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Pharmacology > Pharm exam 2 > Flashcards

Pharm exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What can not be found on the product label?

a. Adverse events
b. Risk regarding age, weight, reproductive status
c. Level of efficacy achieved
d. Estimate safe dose/effective dose

A

c. Level of efficacy achieved

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2
Q

Which of the following are examples of long lasting insulin?

a. Vetsulin
b. Glargine
c. Glipizide
d. Detemir

A

b. Glargine

d. Detemir

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3
Q

Which of the following is not true?

a. Mitotane is cytotoxic to cells of the fasciculata
b. Ketoconazole is a potent hepatic microsomal enzyme inhibitor
c. Trilostane does not need to be monitored
d. Peroglide is used to treat pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction

A

c. Trilostane does not need to be monitored

monitor with ACTH stimulation tests

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4
Q

Which would be indicated for hospitalized patients who aren’t eating?

a. Lente
b. Protamine Zinc
c. Vetsulin
d. Regular insulin

A

d. Regular insulin

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5
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Butorphanol is a full u antagonist
b. Loperamide is a potent anti diarrheal
c. Fentanyl can partially reverse effect of a pure u agonist
d. Methadone is good for a transdermal patch

A

b. Loperamide is a potent anti diarrheal

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6
Q

Which would be used to treat hypothyroidism?

a. Methimazole
b. Levothyroxine
c. PTU
d. Y/D diet

A

b. Levothyroxine

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7
Q

Which of the following is false?

a. There really is no half life in zero order kinetics
b. Systemic bioavailability is the fraction of the dose which reaches the systemic circulation intact
c. Optimum dosage regimen should include a drug with prolonged drug residues in tissues of food animals
d. Dosage regimen includes dosage, route of administration, frequency and duration of administration

A

c. Optimum dosage regimen should include a drug with prolonged drug residues in tissues of food animals

should not have prolonged drug residues

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a GABA agonist?

a. Thiopental
b. Ketamine
c. Alfaxalone
d. Etomidate

A

b. Ketamine

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9
Q

Which of these would be contraindicated in cats?

a. Etomidate
b. Thiopental
c. Ketamine
d. Propofol

A

d. Propofol

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

a. Competitive NMDA agonist
b. Non-competitive NMDA agonist
c. Non-competitive NMDA antagonist
d. Competitive NMDA antagonist

A

c. Non-competitive NMDA antagonist

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11
Q

What is the emetic of choice in cats?

a. Dexedetomidine
b. Xylazine
c. Acepromazine
d. Diazepam

A

b. Xylazine

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12
Q

What is the reversal for Dexmedetomidine?

a. Yohimbine
b. Atipamezole
c. Flumazenil
d. Imepitoin

A

b. Atipamezole

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13
Q

Which has a higher potency in dogs?

a. Lente
b. Glargine
c. Detemir
d. NPH

A

c. Detemir

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14
Q

What is the reversal agent for diazepam?

a. Flumazenil
b. Imepitoin
c. Yohimbine
d. Atipamezole

A

a. Flumazenil

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15
Q

Which of the following causes hepatic toxicity when given orally?

a. Alprazolam
b. Acepromazine
c. Diazepam
d. Imepitoin

A

c. Diazepam

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16
Q

Which of the following is false in regards to acepromazine?

a. Competitively antagonize dopamine receptors
b. Emetic of choice for dogs
c. No reversal agent
d. Contraindicated in large breed dogs

A

b. Emetic of choice for dogs

anti-emetic

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17
Q

Which is false about drug efficacy?

a. Dose is the maximum effective
b. For each indication must be effective in target species
c. Definition is disease dependent
d. Field studies with privately owned dogs are conducted first

A

a. Dose is the maximum effective
d. Field studies with privately owned dogs are conducted first

a. lowest dose required for desired effect
d. conducted last

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18
Q

Which can be used to treat permethrin toxicosis in cats?

a. Dantrolene
b. Guaifenesin
c. Methocarbamol

A

c. Methocarbamol

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19
Q

Which of the following would have a ceiling effect?

