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Pharma > Pharmacotherapy > Flashcards

Pharmacotherapy Flashcards

1
Q

Aspiration pneumonia the following combination might be the most effective

a. Procain penicillin + Streptomycin
b. Gentamycin + Amikacin + Tobramycin
c. Gentamycin + amoxicillin clavulanate + metronidazole
d. Clinamycin + Gentamycin + enrofloxacin

A

c. Gentamycin + amoxicillin clavulanate + metronidazole

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2
Q

This drug is a probenzimidazole (prodrug), it can be administered both orally and perenterally

a. Febantel
b. Netobimin
c. Thiophanate
d. Diamphenethide

A

b. Netobimin

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3
Q

Which additional food supplement can be applied in feline rhinotracheitis to decrease viral replication?

a. Vitamin C
b. L-lysine
c. Glucosaminoglycans
d. Acetyl-salicylic acid

A

b. L-lysine

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4
Q

Aldosterone antagonist diuretic drug, can be used in congestive heart failure

a. Lisinopril
b. Enalapril
c. Spiranolactone
d. Pimobendan

A

c. Spiranolactone

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5
Q

This substances can be added to the feedstuff of swine to treat atrophic rhinitis caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica

a. Procan penicillin and benzathiazine penicillin
b. Lincomycin
c. Doxycyclin
d. Gentamycin

A

b. Lincomycin

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6
Q

These highly lipophilic compounds are supplied only via medicated food

a. Triazone derivates
b. Sulphoamides
c. Pentavalent antimony compounds
d. Ionophore antibiotics

A

d. Ionophore antibiotics

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7
Q

This anthelminthic drug has very low oral bioavailability, but is highly effective in horses against nematodes and certain cestodes in the large bowel, because of the high enough concentration there

a. Pyrantel
b. Praziquantel
c. Triclabendazole
d. Closantel

A

a. Pyrantel

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8
Q

These two antiemetics must not be combined

a. Metoclopramide + Maropitant
b. Tiethylperazine + Maropitant
c. Metoclopramide + Tiethylperazine
d. Ondansetron + Tiethylperazine

A

c. Metoclopramide + Tiethylperazine

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9
Q

Which substances would you use for adjunctive treatment of bacterial urinary tract infections?

a. Silymarin, D-penicillin
b. Diazepam, Medetomidine
c. Vitamin C, Methionine
d. L-lysine, Omega-3 fatty acids

A

c. Vitamin C, Methionine

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10
Q

Injectable anaesthetic that can be used as an appetite stimulant in dogs

a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Thiopental
d. Cyprohepatidine

A

b. Propofol

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11
Q

Frequently toxic in collies, causing paralysis in sensitive individuals

a. Selamectin
b. Ivermectin
c. Levamisole
d. Amitraz

A

b. Ivermectin

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12
Q

H2-antagonist substance that has the longest duration of action in dogs

a. Cimetidine
b. Ranitidine
c. Famotidine
d. Omeprazole

A

c. Famotidine

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13
Q

Inodilator, increases heart contractility and decreases peripheral resistance

a. Ramipril
b. Pimobendan
c. Digoxin
d. Hydralazine

A

b. Pimobendan

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14
Q

Sedative drug with no analgesic properties

a. Chlorpromazine
b. Butorphanol
c. Xylazine
d. Romifidine

A

a. Chlorpromazine

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15
Q

First choice for the ORAL treatment of canine superficial pyoderma

a. Amoxicillin
b. Cefalexin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Gentamycin

A

b. Cefalexin

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16
Q

According to the label instructions this ionophore antibiotic is intended also for rabbits

a. Narasin
b. Monensin
c. Lasalocid
d. Salinomycin

A

d. Salinomycin

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17
Q

Neophobia (the fear and rejection of new food) can render the per os application of drugs much more difficult in this species

a. Swine
b. Dogs
c. Cats
d. Horse

A

d. Horse

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18
Q

Primary choice for the treatment of idiopathic colitis in dogs

a. Activated carbon
b. Famotidine
c. Sulfasalazine
d. Sucralfate

A

c. Sulfasalazine

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19
Q

The anthelminthic drugs of this group are very effective against both adult gastro-intestinal roundworms and their migrating or hypo biotic larval stages, even when they are applied orally

a. Piperazines
b. Sulphide-Benzimidazoles
c. Tetrahydropyrimidines
d. Organophorphates

