Pharm exam 2 Flashcards Preview

Pharmacology > Pharm exam 2 > Flashcards

Flashcards in Pharm exam 2 Deck (63):
1

What can not be found on the product label?

a. Adverse events
b. Risk regarding age, weight, reproductive status
c. Level of efficacy achieved
d. Estimate safe dose/effective dose

c. Level of efficacy achieved

2

Which of the following are examples of long lasting insulin?

a. Vetsulin
b. Glargine
c. Glipizide
d. Detemir

b. Glargine
d. Detemir

3

Which of the following is not true?

a. Mitotane is cytotoxic to cells of the fasciculata
b. Ketoconazole is a potent hepatic microsomal enzyme inhibitor
c. Trilostane does not need to be monitored
d. Peroglide is used to treat pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction

c. Trilostane does not need to be monitored

monitor with ACTH stimulation tests

4

Which would be indicated for hospitalized patients who aren't eating?

a. Lente
b. Protamine Zinc
c. Vetsulin
d. Regular insulin

d. Regular insulin

5

Which of the following is true?

a. Butorphanol is a full u antagonist
b. Loperamide is a potent anti diarrheal
c. Fentanyl can partially reverse effect of a pure u agonist
d. Methadone is good for a transdermal patch

b. Loperamide is a potent anti diarrheal

6

Which would be used to treat hypothyroidism?

a. Methimazole
b. Levothyroxine
c. PTU
d. Y/D diet

b. Levothyroxine

7

Which of the following is false?

a. There really is no half life in zero order kinetics
b. Systemic bioavailability is the fraction of the dose which reaches the systemic circulation intact
c. Optimum dosage regimen should include a drug with prolonged drug residues in tissues of food animals
d. Dosage regimen includes dosage, route of administration, frequency and duration of administration

c. Optimum dosage regimen should include a drug with prolonged drug residues in tissues of food animals

should not have prolonged drug residues

8

Which of the following is not a GABA agonist?

a. Thiopental
b. Ketamine
c. Alfaxalone
d. Etomidate

b. Ketamine

9

Which of these would be contraindicated in cats?

a. Etomidate
b. Thiopental
c. Ketamine
d. Propofol

d. Propofol

10

What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

a. Competitive NMDA agonist
b. Non-competitive NMDA agonist
c. Non-competitive NMDA antagonist
d. Competitive NMDA antagonist

c. Non-competitive NMDA antagonist

11

What is the emetic of choice in cats?

a. Dexedetomidine
b. Xylazine
c. Acepromazine
d. Diazepam

b. Xylazine

12

What is the reversal for Dexmedetomidine?

a. Yohimbine
b. Atipamezole
c. Flumazenil
d. Imepitoin

b. Atipamezole

13

Which has a higher potency in dogs?

a. Lente
b. Glargine
c. Detemir
d. NPH

c. Detemir

14

What is the reversal agent for diazepam?

a. Flumazenil
b. Imepitoin
c. Yohimbine
d. Atipamezole

a. Flumazenil

15

Which of the following causes hepatic toxicity when given orally?

a. Alprazolam
b. Acepromazine
c. Diazepam
d. Imepitoin

c. Diazepam

16

Which of the following is false in regards to acepromazine?

a. Competitively antagonize dopamine receptors
b. Emetic of choice for dogs
c. No reversal agent
d. Contraindicated in large breed dogs

b. Emetic of choice for dogs

anti-emetic

17

Which is false about drug efficacy?

a. Dose is the maximum effective
b. For each indication must be effective in target species
c. Definition is disease dependent
d. Field studies with privately owned dogs are conducted first

a. Dose is the maximum effective
d. Field studies with privately owned dogs are conducted first

a. lowest dose required for desired effect
d. conducted last

18

Which can be used to treat permethrin toxicosis in cats?

a. Dantrolene
b. Guaifenesin
c. Methocarbamol

c. Methocarbamol

19

Which of the following would have a ceiling effect?

