Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Pharma - Evals 6 > Flashcards

Pharma - Evals 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Best time to administer a PPI

A

30-60 minutes before meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Triple therapy for H. pylori

A

Omeprazole 20 mgBID
Clarithromycin 500mg BID
Amoxicillin 1g (or Metronidazole 500mg) BID
14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Quadruple therapy for H. pylori

A 
Omeprazole 20 mgBID
Metronidaxole  500mg TID
Bismuth subsalicylate 525mg QID
Tetracycline 500mg QID
14 days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Enzymes that primarily metabolize PPIs

A

CYP3A4

CYP2C19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cytoprotective actions of Misoprostol ay 20mcg

A

Increase mucus and bicarbonate production
Enhance mucosal blood flow
Maintains tight junction between epithelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Anti-H. pylori antibacterials

Clue: MCBAT

A 
Metronidazole
Clarithromycin
Bismuth subsalicylate
Amoxicillin
Tetracycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cytoprotective drugs

A

Prostaglandin analogs (Misoprostol)
Sucralfate
Bismuth Chelate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

AE of Misoprostol

A

Uterine contraction leading to abortion
Diarrhea
Abdominal cramps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

AE of Ranitidine

A

Headache, drowsiness
Diarrhea
Rashes
Arrhythmia (with rapid IV infusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AE of Sucralfate

A

Constipation (most common)
Dry mouth, nausea, vomiting
Aluminum overload in px with renal dysfunction
Benzoar development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Activation site of Omeprazole

A

Parietal cells cannaliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MOA of Benzimidazoles (Albendazole and Mebendazoles)

A

Inhibits microtubule polymerization by binding to beta-tubulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MOA of Ivermectin

A

Binds to glutamate-activated Cl- channels in nematode muscles causing hyperpolarization and TONIC PARALYSIS
Intensifies GABA-mediated neurotransmission in nematodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Albendazole intake for tissue parasites

A

After a fatty meal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Albendazole intake for luminal parasites

A

Empty stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DOC for filariasis, loaisis and tropical eosinophilia

A

Diethylcarbamazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DOC for cestodes and temodes + all Schistosoma

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DOC for pinworm (can be used for hookworm/A. duodenale or N. americanus)

A

Pyrantel pamoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DOC for strongyloides (threadworm) and onchocerciasis

A

Ivermectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MOA of praziquantel

A

Calcium ion influx causing contraction of schistosome muscles resulting in appearance of small holes and balloon-like structures which will make the parasite vulnerable to antibody binding and leukocyte killing;
SPASTIC PARALYSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DOC for hydatid disease and ascariasis (roundworm) + cysticercosis (T. solium)

A

Albendazole

Ovicidal and Larvicidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DOC for whipworm (Trichuris)

A

Mebendazole

Ovicidal - Ascaris and Trichuris EGGs
Larvicidal - larva and adult stage of nematodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MOA of Diethylcarbamazine

A

Piperazine derivative that causes direct effect to microfilariae of W. bancrofti which leads to organelle damage and eventually apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MOA Praziquantel

A

Increases the permeability of trematode and cestode cell membranes to calcium, causing paralysis, dislodgement and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MOA of Pyrantel Pamoate

A

Persistent activation of nicotinic cholinergic receptor resulting in SPASTIC PARALYSIS of the worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mazzoti reaction

A

Exacerbationof the immune system due to dying bodies of the parasites
Produces fever, headache, dizziness, rashes, tachycardia, hypotension and arthralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Drugs that cause Mazzoti reaction

A

Ivermectin and Diethylcarbamazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Pregnancy considerations of Benzimidazoles

A

Beneficial for 2nd and 3rd trimester

Avoided during 1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Major excretory pathway of tissue amoebicides

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DOC for intestinal amoebiasis (oral)

A

Paromomycin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DOC for extraluminal amoebasis (amebic colitis and amebic liver disease), giardiasis, trichomaniasis
(Kills trophozoites, not cysts of E. histolytica)

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MOA of Metronidazole

A

Reactive reduction of nitro group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Effect of Metronidazole on alcohol

A

Stop acetaldehyde dehydrogenase causing accumulation of acetaldehyde, leading to hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DOC for severe intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis if metronizadole is CI

A

Dehydroemetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

DOC for non-falciparum malaria + amebic liver abscesses only

Clue: Also a DMARD

A

Chloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Luminal amoebicide that is CI in px with thyroid ds

Alternative for intestinal amoebiasis

A

Iodoquinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Alternative drug for amoebiasis during 1st trimester

A

Paromomycin sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

AE of tetracycline

A

Tooth discoloration
Bone development in fetus
Drug-induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DOC for asymptomatic luminal infection (as a single agent)

A

Diloxanide furoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MOA of Nitazoxanide

A

Converted to TIZOXANIDE (active metab) to inhibi PFOR dependent enzymes but does not produce DNA mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pregnancy considerations for Metronidazole

