
  • Be involved in the decision-making process throughout diagnosis and treatment
  • Have an advance directive on file
  • Privacy in all aspects of diagnosis and treatment
  • Complete conidentiality
  • View medical records of the case
  • Expect that a hospital will respond to a request for needed care and services - Be informed of business or educational relationships that may affect treatment and care
  • consent to or decline partición research studies
  • continuity of care
  • be informed of all charges and payment options
44
Q

Also called informed consent

A

Valid consent

45
Q

Copies of an advanced directive should be given to

A

Physician
Attorney
Family member
Medical record

46
Q

List the four conditions needed to establish malpractice

A
  1. Establishment of a standard of care
  2. Demonstration that the standard of care was violated by the tech
  3. Demonstration that loss or injury was caused by the tech who is being sued
  4. Demonstration that the loss or injury actually occurred and is a result of the negligence
47
Q

T/F

You can have a contrasted ct before an thyroid study

A

False-

Thyroid assessment must precede any exam

48
Q

If a PT needs a CT, lower and upper GI, CT, X-rays of the urinary tract and biliary system and an endoscopy what order should they be performed in?

A
  • endoscopy
  • radiography of urinary tract
  • radiography of the biliary system
  • CT
  • lower GI
  • upper GI
49
Q

PT prep for GI or urinary system

A

Low-residue/low fiber or clear liquid diet
NPO 8-12 hours
Enema for GI

50
Q

All factors involved in the spread of disease

A

Cycle of infection

51
Q

Describe the cycle of infection

A
  1. Infectious organism- pathogen
  2. Reservoir of infection- place where organism can thrive
  3. Portal of exit- any avenue available to exit the body
  4. Susceptible host
  5. Portal of entry- any avenue available to enter the body
  6. Mode of transportation- route taken by pathogens from reservoir to susceptible host
52
Q

What is an HAI?

A

Hospital acquired infection

Also called nonscomial infection

53
Q

An object that has been in contact with pathogens that comes in contact with susceptible tissues

A

Fomite

54
Q

Steps to open a sterile pack

A
  1. Check expiration date
  2. Place pack on a clean surface
  3. Break seal and open pack
  4. Unfold the first corner of the pack away from you
  5. Unfold both sides
  6. Pull front portion of the wrap toward you and drop
    it
  7. Never touch the inner surface
  8. If there is an inner wrap, open it using the same method
  9. Separately wrapped sterile items may be added to
    the sterile field by opening the pack and allowing the items to drop onto the sterile field
  10. Never allow the container to touch the sterile field
55
Q

Reverse isolation is used when

A

PTs have a decrease in white blood cell count (neutropenia)

56
Q

System that uses barriers to prevent contact with blood, all body fluids, nonintact skin, and mucous membranes of all individuals or susceptible persons, assumes all body fluids are sources of infection, assumes all patients are infected

A

Standard precautions

57
Q

Soaking of objects in germicidal solution

A

Chemical sterilization

58
Q

Sterilization with moist heat

A

Boiling

59
Q

Placing objects in an oven at a temp of greater than 329° F

A

Dry heat

60
Q

Ítems are exposed to a mixture of gases, which do not harm the materials

A

Gas sterilization

61
Q

Steam sterilization under pressure, most convienent way to sterilize materials

A

Autoclaving

62
Q

Diastolic pressure less than ____ mm Hg gives some indication of shock

A

50

63
Q

Failure of circulation in which blood pressure is inadequate to oxygenate tissues and remove by-products of metabolism

A

Shock

64
Q

Follows loss of large amounts of blood or plasma

A

Hypovolemic shock

65
Q

Occurs when toxins produced during massive infection cause a dramatic decrease in blood pressure

A

Septic shock

66
Q

Causes blood to pool in the peripheral vessels

A

Cardiogenic shock

67
Q

List symptoms of shock

A

Restlessness; apprehension; accelerated pulse; pale skin; weakness; alteration in ability to think; cool, clammy skin; systolic blood pressure less than 30 mm Hg

68
Q

What is the most common exam performed using a negative contrast agent?

A

CXR

69
Q

Symptoms of contrast reactions

A
  1. Nausea and vomiting
  2. Sneezing
  3. Sensation of heat
  4. Itching
  5. Hoarseness (or change in pitch of voice during conversation)
  6. Coughing
  7. Urticaria
  8. Dyspnea
  9. Loss of consciousness
  10. Convulsions
  11. Cardiac arrest
  12. Paralysis
  13. Any change in level of orientation
70
Q

For a lower GI give barium at what temp

A

100F give cold for UGI

71
Q

The larger the gauge the _______ the diameter of the needle opening

A

Smaller

72
Q

What are 3 possible routes of entry?

A
  1. Inhalation
  2. Swallowing
  3. Absorption through the skin or mucus membranes
73
Q

MSDS provide directions for what

A
  1. Handling precautions
  2. Safe use of the product
  3. Cleanup and disposal
74
Q

If you touch a hazardous chemical what must be done first?

A

Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 15 minutes