a. Morphine
b. Hydromorphone
c. Buprenorphine
d. Naloxone

c. Buprenorphine

20

Which of the following is true?

a. Apomorphine is the emetic of choice in cats
b. Butorphanol is a K antagonist and U agonist
c. Naloxone is the reversal for opioids
d. Remifentanil has the slowest onset

c. Naloxone is the reversal for opioids

21

Which of the following is not in triple dip?

a. Ketamine
b. Dexmedetomide
c. Xylazine
d. Guaifenesin

b. Dexmedetomide

22

Where do benzodiazepines act?

a. Projection
b. Perception
c. Transmission
d. Modulation

b. Perception
d. Modulation

23

Which of the following is given orally?

a. Ca gluconate
b. Ca carbonate
c. Ca chloride
d. Ca proprionate

b. Ca carbonate
d. Ca proprionate

24

Which does A2 agonist not act on?

a. Perception
b. Transduction
c. Modulation
d. Transmission

b. Transduction

25

Why would a product with lower efficacy be registered?

a. Better safety profile
b. Different measurements
c. Different mode of action
d. It wouldn't

a. Better safety profile
b. Different measurements
c. Different mode of action

26

If a dog were to present with low levels of T4 which would be most indicated?

a. Glucose
b. Levobunolol
c. Levothyroxine
d. Levofloxacin

c. Levothyroxine

27

Where do opioids not act?

a. Perception
b. Transmission
c. Transduction
d. Modulation

b. Transmission

28

Which drug would be useful in treating type 2 diabetes?

a. Regular insulin
b. Glaring
c. NPH
d. Glipizide

d. Glipizide

29

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

a. Inhibitory NT= GABA
b. Excitatory NT= Glutamate
c. GABAa= Chloride influx
d. GABAb= Potassium influx

d. GABAb= Potassium influx

30

What opioid lowers the seizure threshold?

a. Butophanol
b. Buprenorphine
c. Fentanyl
d. Tramadol

d. Tramadol

31

Which of the following statements are true about butorphanol?

a. It is a kappa agonist
b. It is a mu antagonist
c. Better for somatic pain than visceral pain
d. Can be used to reverse anesthesia without reversing analgesia

a. It is a kappa agonist
b. It is a mu antagonist
d. Can be used to reverse anesthesia without reversing analgesia

32

True or False?

Dexmetetomidine is more alpha-2 selective than xylazine?

True

33

What opioid cannot cross the BBB?

a. Fentanyl
b. Etorphine
c. Methylnatrexone
d. Buprenorphine

c. Methylnatrexone

34

What sedatives can cause hypothermia?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Alpha-2 agonists
c. Barbiturates
d. Opioids

ALL

35

What opioid is most commonly given transdermal?

a. Fentanyl
b. Etorphine
c. Methylnatrexone
d. Buprenorphine

a. Fentanyl

36

What opioid is most potent?

a. Fentanyl
b. Etorphine
c. Methylnatrexone
d. Buprenorphine

b. Etorphine

37

What induction agent has analgesic properties?

a. Thiopental
b. Propofol
c. Ketamine
d. Alfaxoline

c. Ketamine

38

Opioids cause hyperthermia in what species?

a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. Ruminants
d. Rabbits
e. Horses

b. Cats
c. Ruminants
e. Horses

39

Is flumazenil a competitive or non-competitive antagonist?