A

Crosses the placenta

Theoretical risk to fetus, not recommended in early pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Two metabolites of Diloxanide furoate

A

Diloxanide

Furoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Uses of Nitazoxanide

A 
E. histolytica
Giardia
T. vaginalis
C. parvum
H. nana
T. trichiura
H. pylori (pediatric)
A. lumbricoides
F. hepatics
Several tapeworms
Metronidazole-resistant protozoal strains
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MOA of Neostigmine

A

Amplifies action of Ach, increasing parasympathetic activity and somatic neuromuscular transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Action of Metoclopramide

A

D2 receptor antagonism
5-HT4 agonism
Vagal and Central 5-HT3 antagonism
Possible sensitisation of muscarinic receptors on smooth muscles (most effective for GERD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

AE of Metoclopramide

A

Extrapyramidal effects
Galactorrhea
Methemoglobinemia in premature and full term infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Prokinetic that has most potential to induce serious and fatal arrhythmias when combines with other drugs that inhibit CYP3A4

A

Cisapride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Anti-secretory agent best used for the treatment of “dumping syndrome” after gastric surgery or pyroplasty

A

Octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hexose nucleus of Streptomycin

A

Streptidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hexose nucleus for all other aminoglycosides

A

2-deoxystreptamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Drugs that are synergistic with Aminoglycosides

A

Vancomycin, Cephalosporin and Beta-lactams

52
Q

Entry of Aminoglycosides

A

Initial event: Passive diffusion
Diffuse through aqeuous channels formed by porin proteins in the outer membtrane of Gram (-) bacteria to enter the periplasmic space

53
Q

MOA of Aminoglycosides

A

Irreversible inhibitors of protein synthesis by:

  1. Breaking polysomes into non-functional monosomes
  2. Interfering with initiation complex of peptide formation
  3. Inducing misreading of mRNA
54
Q

Conditions that inhibit transport of Aminoglycosides

A

Low extracellular pH

Anaerobic conditions

55
Q

Conditions that enhance transport of Aminoglycosides

A

Cell wall active drugs (vancomycin, cephalosporin and beta-lactams)

56
Q

Mode of excretion of Aminoglycosides

A

Glomerular filtration

Urine

57
Q

Aminoglycosides are products of what group of microorganisms

A

Streptomyces

Micromonospora

58
Q

Central nucleus of aminoglycosides

A

Aminocyclitol

59
Q

Only aminoglycoside that should not be administered parenterally

A

Neomycin (Topical and Oral)

60
Q

Most nephrotoxic aminoglycosides

A

Neomycin

61
Q

Lest nephrotoxic aminglycoside

A

Streptomycin

62
Q

Neuromuscular blockade treatment

A 
Calcium salts (Calcium gluconate)
Neostigmine
63
Q

Neuromuscular blockade causes

A

Receive neuromuscular-blocking agents
Receive general anesthesia
Px with myasthenia gravis

64
Q

Neuromuscular effects (worst to least)

A

Neomycin > Streptomycin > Netilmicin > Kanamycin > Amikacin & Tobramycin

65
Q

MNEMONIC:
Buy AT 30
CCELL at 50

A

Tetracycline and Aminoglycosides - 30s

Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin, Erythromycin, Lincomycin, Linezolid - 50s

66
Q

Luminal Amoebicides

Clue: DIP

A

Diloxanide
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin

67
Q

Amoebicide with Disulfram-like Effect (flushing, vomiting, nausea) + bitter/metallic taste

A

Metronidazole

68
Q

Amebicide associated with optic atrophy and permanent loss of vision + GI upset

A

Iodoquinol

69
Q

Uses of topical and parenteral prep of Paromomycin

A

Topical: Trichomoniasis
Parenteral: Visceral Leishmaniasis

70
Q

Amebicide considered cardiotoxic

A

Emetine

71
Q

Amebicide that causes dysuria, cystitis and sense of pelvic pressure

A

Metronidazole

72
Q

River blindness

A

Onchocerciasis

73
Q

Alternative drugs for S. mansoni and S. haematobium

A

S. mansoni: Oxamniquine

S. haematobium: Metrifonate

74
Q

Drug used with pyrantel pamoate to treat whipworm infection

A

Oxantel

75
Q

Treatment for neurocysticercosis

A

Glucocorticoid + Albendazole

76
Q

Drug that increases plasma concentration of Mebendazole

A

Cimetidine (CYP450 inhibitor)