a. Morphine
b. Hydromorphone
c. Buprenorphine
d. Naloxone

A

c. Buprenorphine

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20
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. Apomorphine is the emetic of choice in cats
b. Butorphanol is a K antagonist and U agonist
c. Naloxone is the reversal for opioids
d. Remifentanil has the slowest onset

A

c. Naloxone is the reversal for opioids

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21
Q

Which of the following is not in triple dip?

a. Ketamine
b. Dexmedetomide
c. Xylazine
d. Guaifenesin

A

b. Dexmedetomide

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22
Q

Where do benzodiazepines act?

a. Projection
b. Perception
c. Transmission
d. Modulation

A

b. Perception

d. Modulation

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23
Q

Which of the following is given orally?

a. Ca gluconate
b. Ca carbonate
c. Ca chloride
d. Ca proprionate

A

b. Ca carbonate

d. Ca proprionate

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24
Q

Which does A2 agonist not act on?

a. Perception
b. Transduction
c. Modulation
d. Transmission

A

b. Transduction

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25
Q

Why would a product with lower efficacy be registered?

a. Better safety profile
b. Different measurements
c. Different mode of action
d. It wouldn’t

A

a. Better safety profile
b. Different measurements
c. Different mode of action

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26
Q

If a dog were to present with low levels of T4 which would be most indicated?

a. Glucose
b. Levobunolol
c. Levothyroxine
d. Levofloxacin

A

c. Levothyroxine

27
Q

Where do opioids not act?

a. Perception
b. Transmission
c. Transduction
d. Modulation

A

b. Transmission

28
Q

Which drug would be useful in treating type 2 diabetes?

a. Regular insulin
b. Glaring
c. NPH
d. Glipizide

A

d. Glipizide

29
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

a. Inhibitory NT= GABA
b. Excitatory NT= Glutamate
c. GABAa= Chloride influx
d. GABAb= Potassium influx

A

d. GABAb= Potassium influx

30
Q

What opioid lowers the seizure threshold?

a. Butophanol
b. Buprenorphine
c. Fentanyl
d. Tramadol

A

d. Tramadol

31
Q

Which of the following statements are true about butorphanol?

a. It is a kappa agonist
b. It is a mu antagonist
c. Better for somatic pain than visceral pain
d. Can be used to reverse anesthesia without reversing analgesia

A

a. It is a kappa agonist
b. It is a mu antagonist
d. Can be used to reverse anesthesia without reversing analgesia

32
Q

True or False?

Dexmetetomidine is more alpha-2 selective than xylazine?

A

True

33
Q

What opioid cannot cross the BBB?

a. Fentanyl
b. Etorphine
c. Methylnatrexone
d. Buprenorphine

A

c. Methylnatrexone

34
Q

What sedatives can cause hypothermia?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Alpha-2 agonists
c. Barbiturates
d. Opioids

A

ALL

35
Q

What opioid is most commonly given transdermal?

a. Fentanyl
b. Etorphine
c. Methylnatrexone
d. Buprenorphine

A

a. Fentanyl

36
Q

What opioid is most potent?

a. Fentanyl
b. Etorphine
c. Methylnatrexone
d. Buprenorphine

A

b. Etorphine

37
Q

What induction agent has analgesic properties?

a. Thiopental
b. Propofol
c. Ketamine
d. Alfaxoline

A

c. Ketamine

38
Q

Opioids cause hyperthermia in what species?

a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Ruminants
d. Rabbits
e. Horses

A

b. Cats
c. Ruminants
e. Horses

39
Q

Is flumazenil a competitive or non-competitive antagonist?

A

Competitive

40
Q

What drug class does not cause muscle relaxation?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
d. Opioids
e. Dissociative anesthetics
f. GABA agonists

A

e. Dissociative anesthetics

41
Q

Which drug classes cause hypotension?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
d. Opioids
e. Dissociative anesthetics
f. GABA agonists

A

a. Phenothiazines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
f. GABA agonists

42
Q

What drugs can be given to stop a seizure in progress?

a. Diazepam
b. Phenobarbital
c. Levetiracetam
d. Midzolam
e. Propofol

A

a. Diazepam
b. Phenobarbital
d. Midzolam
e. Propofol

43
Q

Which AED is neuroprotective?

a. Diazepam
b. Phenobarbital
c. Levetiracetam
d. Midzolam
e. Propofol

A

e. Propofol

44
Q

What drug is used to reverse diazepam?

a. Atipemazole
b. Yohimbine
c. Flumazenil
d. Naloxone

A

c. Flumazenil

45
Q

Which of the following drug classes have reversal agents?

a. Alpha-2 agonists
b. Opioids
c. Dissociative anesthetics
d. Benzodiazepines
e. Phenothiazines

A

a. Alpha-2 agonists
b. Opioids
d. Benzodiazepines

46
Q

What AED is safest in patients with severe hepatic disease?

a. KBr
b. Phenobarbital
c. Diazepam
d. Levetiracetam

A

d. Levetiracetam

47
Q

Which of the following statements is true about phenobarbital?

a. It is a first choice drug in treatment of idiopathic epilepsy
b. It is an enzyme inhibitor
c. It can cause hepatic disease when given long term
d. Patients on phenobarbital long term should have liver enzymes checked every 6-12 months

A

a. It is a first choice drug in treatment of idiopathic epilepsy
c. It can cause hepatic disease when given long term
d. Patients on phenobarbital long term should have liver enzymes checked every 6-12 months

48
Q

True or False?

Cattle are more sensitive to guaifenesin than horses?

A

True

49
Q

What receptors do phenothiazines bind?

a. GABA
b. Alpha-1
c. Dopamine
d. Muscarinic

A

b. Alpha-1
c. Dopamine
d. Muscarinic

50
Q

What are the drugs in kitty magic?

a. Buprenorphine
b. Dexmedetomidine
c. Ketamine
d. Morphine

A

a. Buprenorphine
b. Dexmedetomidine
c. Ketamine

51
Q

What sedatives are not approved for food animals?

a. GABA agonists
b. Alpha-2 agonists
c. Phenothiazines
d. Benzodiazepines

A

c. Phenothiazines

52
Q

Which of the following drug classes act on GABA?

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturates
c. Propofol
d. Dissociative anesthetics

A

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturates
c. Propofol

53
Q

What parts of the pain pathway are affected by opioids?

a. Transmission
b. Transduction
c. Modulation
d. Perception

A

b. Transduction
c. Modulation
d. Perception

54
Q

What drug results in splenomegaly?

a. Acepromazine
b. Ketamine
c. Diazepam
d. Propofol

A

a. Acepromazine

55
Q

Which of the following drugs have analgesic effects?

a. Ketamine
b. Diazepam
c. Acepromazine
d. Fentanyl

A

a. Ketamine

d. Fentanyl

56
Q

Which of the following drugs cause hypotension?

a. Acepromazine
b. Propofol
c. Dexmedetomidine
d. Fentanyl

A

a. Acepromazine
b. Propofol
c. Dexmedetomidine

57
Q

Which of the following drug classes have a reversal agent?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
d. GABA agonists

A

b. Benzodiazepines

c. Alpha-2 agonists

58
Q

Which of the following treats hyperthyroidism by decreasing the amount of available iodine to produce T4?

a. Methimazole
b. Y/D diet
c. Surgery
d. Levothyroxine

A

b. Y/D diet

59
Q

True or False?

T4 enhances the tissues response to catecholamines?

A

True

60
Q

What drug is used to treat central diabetes insipidus?

a. Thiazide diuretics
b. Furosemide
c. Desmopressin
d. Pimobendan

A

c. Desmopressin

61
Q

What insulin is given IV?

a. Vetsulin
b. Prozinc
c. Determir
d. Regular insulin

A

d. Regular insulin

62
Q

True or False?

The goal of therapy for diabetes mellitus is to correct the hyperglycemia?

A

False

63
Q

Which of the following is true about glipizide?

a. It is an oral hypoglycemic agent
b. It is used to treat hypoglycemia
c. It is used in type 1 diabetes
d. It is approved in cats only

A

a. It is an oral hypoglycemic agent

d. It is approved in cats only

Pharmacology (3 decks)

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