A

b. Sulphide-Benzimidazoles

Organophosphates

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20
Q

Effective and frequently used emetic in cats

a. Apomorphine
b. Famotidine
c. Acepromazine
d. Xylazine

A

d. Xylazine

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21
Q

Antistaphylococcal drug that can be used even in MRSA infections LOCALLY

a. Oxacillin
b. Mupirocin
c. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
d. Vancomycin

A

b. Mupirocin

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22
Q

Its analgesic activity is negligible

a. Ketamine
b. Thiopental
c. Xylazine
b. Buprenorphine

A

b. Thiopental

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23
Q

First line compound for the treatment of canine demodicosis and noncommittal deep pyoderma

a. Benzoyl peroxide shampoo
b. Ethyl lactate shampoo
c. Salicylic acid shampoo
d. Suspension containing an amino glycoside

A

a. Benzoyl peroxide shampoo

24
Q

This non-toxic anthelmintic is highly effective against tapeworm, including the Echinococcus spp. but ineffective against roundworm

a. Nitroscanate
b. Praziquantel
c. Flubendazole
d. Mebendazole

A

b. Praziquantel

25
Q

It is a COX-2 selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

a. Ketoprofen
b. Carprofen
c. Aspirin
c. Metamizol-Na

A

b. Carprofen

26
Q

Herpes keratitis present in feline rhinotracheitis CANNOT be treated with

a. Local acyclovir treatment
b. Systemic acyclovir treatment
c. Systemic interferon treatment
d. Local trifluridine treatment

A

b. Systemic acyclovir treatment

27
Q

With the help of this agent it is possible to induce pupillary dilation in birds

a. D-tubocurarine
b. Atropine
c. Carbachol
d. Epinephrine

A

a. D-tubocurarine

28
Q

Antibiotic combination appropriate for the treatment of severe bronchopneumonia caused by P. aeruginosa

a. Lincomycin-spectinomycin
b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
c. Piperacilin-tazobactam
d. Penicillin-streptomycin

A

b. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

29
Q

Can be used for the prevention of abortion due to toxoplasmosis in ewes

a. Salinomycin
b. Decoquinate
c. Halofuginone
d. Narasin

A

b. Decoquinate

30
Q

What is the most effective way for the treatment of nasal aspergillosis?

a. Surgical treatment and curettage
b. Local treatment of nasal cavity with clotrimazole
c. Per os itraconazole for 4-6 weeks
d. A + B + C together are necessary

A

c. Per os itraconazole for 4-6 weeks

31
Q

Primary causative agent of canine pharyngitis - and the primary choice for treatment

a. Staphylococcus aureus - Macrolides
b. Streptococcus canis - Beta-lactams
c. Escherichia coli - Enrofloxacin
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Gentamycin

A

b. Streptococcus canis - Beta-lactams

32
Q

Herpes keratitis present in feline rhinotracheitis CANNOT be treated with

a. Local gancyclovir treatment
b. Systemic acyclovir treatment
c. Systemic famcyclovir treatment
d. Local trifluridine treatment

A

b. Systemic acyclovir treatment

33
Q

Can be used for prevention of bovine respiratory disease

a. Long-acting penicillins
b. Long-acting aminoglycosides
c. Long-acting macroclides
d. Short-acting chloramphenicol

A

c. Long-acting macroclides

34
Q

This substance can be added to the feedstuff of swine to treat atrophic rhinitis caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica

a. Procain penicillin
b. Enalapril
c. Doxycyclin
d. Gentamycin

A

c. Doxycyclin

35
Q

Effective in urinary tract infection of companion animals

a. Neomycin
b. Clindamycin
c. Doxycycline
d. Amoxicillin

A

d. Amoxicillin

36
Q

Which antimicrobial can be used for effective treatment of swine dysentery

a. Tylvalosin
b. Tylosin
c. Enrofloxacin
d. Gentamycin

A

a. Tylvalosin

37
Q

Which antimicrobials have low / limited risk to public health

a. Tetracyclines
b. Aminoglycosides
c. Fluoroquinolones
d. Cephalosporins

A

a. Tetracyclines

38
Q

Not recommended for the local (topical) treatment of canine pyoderma

a. Benzoyl peroxide
b. Chlorhexidine
c. Penicillin
d. Triclosane

A

c. Penicillin

39
Q

The active agent causes the most serious toxic drug-interaction with ionophore antibiotics

a. ???cillin
b. ???floxacin
c. Doxycycline
d. Tiamulin

A

d. Tiamulin

40
Q

Antiarthopodal (insecticidal and acaricidal) drug, it is active against fleas and ticks for 12 weeks

a. Amitraz
b. Milbemicin-oxime
c. Afoxolaner
d. Fluralaner

A

c. Afoxolaner

41
Q

Juvenile-hormone analogue that is combined with fipronil in a spot on preparation

a. Imidacloprid
b. Methoprene
c. Lufenurone
d. Fenoxicarb

A

b. Methoprene

42
Q

What are critically important antimicrobials?

a. Macrolides
b. Fluoroquinolones
c. Tetracyclines
d. Sulphonamides

A

a. Macrolides

43
Q

These agents can cause the prolapse of the penis in stallions

a. Acepromazine / Propionilpromazine
b. Diazepam / Midazolam
c. Detomidine / Romifidine
d. Morphine / Etorphine

A

a. Acepromazine / Propionilpromazine

44
Q

This drug - used PO in dogs - is an appropriate choice for long-term control of idiopathic epilepsy

a. Pentobarbital
b. Phenobarbital
c. Diazepam
d. Midazolam

A

b. Phenobarbital

45
Q

Which antibacterial agent can be used to treat acute prostatitis caused by P. aeruginosa?

a. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
b. Doxycycline
b. Chloramphenicol
d. Ciprofloxacin

A

d. Ciprofloxacin

46
Q

Safe, mild laxative even if applied long-term. Can be used in hepatic encephalopathy

a. Bisacodyl
b. Liquid paraffine
c. Lactulose
d. Magnesium-sulphate

A

c. Lactulose

47
Q

The pH and the volume of urine are major factors of the drug extraction via kidneys. Select the correct sentence in connection with this topic

a. The urine of carnivores had often an alkaline (basic) pH
b. The urine of cats is highly concentrated
c. The pH interval of the urine in horses is typically very narrow
d. The pH of the urine in herbivores is often acidic

A

b. The urine of cats is highly concentrated

48
Q

Narrow spectrum antiemetic, it’s usage is mainly restricted to chemotherapeutic induced vomiting

a. Ondansetron
b. Tiethylperazine
c. Maropitant
d. Metoclopramide

A

a. Ondansetron

49
Q

Which drug can be used for the ORAL treatment of E. coli urinary tract infection?

a. Narrow spectrum penicillin
b. Doxycyclin
c. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
d. Gentamycin

A

c. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

50
Q

This antiprotozoal drug has a very low therapeutic index, its IV administration is forbidden

a. Sodium stibogluconate
b. Sulphonamiddes
c. Imidocarb dipropionate
d. Meglumine antimonate

A

c. Imidocarb dipropionate

51
Q

Most potent combination for the treatment of Rhodococcus equi bronchopneumonia in foals

a. Clarythromycin + rifampicin
b. Erythromycin + gentamicin
c. Ampicillin + tobramycin
d. Amoxicillin + rifampicin

A

a. Clarythromycin + rifampicin

52
Q

This active substance can be used for the treatment of Varroa-mance (varroosis) in honeybees

a. Amitraz
b. Permethrin
c. Ivermectin
d. Imidacloprid

A

a. Amitraz

53
Q

Adsorbent antidiaorrhoeal drug, chemically it is magnesium-aluminium-silicate

a. Montmotillonit
b. Albumen tannicum
c. Activated carbon
d. Diphenoxylate

A

a. Montmotillonit

54
Q

Coating agent, primary choice for the treatment of active ulcers

a. Zinc-oxide
b. Sucralfate
c. Famotidine
d. Magnesium-oxide

A

b. Sucralfate

55
Q

Not recommended for the local (topical) treatment of canine pyoderma

a. Ethyl lactate
b. Chlorhexidine
c. Amoxicillin
d. Triclosane

A

c. Amoxicillin

56
Q

Muscle relaxation cannot be achieved when this anaesthetic is used

a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Thiopental
d. Alfaxalon-Alfadolon

A

a. Ketamine

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