Physio-Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

what is your normal CVP ( right atrial pressure)

A

0 mmhg (0-4mmhg)

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2
Q

controls conduits for blood flow, mainly under sympa NS control

A

Arterioles

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3
Q

Arterioles:
smooth muscle contraction and vaso-constriction
Alpha-1 or Beta-2

A

Alpha-1

Beta-2 = smooth muscle relaxation and Vasodilation

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4
Q

blood flow velocity in the capillaries: _____________

A

slowest and non-pulsatile

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5
Q

capillaries has vaso-constriction and vaso-dilation .. t or f

A

False : none

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6
Q

what is the structure in the veins responsible for venous pump and prevents stasis of blood esp against gravity;
disfuctional in edema leading to varicose veins

A

Vascular Valve (one way)

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7
Q

what happens when systemic arterioles vasoconstrict
TPR/SVR: _________
Blood Flow: _______

A

TPR/SVR: ___increase______

Blood Flow: ____decrease___

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8
Q

what happens to BP when TPR increases?

A

BP : incease

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9
Q

streamlined (straight line ) flow,

velocity highest at the center, lowest at the walls

A

Laminar Flow

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10
Q

disorderly flow
associated with Reynold’s Number
seen in anemia and vessel narrowing

A

Turbulent Flow

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11
Q

Reynold’s number for Laminar Flow

A

<2000

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12
Q

Reynold’s number for turbulent flow

A

> 2000

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13
Q

a strain in the structure of substance produced by pressure, when its layers are literally shifted in relation to each other

A

Shear

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14
Q

Shear : highest in

A

Walls of the blood vessel

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15
Q

Shear : lowest in

A

Center of the blood vessel

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16
Q

compliance of veins (vs arteries)

A

24x Higher Compliance

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17
Q

Compliance : Effects of Aging

A

Decrease compliance

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18
Q

highest Arterial BP

A

Systolic Pressure

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19
Q

Lowest Arterial BP

A

diastolic Pressure

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20
Q

=Systolic pressure-Diastolic pressure

A

Pulse Pressure

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21
Q

=stroke volume/arterial compliance

A

Pulse Pressure

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22
Q

=2/3(diastole)+1/3(systole)

A

MAP

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23
Q

synonym: Right Atrial Pressure

A

CVP normal=0mmhg

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24
Q

estimates Left AtrialPressure

A

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

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25
Q

ECG:

atrial depolarization

A

P wave

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26
Q

ECG:

corresponds to AV node Conduction

A

PR segment

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27
Q

ECG:

correlates with conduction time/velocity through AV node

A

PR Interval

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28
Q

ECG:

ventricular Depolarization

A

QRS complex

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29
Q

ECG:

Ventricular Repolarization

A

T wave

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30
Q

ECG:

period of depolarization + repolarization of ventricles

A

QT Interval

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31
Q

ECG:

correlates with Plateau of ventricular action potential

A

ST Segment

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32
Q

what happens when Sympa NS stimulates AV node
Conduction Velocity: ?
PR Interval: ?

A

Conduction Velocity: increase
PR Interval: decrease

*kabaliktaran lang pag PARA-SYMPA

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33
Q

ECG:

hypokalemia

A

Flat or Inverted T waves

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34
Q

ECG:

hyperkalemia

A

Low P waves , Tall T waves

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35
Q

ECG:

Hypocalcemia

A

Prolonged QT Interval

  hypercal = shortened QT
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36
Q

ECG:

STEMI

A

ST elevation

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37
Q

ECG:

NSTEMI

A

ST depression

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38
Q
Ventricular Action Potential:
   Phase 0 : ?
   Phase 1: ?
   Phase 2: ?
   Phase 3 : ?
   Phase 4 : ?
A
Phase 0 : Na Influx - Depo
   Phase 1:   K efflux  - partial Repo
   Phase 2:   Ca Influx - plateau
   Phase 3 : K efflux  - complete Repo
   Phase 4 : RMP
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39
Q

SA Node Action Potential
Phase 4 : ?
Phase 0 : ?
Phase 3 : ?

A

Phase 4 : slow Na influx towards threshold
Phase 0 : Ca Influx - Depo
Phase 3 : K efflux - Repo

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40
Q

master pacemaker

A

SA Node

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41
Q

Slowest conduction velocity ( Node ?) 0.01-0.05m/sec

A

AV Node

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42
Q

Fastest conduction velocity ( Node ?) 2-4m/sec

A

Bundle of His, Purkinje Fibers

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43
Q

what is the basis for AV Nodal Delay (0.13 secs)

A

less Gap JXNS in ventricles than atria so atrium will contract 1st

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44
Q

which Na Channel accounts for SA node Automaticity

A

If Channels ( slow “funny” Na channels)

small f yun

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45
Q

responsible for setting the heart rate

A

rate of Phase 4 depolarization

46
Q

inhibition of “pacemaker” of latent pacemakers by the SA Node?

A

Overdrive Suppression

47
Q

AV block that causes fainting in patients due to initially suppressed state of Perkinje Fibers

A

Stokes-Adams Syndrome

48
Q

Condition whwn laten pacemaker assume pacemaking activity

A

Ectopic Pacemaker

49
Q

conduction velocity is dependent on which phenomenon?

A
  • size of inward current during upstroke of action potential

- Not dependent on duration of action potential

50
Q

basis of ventricular fibrillation,

occurs in the propagation of AP around the ventricles, the signal never reaches an area with RMP

A

Circus Movements

51
Q

causes of circus movements

A
  • long conduction Pathway
  • decreased conduction velocity
  • short refractory period
52
Q

all Na inactivation gates close,

AP cannot be genearated

A

Absolute refractory Period (ARP)

53
Q

at the end, some Na inactivation channels start to open,

AP cannot be conducted

A

Effective Refractory Period ( ERP)

54
Q

AP can be conducted and generated but higher than normal stimulus is rewquired

A

Relative Refractory Period (RRP)

55
Q

all Na inactivation gates are open and memb.potential is higher than RMP (near to threshold),
cell is more excitable than normal

A

SupraNatural Period (SNP)

56
Q

Flat Line

A

(RIP)…….. hahahaha

57
Q

All About “Pressures”

produces changes in contractility

A

inotropic effect

58
Q

All About “Pressures”

produces changes in Rates of Relaxation

A

Lusitrophic Effect

59
Q

All About “Pressures”

produces changes in the heart rate

A

Chronotropic Effect

60
Q

All About “Pressures”

produces changes in conduction velocity

A

Dromotropic Effect

61
Q

All About “Pressures”

Inotropes affect:

A

Stroke Volume

62
Q

All About “Pressures”

Chronotropes affect

A

SA Node

63
Q

All About “Pressures”

Dromotropes affect

A

AV Node

64
Q

All About “Pressures”

Beta-1 stimulationof the heart would cause

A

Stronger(positive inotrope)’ Contractions
Briefer(hanford este positive lusitrope) Contractions
More Frequent Contractions(positive inotrope)

65
Q

an increase in pre-load will increase stroke volume ( and consequently, cardiac output) w/in certain physiologic limits

A

Frank-Starling Mecha.

66
Q

Frank Starling Mechanism

LV EDV is directly proportional to what?

A

Venous return

R Atrial Pressure

67
Q

Frank Starling Mechanism

what happens when After-load increases?
Stroke Volume and Cardiac Output:_____
Velocity of sarcomere shortening:_______

A

Stroke Volume and Cardiac Output : Decreases

Velocity of sarcomere shortening: Decreases

68
Q

blood ejected by the ventricle per heart beat

N= 70ml

A

Stroke Volume

69
Q

percentage of EDV that is actually ejected by the ventricle

A

Ejection Fraction

70
Q

total blood volume ejected per unit of time

A

Cardiac Output

71
Q

7 phases of the cardiac cycle

A
1. atrial contraction / Systole
2 Isovolumetric contraction
3. Rapid ventricular Ejection
4. Slow/reduced ventricular ejection
5.Isovolumetric relaxation
6. rapid ventricular filling
7. slow/ reduced ventricular filling
72
Q

4th heart sound is heard during?

A

Atrial Contraction against stiff ventricles eg.LV hypertrophy

73
Q

occurs during the distal third of diastole and preceded by p-wave on ecg

A

Atrial Contraction

74
Q

preceded by QRS complex in ecg
c wave of atrial pressure is seen
1st heart sound is heard

A

Isovolumetric Contraction

75
Q

dichrotic notch

A

Insicura

76
Q
  • insicura of aortic pressure is seen
  • v wave of atrial pressure is seen
  • 2nd heart sound is heard
A

Isovolumetric Relaxation

77
Q

when do u hear the 3rd heart sound

A

Rapid ventricular filling

78
Q

longest phase of the cardiac cycle

A

Diastasis ( reduced ventricular filling )

79
Q

a wave is?

A

atrial contraction(distal 3rd of diastole)

80
Q

c wave is

A

contraction of ventricles (IC)

81
Q

v wave is?

A

venous blood going to RA (IR)

82
Q

aortic murmur beast heard at

A

2nd ICS R parasternal border

83
Q

Pulmonic murmur best heard at

A

2nd ICS L parasternal border

84
Q

Tricuspid murmur best heard at

A

4th ICS L parasternal border

85
Q

Mitral murmur best heard at

A

5th ICS L MidClavicular Line

86
Q

physiologic murmurs are heard only during systole or diastole?

A

Systole

87
Q

center responsible for regulation of HR and BP

A

Vasomotor Area of the Medulla

88
Q

2 baroreceptors

A
  1. Aortic Arch - responds only to high BP

2. Carotid Sinus - responds to both high and low BP

89
Q

increased Venous Return - Inc. Heart rate - Inc C.O. is what reflaex

A

Bainbridge Reflex

90
Q

the “LAST DITCH” stand means

A

all systemic arterioles vasoconstrict severely Except for Coronary Vessels, Cerebral Vessels

91
Q

this reflex occurs in responce to increased Intracaranial Pressure (eg. following head trauma)

A

Cushing Reflex/Reaction

92
Q

Triad of Cushing Reflex

A

HPN,
Bradycardia,
Irregular Respirations

93
Q

Lipid Soluble substances like O2 and CO2 uses ________ across capillary endothelial cells

A

Simple diffusion

94
Q

Small Water-Soluble Substances like H2O, Glucose and amino acids uses __________ between endothelial cells

A

Clefts

Tight Clefts:BBB
Wide Clefts : Liver Sinusoids

95
Q

Large Water-Soluble Substances like Proteins uses ______?

A

Pinocytosis

96
Q

describes fluid movement into(absorption) or out of (Filtration) the capillary

A

Starling Forces

97
Q

Starling Forces:

Favors filtration,
determeined by pressure and resistance in arteries and veins

A

Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure

98
Q

Starling Forces:

opposes filtration(favors absorption); 
increased by increases in plasma protein conc.
A

Capillary Oncotic Pressure

99
Q

Starling Forces:

Opposes filtration (favors absorption);
slightly negative due to lymphatic pump
A

Interstitial Hydrostatic Pressure

100
Q

Starling Forces:

favors filtration;
determined by interstitial protein concentration

A

Interstitial Oncotic Pressure

101
Q

Starling Forces:

Hydraulic conductance of capillary wall

A

Filtration Coefficient

102
Q

Lymphatic system uses this specialized lymph vessels in absorbing fat, chylomicron transport

A

Lacteals

103
Q

when vascular smooth muscle are stretched, there’s a reflex contraction and vise versa

May explain autoregulation, but not active or reactive hyperemia

A

Myogenic Theory

104
Q

vasodilator metabolites are produced as a result of metabolic activity;
more accepted

A

Metabolic Theory

105
Q

blood flow increases to meet increased metabolic demand

A

Active Hyperemia

106
Q

Acute Control: Autoregulation of blood flow for
kidneys
brain
Heart

A

Kidneys: Tubuloglomerular Feedback

Brain : CO2 and H

Heart : Perfussion Pressure

107
Q

Humoral Mechanism for Blood Flow Control:

most potent vasoconstrictor?

A

vasopressin

108
Q

Humoral Mechanism for Blood Flow Control:

vasoconstrictor released as a result of blood vessel damage;
causes arteriolar vasoconstriction;
implicated in migraine

A

Serotonin

109
Q

Humoral Mechanism for Blood Flow Control:

vasoconstrictor released by damaged endothelium

A

Endothelin -patawa

110
Q

Humoral Mechanism for Blood Flow Control:

vasodilator that counteracts TXA2

A

PGI2

111
Q

Humoral Mechanism for Blood Flow Control:

causes arteriolar dilation and venous constriction leading to increased filtration(local edema)

A

Bradykinin and Histamine

112
Q

decreased afterload will affect Frank-Starling

t or f

A

false

no effect