Competitive

40

What drug class does not cause muscle relaxation?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
d. Opioids
e. Dissociative anesthetics
f. GABA agonists

e. Dissociative anesthetics

41

Which drug classes cause hypotension?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
d. Opioids
e. Dissociative anesthetics
f. GABA agonists

a. Phenothiazines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
f. GABA agonists

42

What drugs can be given to stop a seizure in progress?

a. Diazepam
b. Phenobarbital
c. Levetiracetam
d. Midzolam
e. Propofol

a. Diazepam
b. Phenobarbital
d. Midzolam
e. Propofol

43

Which AED is neuroprotective?

a. Diazepam
b. Phenobarbital
c. Levetiracetam
d. Midzolam
e. Propofol

e. Propofol

44

What drug is used to reverse diazepam?

a. Atipemazole
b. Yohimbine
c. Flumazenil
d. Naloxone

c. Flumazenil

45

Which of the following drug classes have reversal agents?

a. Alpha-2 agonists
b. Opioids
c. Dissociative anesthetics
d. Benzodiazepines
e. Phenothiazines

a. Alpha-2 agonists
b. Opioids
d. Benzodiazepines

46

What AED is safest in patients with severe hepatic disease?

a. KBr
b. Phenobarbital
c. Diazepam
d. Levetiracetam

d. Levetiracetam

47

Which of the following statements is true about phenobarbital?

a. It is a first choice drug in treatment of idiopathic epilepsy
b. It is an enzyme inhibitor
c. It can cause hepatic disease when given long term
d. Patients on phenobarbital long term should have liver enzymes checked every 6-12 months

a. It is a first choice drug in treatment of idiopathic epilepsy
c. It can cause hepatic disease when given long term
d. Patients on phenobarbital long term should have liver enzymes checked every 6-12 months

48

True or False?

Cattle are more sensitive to guaifenesin than horses?

True

49

What receptors do phenothiazines bind?

a. GABA
b. Alpha-1
c. Dopamine
d. Muscarinic

b. Alpha-1
c. Dopamine
d. Muscarinic

50

What are the drugs in kitty magic?

a. Buprenorphine
b. Dexmedetomidine
c. Ketamine
d. Morphine

a. Buprenorphine
b. Dexmedetomidine
c. Ketamine

51

What sedatives are not approved for food animals?

a. GABA agonists
b. Alpha-2 agonists
c. Phenothiazines
d. Benzodiazepines

c. Phenothiazines

52

Which of the following drug classes act on GABA?

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturates
c. Propofol
d. Dissociative anesthetics

a. Benzodiazepines
b. Barbiturates
c. Propofol

53

What parts of the pain pathway are affected by opioids?

a. Transmission
b. Transduction
c. Modulation
d. Perception

b. Transduction
c. Modulation
d. Perception

54

What drug results in splenomegaly?

a. Acepromazine
b. Ketamine
c. Diazepam
d. Propofol

a. Acepromazine

55

Which of the following drugs have analgesic effects?

a. Ketamine
b. Diazepam
c. Acepromazine
d. Fentanyl

a. Ketamine
d. Fentanyl

56

Which of the following drugs cause hypotension?

a. Acepromazine
b. Propofol
c. Dexmedetomidine
d. Fentanyl

a. Acepromazine
b. Propofol
c. Dexmedetomidine

57

Which of the following drug classes have a reversal agent?

a. Phenothiazines
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists
d. GABA agonists

b. Benzodiazepines
c. Alpha-2 agonists

58

Which of the following treats hyperthyroidism by decreasing the amount of available iodine to produce T4?

a. Methimazole
b. Y/D diet
c. Surgery
d. Levothyroxine

b. Y/D diet

59

True or False?

T4 enhances the tissues response to catecholamines?

True

60

What drug is used to treat central diabetes insipidus?

a. Thiazide diuretics
b. Furosemide
c. Desmopressin
d. Pimobendan

c. Desmopressin

61

What insulin is given IV?

a. Vetsulin
b. Prozinc
c. Determir
d. Regular insulin

d. Regular insulin

62

True or False?

The goal of therapy for diabetes mellitus is to correct the hyperglycemia?

False

63

Which of the following is true about glipizide?

a. It is an oral hypoglycemic agent
b. It is used to treat hypoglycemia
c. It is used in type 1 diabetes
d. It is approved in cats only

a. It is an oral hypoglycemic agent
d. It is approved in cats only