77
Q

Drugs used to treat nematodes

A

Benzimidazoles
Pyrantel pamoate
DEC
Ivermectin

78
Q

Drugs used to treat cestodes

A

Praziquantel
Albendazole
Niclosamide

79
Q

Drugs used to treat trematodes

A

Praziquantel
Oxamniqine
Metrofinate
Triclabendazole

80
Q

PPI metabolized by sulfotransferase

A

Pantoprazole

81
Q

PPI metabolized by non-enzymatic reaction

A

Rabeprazole

82
Q

AE of Aluminum hydroxide and Magnesium hydroxide

A

Aluminum hydroxide: Constipation

Magnesium hydroxide: Diarrhea

83
Q

PPI that inhibits that inihibits CYP2C19

A

Omeprazole

84
Q

DOC for NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease and its complication

A

Misoprostol

85
Q

MOA of bismuth subsalicylate

A

Induce cytoprotective action
Promote mucina and bicardbonate production
Significant antibacterial effects

86
Q

Predominantly causes irreversible cochlear toxicity

A

Amikacin
Neomycin
Kanamycin

87
Q

Predominantly causes irreversible vestibular toxicity

A

Streptomycin, Gentamycin

88
Q

Equal vestibular and cochlear toxicities

A

Tobramycin

89
Q

Least ototoxic

A

Netilmicin

90
Q

Aminoglycoside that causes “Red Man” or “Red Neck” syndrome (pruritus, erythematous rash of the head and upper body and flushing)

A

Vancomycin

91
Q

MOA of glycopeptides

A

Inhibit cell wall synthesis by interfering with 2nd stage of peptidoglycan synthesis

92
Q

Method for determining aminoglycoside dose

A

Estimate creatinine clearance

93
Q

First-line therapy for acute toxoplasmosis

Clue: potent inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

94
Q

Glycopeptide half-lives

A 
Dalbavancin = 6-11 days
Telavancin = 8 hours
Vancomycin = 6-10 days
Teicoplanin = 45-70 hours
95
Q

Main approach to treatment of diarrhea

A

Oral Rehydration Therapy

96
Q

MOA of Racecadotril

A

Anti-diarrheal dipeptide that reduces the secretion of water and electrolytes into the intestine by inhibiting ENKEPHALINASE

97
Q

DOC for chemotherapy induced emesis

A

Ondansetron

98
Q

Prokinetic agent that promotes post-partum lactation

A

Domperidone

99
Q

Preferred ROA of Emetine

A

Subcutaneously (with pain on the injection site)

100
Q

DOC for asymptomatic intestinal AMOEBIASIS

A

Paromomycin

101
Q

Alternative drugs for treatment of amebic colitis for patients who cannot tolerate Metronidazole

A

Tetracyclines and Erythromycin

102
Q

Amebicide that is primarily excreted via feces

A

Iodoquinol

103
Q

AE of Nitazoxaminde

A 
Abdominal pain
Diarrhea
Vomiting
Headache
GREENISH TINT TO THE URINE
104
Q

AE of Diloxanide furoate

A 
FLATULENCE
Nausea
Vomiting
Diarrhea
Pruritus
105
Q

Iodine toxicity (dermatitis + urtricaria + pruritus + fever) is an AE

A

Iodoquinol

106
Q

High carbohydrate diet increases plasma concentration of this drug

A

Praziquantel

107
Q

Alternative drug for neurocysticercosis

A

Praziquantel

108
Q

Alternative drug for onchocerciasis

A

Diethylcarbamazine

109
Q

Alternative drug for ascaris

A

Piperazine

110
Q

Bioavailability reduced by intake of corticosteroids

A

Praziquantel

111
Q

Empiric therapy to treat those who return to tropics with persistent unexplained eosinophilia

A

Albendazole

112
Q

Active metabolite of Metrifonate

A

Dichlorvos

113
Q

Antihelminthic of choice for hydatid disease (E. granulosus)

A

Albendazole

114
Q

Antihelminthic of choice for H. nana infection (cestode)

A

Praziquantel

115
Q

Antihelminthic of choice for Brugaria malayi (filariasis)

A

Diethylcarbamazine

116
Q

Alternative drug for Strongyloidiasis

A

Thiabendazole

117
Q

DOC for Fasciola hepatica (Fascioliasis)

A

Bithionol (no alternative drug)

118
Q

Alternative for H. nana

A

Niclosamide

119
Q

Site of action of 5HT3 antagonists

A

Chemoreceptor trigger zone

120
Q

Site of action of H1 receptor antagonists

A

Vestibular nuclei

121
Q

MOA of Domperidone

A

D2 receptor antagonist

Suppresses Ach release from myenteric motor neurons

122
Q

MOA of Cisapride

A

5-HT4 agonist

123
Q

Hepatic metabolic alteration of sulphonamides

A

Acetylation

124
Q

Indications of Clindamycin

A

Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections caused by Streptococci and Staphylococci

125
Q

Systemic aminoglycoside, administered parenterally only

A

Amikacin

126
Q

Aminoglycoside used for Pseudomonas

Clue: TAG

A

Gentamicin
Amikacin
Tobramycin

127
Q

DOC for non-ulcer dyspepsia

A

Omeprazole

Pharmacology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions