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PT 101 > Power Point Slides > Flashcards

Power Point Slides Flashcards

Using the PowerPoint Slides to re-enforce concepts highlighted in the study guide

1
Q

What is the purpose of a PT?

A

Promote independent mobility (ADLs), address/treat musculoskeletal impairments, enhance physical health

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2
Q

What is the purpose of a PTA

A

Same as PT(-no eval, POC, D/C pt) but provide physical therapy services under the direction & supervison of a PT

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3
Q

Who started the PT profession?

A

Mary McMillian

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4
Q

Name 3-5 contributions that Mary McMillian gave to the PT field.

A

1) 1st president & founder of the AWPTA 2) Wrote physiotherapist txtbook massage & therapeutic exss 3)est. 1st PT school curriculum, which became the gold standard 4)Utilized treatment techniques on children with scoliosis, congenital hip dislocations, etc. 5) Chief reconstruction aide in the dpt of physiotheraphy @ WR GH

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5
Q

Where did the concept of having a PTA start in the PT profession

A

1967 Medicare & Medicaid created demand for more therapists

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6
Q

Describe the change in the role of physical therapy from it’s beginning to its goal for 2020?

A

formative years, development years, fundamental accomplishment years, adaptation and vision years (pretty much came from nothing now we here)

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7
Q

Who’s considered the father of medicine?

A

Hippocrates

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8
Q

What are the contributions Hippocrates gave to PT?

A

1) explained the concept of atrophy on bones, ligaments, muscles & how this causes impairments to the bodys structures 2ndary 2 inactivity 2) recommended therapeutic exss to strengthen muscles, ligaments & bones 3)utilized abdominal kneading massage to improve digestion, chest clapping to relieve colds 4) applied e-stim via torpo fish charges to relieve headaches

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9
Q

Swedish Physician Zander invented these, that helped provide resistance or assitance as part of rehab?

A

Exercise machines, 71 different types of apparatus for active, assistive, and resisted exss

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10
Q

Who introduced the manual muscle techniques in the 1920s?

A

Wright, he introduced the Manual Muscle Testing Techniques book; palpation, gravity, external manual resistance

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11
Q

During the 1950s in England, Neurophysiologist Herman Kabat introduced what exercises that are used for patients diagnosed with cerebral palsy, stoke & other neurological dysfunction?

A

Proprioceptive Facilitation exercises; PNF

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12
Q

What fostered the development of PT despite the great depression?

A

growing population with polio & infantile paralysis ( # of soldiers from WWI after the war)

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13
Q

What affect did Medicare & Medicaid have on the PT profession?

A

As these programs grew & $ covered more of the population, the PT profession was able to rehab more, expand jobs & get paid more.

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14
Q

By 2020, what does the PT profession aim to be?

A

direct access, DPTs

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15
Q

Name a variety of learning resources PT professionals can use for effective communication

A

discussions, lectures, demonstratives/dvd/videotapes, documentation, perform designated exss for the home program/ POC, illustrations

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16
Q

What does teaching mean?

A

to explain, instruct & interact w/ the learner in order to provide building blocks that are conductive to learning

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17
Q

What are the styles of learning used for?

A

to acquire, gain, process & remember the info

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18
Q

Generate 5 characteristics of quality istructions.

A

keep the learner’s attention, demonstrate procedures, organize the info in a sequence & provide steps, recall prior learned experiences, generate interactive experiences, provide opportunities 4 learning (feedback), practice & recalling the info, intro info @ varied pace

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19
Q

Name the 3 Rs of learning

A

Read, Review, Recall

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20
Q

Name the 5 styles of learning

A

visual, auditory, kinesthetic, analytic (linear), spacial

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21
Q

How does the visual learner LEARN?

A

seeing, reading the info, uses charts, diagrams, pictures & images

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22
Q

How does the Auditory learner LEARN?

A

hear the lecture, listen

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23
Q

How does the Kinesthetic learner LEARN?

A

performs tasks by trial & error & manipulating objects

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24
Q

How does the Analytical learner LEARN?

A

read, re-read, organize thoughts, separates info into charts, goals, lists & study guides

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25
Q

Name what the right hemisphere of your brain controls?

A

holistic thinking; emotion expression, spacial awareness, creativity, dimension, art & music (controls the left hand)

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26
Q

Name what the left hemisphere of your brain controls?

A

writing, language, scientific skills, logic, math & science (controls the right hand)

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27
Q

Name the 4 test taking skills

A

time management, read the test ?s, review & examine & eliminate incorrect answers, don’t change your answers

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28
Q

Name clinical interaction modes for pts/ clients

A

discussions, demonstrations, presentations, lectures, videotapes/dvds, return demonstrations, illustrations

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29
Q

Name the 3 phases of test taking strategies for PTA students

A

1st go through the test & answer only the ?s you are confident abt, 2nd go through the test & answer the ?s you skipped , 3rd think critically, look for tricky words

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30
Q

An educated individual who works under the direction & supervision of a PT is called a ?

A

Physical Therapist Assistant PTA!

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31
Q

What are the requirements to become a PTA?

A

AA a created by CAPTE, passed NPTE

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32
Q

Name 4 roles of the PTA

A

therapeutic exxs, therapeutic massage, therapeutic modalities,pt/family/caregiver education, collaborative communication w/ PT

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33
Q

Who is a skilled health care professional w/ a min of a BA degree by a CAPTE accredited program, masters or Dr. & passed NPTE test.

A

Physical Therapist

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34
Q

Name the PT respsonsibilties

A

screening, eval, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention, coordination of care, education, prevention & referral to other health care providers

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35
Q

What is the purpose of establishing a professional & collaborative communication relationship btw PT & PTA?

A

develop an open relationship based on trust, mutual respect, honesty, professionalism, feedback, freely express concerns and most of ensure pt care in all settings

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36
Q

Name the 3 levels of supervision

A

direct, continuous, periodic onsite

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37
Q

What does general supervision mean?

A

PT does not have to be onsite but must be available telecommunication by phone

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38
Q

What does direct supervision mean?

A

PT must be physically onsite at all times while PTA is treating pts.

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39
Q

What is the ratio for PT:PTA in MD?

A

3:1 (Disputed - current data shows no ratio

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40
Q

What is the ratio for PT:PTA in DC?

A

1:1

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41
Q

What is the ratio for PT:PTA in VA?

A

notes say 1:3 Ha Ha, trick question - No Ratio

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42
Q

Name the four models of Health Care Team

A

Intradisciplinary, Interdisciplinary, Multidisciplinary, and Rehabilitation Team

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43
Q

Team members are within the same discipline

A

Intradisciplinary

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44
Q

Team members belong to different health care professions

A

Interdisciplinary

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45
Q

Team members do not work as a team but separately and isolated from one another

A

Multidisciplinary

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46
Q

Includes several health care professionals such as OT, COTA, PT, PTA, Audiologist, etc.

A

Rehabilitation Team

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47
Q

Name the various employment settings

A

Acute Care, Primary Care, Subacute Care, Outpatient, Rehab Hospitals, Chronic Care, School System, Home Health Care, Hospice Care, and Private Practice

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48
Q

Name five professionals in the rehab team

A

Nurse, MD, PA, Athletic Trainer, and Social Worker

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49
Q

Type of employment setting that is usually PT owned

A

Private Practice

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50
Q

Type of ambulatory care center who treats former inpatients or the general public with musculoskeletal impairments

A

Outpatient Care Facility

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51
Q

Nursing homes & rehab centers who provide the highest level of care are also known as?

A

Acute Care Facility

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52
Q

What is the purpose of the guide?

A

describes generalized accepted scope of practice as a reference for clinical decision making & guidance on treatment strageies

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53
Q

The guide helps reduce variation in?

A

service provisions

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54
Q

The guide presents written info regarding the interpretation of ______, ________ and clinical findings

A

evaluation, examination

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55
Q

What section in the guide explains & justifies a designed POC & treatment section?

A

part 1 of the guide (? not sure if that correct)

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56
Q

What are the 5 elements of pt/client management?

A

examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention

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57
Q

The guide addresses which 4 systems of the body?

A

cardiovascular/pulmonary, integumentary, muscular skeletal, neuromuscular

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58
Q

What is a pathology?

A

illness or injury to organ & system level of organism

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59
Q

How does an impairment relate to a pathology?

A

The pathology changes the body’s functions & structure (can impair them)

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60
Q

What are some functional limitaitons a pathology can affect a pt?

A

ADLs, mobility, cognitive skills

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61
Q

What is the guide’s definition of a PTs scope of practice?

A

devoted to promoting independent mobility & function in patients/clients who have sustained any impairments within the cardio/pulmonary system, integumentary system, musculoskeletal, neuromuscular systems

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62
Q

What does part 2 of the guide define?

A

Defines the preferred practice patterns for pt/client diagnostic groups

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63
Q

What does part 1 of the guide define?

A

describes elements of pt/client management

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64
Q

What are the 5 elements of pt/client management?

A

examination, evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, intervention, outcome

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65
Q

What is the difference btw medical diagnosis & PT diagnosis

A

Medical identifies the pathology or cause of the illness (by a Dr.) . PT is related to functional limitations & impairements (ADLs)

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66
Q

Why is the episode of care important?

A

maintenance , prevention; (depends on pathology), ensure optimal function

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67
Q

What lobe in the brain controls personality, emotions, thought processes?

A

Frontal Lobe

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68
Q

What lobe in the brain controls body sensations, body awareness, visual & spatial perception?

A

Parietal Lobe

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69
Q

What lope in the brain controls active, voluntary coordinated movements & the quality of the movement? hint balance

A

Cerebellum

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70
Q

This lobe in the brain controls language comprehension, speech and listening

A

Temporal Lobe

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71
Q

The pons serve as which relay system for which body parts?

A

eyes & face

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72
Q

This portion of the brain controls HR, BP, RR

A

Medulla Oblongata

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73
Q

Wernicke’s area is in charge of what kind of comprehension?

A

Language

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74
Q

Cranial nerve #1 is called?

A

olfactory

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75
Q

The olfactory nerve is in charge of what function?

A

sense of smell ( sensory to the olfactory bulbs)

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76
Q

What two nerves aren’t true cranial nerves?

A

optic II & acessory XI

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77
Q

Patients with musculoskeletal impairments usually have what kind of injuries?

A

Orthopedic Injuries

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78
Q

What are some causes of musculoskeletal impairments?

A

Faulty biomechanics, altered movement patterns, reduced muscle strength, and ligament tears or tendon ruptures.

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79
Q

Name four etiologies of musculoskeletal impairments

A

Sports, Recreation Activities, Faulty Postures, and Overuse Injuries

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80
Q

Identify (3) Treatment Goals for Musculoskeletal Impairments

A

1) Promote / max. the pt’s independent mobility & locomotion skills; 2) Dec. pain, teach proper positioning / bio. mech. Alignment; 3) Promote tissue healing / flex.

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81
Q

Process of obtaining medical history, relevant med. Info., perform a systems approach review, select & administer specific tests / measures, data gathering process

A

Examination

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82
Q

Process by which the PT makes clinical decision making & clinical judgment based on data from examination

A

Evaluation

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83
Q

Process by which data is gathered and clinical hypothesis is formulated; PTA can gather data such as vital signs & wt. bearing status

A

Assessment

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84
Q

The process of determining a PT dx during the examination phase, and from data collected

A

Differential Diagnosis

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85
Q

Name a common Test & Measure for Musculoskeletal examination

A

MMT - Manual Muscle Testing

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86
Q

Name (3) types of movement analysis techniques for Musculoskeletal Examination to determine the PT’s skill

A

1) Movement pattern sequencing; 2) Functional skill execution and completion; 3) End-range, capsular pattern, and muscle strength of all joints specified

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87
Q

pt history includes?

A

Where, when, how, past medical & medications, precautions & contraindications, prior treatments.

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88
Q

5 Cardinal signs of inflammation are?!!?!!?!

A

heat, redness, swelling, pain, & LOSS OF FUNCTION

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89
Q

Name the 3 pain assessment scales

A

Wong-baker, visual analog, numerical rating system

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90
Q

________ __________ should be taken pre & post treatment sessions in order to monitor pt’s responses during & after treatments

A

Pain assessment

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91
Q

What scale uses 10cm, vertical or horizontal lines or pictorial that represents pain progression (10cm=severe pain)

A

Visual analog scale

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92
Q

Numerical progression of pain using # values 0-10, 0= no pain 10=severe pain

A

Numerical rating system (NRS)

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93
Q

Pictorial presentation of pain feelings, mostly used for children because they can relate to the faces

A

Wong-Baker

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94
Q

What assessment looks at body alignment in standing, sitting, and gait?

A

Postural assessment

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95
Q

What assessment looks at passive & active movements?

A

ROM range of motion - w/out muscle contraction (normal range? Guarded? )

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96
Q

What assessment looks at muscular strength?

A

MMT, manual muscle test (looks at patterns of weakness)

97
Q

Name the 5 categories of muscle weakness & their corresponding #

A

Absent 0, trace 1, poor 2, fair 3, good 4, normal 5

98
Q

Place reflex hammer on the bicep brachilais (@ anterior elbow), you are testing which tendon reflex?

A

Cervical 5

99
Q

Place reflex hammer on the triceps (@posterior elbow), you are testing which tendon reflex?

A

Cervical 7

100
Q

Place reflex hammer on the bicep Quadriceps (anterior knee), you are testing which tendon reflex?

A

Lumbar 3

101
Q

When comparing gait patterns you need to look at which planes of motion?

A

Frontal, sagittal, posterior, transverse rotation

102
Q

The analysis of walking is called?

A

gait

103
Q

Active abilities describe what activities of daily life?

A

Activities of daily living ADLs

104
Q

Name some ADLs

A

Dressing, bathing, bed mobility, transfers

105
Q

What are the two gait phases of the gait cycle?

A

Stance phase (60%). Swing (40%)

106
Q

Who revised the terminology used for gait assessment?

A

Ranch los amigos

107
Q

Ice massage, hot packs (HP), and ultrasound are types of __________.

A

Modalities

108
Q

Name the types of ROM Exercise and explain each one

A

PROM; AAROM; AROM

109
Q

Guiding the patient to perform smooth motions, monitoring the pt in case they exhibit weakness or difficulty performing exercises against gravity is the definition of?

A

Stand-by Assistance (SBA)

110
Q

Tension is generated in the muscle but visible joint motion or changes in muscle length are not observed; Stabilization techniques to develop strength & stability of the muscles.

A

Isometric Exercises

111
Q

Tension develops within the muscle through dynamic concentric or eccentric muscular contractions; Motion occurs with a constant load.

A

Isotonic Exercises

112
Q

Predetermined velocity of muscle shortening or lengthening / force maximal through the full range; motion occurs at a constant speed; Requires Cybex, Mincom, or Biodex machines

A

Isokinetic Exercises

113
Q

The pt is not in a weight-bearing position; the joint is free to move in space / distal end of the extremity is free to move

A

Open Chain

114
Q

The pt is in the weight-bearing position; the distal joint is fixed, such as foot placed on petal; plush-ups

A

Closed Chain

115
Q

Modalities, Therapeutic Exercise, pt education (HEP), and gait training are examples of ___________

A

Musculoskeletal Interventions

116
Q

What are the contraindications for modalities and physical agents?

A

??????

117
Q

Performed to increase soft tissue flexibility; Improves joint ROM; Enhances functional skill execution with a new range of mobility

A

Stretching Exercises

118
Q

Surrounds, encases, and protects the articular surfaces of the joint

A

Capsule

119
Q

Dense, fibrous connective tissue that can sustain enormous amounts of tension and pressure; Covers the ends of joint surfaces by providing a smooth surface

A

Articular Cartilage

120
Q

Three types of cartilage

A

Hyaline, Fibrocartilage (Labrum / Menisci), and Elastic (Ear)

121
Q

Band of fibrous connective tissue; Connects Bone to Bone; Provides attachment for cartilage, fascia, and muscles

A

Ligament

122
Q

Inner layer of the capsule; Thick vascular connective tissue that secretes synovial fluid

A

Synovial Membrane

123
Q

Location of the thick, clear synovial fluid that lubricates articular / joint surfaces

A

Synovial (joint) Cavity

124
Q

Purpose of Synovial Fluid

A

Reduces friction and provides shock absorption; Assist with joint movement; Supplies nutrition for articular cartilage

125
Q

What is the name of the condition that causes articular cartilage degeneration and hypertrophy of subchondrial bone / joint capsule of the weight bearing joints?

A

Degenerative Joint Disease

126
Q

What modalities are used to treat degenerative joint diseases?

A

Ultrasound (US), paraffin, and hot packs (HP)

127
Q

According to the Guide to PT Medicine, RA is considered what type of disorder? Cardiopulmonary Disorder, Musculoskeletal Disorder, Integumentary Disorder, or Neuromuscular Disorder?

A

Musculoskeletal

128
Q

This pathology is autoimmune, multi-system, inflammatory, and causes chronic inflammation of synovial joints and articular cartilage of hands, feet, ankles, wrists, elbows, and shoulders.

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

129
Q

Systemic disease that causes musculoskeletal disorders in the bones and soft tissues, reduction of bone mass and density.

A

Osteoporosis

130
Q

What sports should be avoided by patients with osteoporosis?

A

Tennis, Golf, and Bowling (rotation motions can cause vertebral fractures)

131
Q

What exercises shout the PT / PTA avoid for pt’s with osteoporosis?

A

Flexion exercises (i.e. curl-ups / sit-ups), rowing machines, stationary bicycles, and bicep-curls

132
Q

What is a fluid filled sac that decreases friction under tendons and over bony prominence?

A

Bursa

133
Q

What is the condition that results from pain along the joint line caused by overuse syndrome, improper activity / alignment, and excessive tensile forces to the tendon?

A

Tendonitis

134
Q

What is the intervention for Tendonitis?

A

R.I (used during the inflammation phase).C.E.

135
Q

What is inflammation of the fluid filled sac that becomes tender and painful?

A

Bursitis

136
Q

What is the clinical hallmark for Bursitis?

A

PAIN AT REST (limited PROM and AROM, and Inflammation)

137
Q

Tear in a ligament is called?

A

Sprain

138
Q

Tear in a muscle is called?

A

Strain

139
Q

Running related sports such as running, football, soccer, and basketball causes which type of Bursitis?

A

Hip Bursitis

140
Q

Which type of Bursitis is caused by trauma, direct-blow, or gait abnormalities (RA)?

A

Trochanteric Bursitis

141
Q

Medial Epicondylitis is aka _____ _____ and Lateral Epicondylitis is aka _______ ______.

A

Golfer’s Elbow; Tennis Elbow

142
Q

Tenderness to palpation , swelling, damaged ligament, and partial tearing characterizes which grade of ligament sprain?

A

Grade I

143
Q

Ligament tearing, some joint instability and a full tear characterizes which type of ligament sprain?

A

Grade II

144
Q

Severe ligamentous injury with multiple tears present and possible bone avulsion (needs surgery to restore stability) characterizes which type of ligament sprain?

A

Grade III

145
Q

Name 3 stages of inflammation

A

Acute, Subacute, chronic

146
Q

Which type of inflammation requires RICE as an intervention?

A

Acute

147
Q

Stage of inflammation where modalities & AROM movements can be started? (However, redness may still be present)

A

Subacute

148
Q

What stage of inflammation that lasts weeks, requires transverse friction massage and breakdown of scar tissue

A

Chronic

149
Q

Why do fractures in children require special attention?

A

b/c they are still developing & growing (growth plate injuries= bad)

150
Q

In adults, falls are secondary to what kind of problems?

A

Balance problems (especially in the geriatric population-HIP FRACTURE)

151
Q

Why is the healing time slower for adults with bone fractures?

A

periosteum is thinner, low bone density & mass

152
Q

What characteristics help kids heal faster when they have broken a bone?

A

periosteum is thicker, bone bends more than adult bone

153
Q

What are the restrictions for a post THR/THA surgery?

A

no hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, no hip adduction past midline, maintain a neutral rotation

154
Q

What surgery utilizes a synthetic component in order to repair extensive deteriotation of a knee joint due to severe/ disability OA & RA

A

Total Knee Replacement

155
Q

What is the purpose of ACL surgery?

A

Repair a severe ligament tear in the ACL ligament

156
Q

Why do people opt to have ACL surgery, if you can walk with your ACL being torn?

A

W/out the ACL, the tibia slides forward causing joint instability, in order to play sports you need to have the repair done

157
Q

Surgical removal of heisted intervetrbal disc/ruptured nucleus proposes causing pain & impingement of spinal nerves is called?

A

Spinal Disectome

158
Q

What is the precaution for a spinal disectome?

A

No twisting/ rotation of the spine, repetitive bending

159
Q

Why is a home exercise program is essential ?

A

It is a continuation of exercises & stretches that focus on improvement of ADLs

160
Q

What is orthostatic hypotension?

A

Change in body position that causes sudden drop of BP (dizziness, loss of balance/consciousness)

161
Q

What occurs when a pt hold their breath while preforming a functional activity (using the bathroom or an isometric exercise) which causes intra-abominal pressure to increase

A

Valsalva Maneuver (pt can pass out)

162
Q

What physiological changes occur during the valsalava maneuver?

A

intra-abdominal pressure increase, pulse becomes slow/decrease, blood flow returning to the heart deceases, venous bp increases

163
Q

Pain, impaired balance & coordination postural instability & ineffective functional movements are characteristics of?

A

Impairments

164
Q

Caused by impairments which negatively effect the pts life; reduces quality of life, gait deviations, problems with ADLs & limitations in participation of activities

A

Functional limitation

165
Q

Social intergration problems/ reduced employment: negotiation of inaccessible architectural barriers secondary to wheelchair usage or other assistive devices.

A

Disability (think architectural barriers like wheelchair ramp, railings in the bathroom= ADA compliance)

166
Q

Name the 5 stages of death & dying

A

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

167
Q

Name the components of neurological evaluation (4)

A

visual/hearing impairments, cranial nerve integrity, postural control/balance/coordination, tonal abnormalities

168
Q

Which cranial nerve is located in the abdomen & thorax region?

A

Vagus Nerve

169
Q

Name the three characteristics of abnormal tone?

A

Hypertonicity (spasticity), dystonia (dyskinesia), hypotonia (flaccid)

170
Q

Abnormal increase in muscle tone (spasticity) is called?

A

Hypertonia

171
Q

Reduced muscle tone below normal resting levels/weakness (paresis); flaccidity; paralysis (plegia)

A

Hypotonia

172
Q

Impaired or disordered tonicity: tone flucturates from low to high in an unpredictable pattern

A

Dystonia

173
Q

Ability of the pt to perceive joint position at rest & in space joint movement is called?

A

Proprioception

174
Q

Kinesthesia is the pts ability to sense what about their body?

A

Joint movement or performing a motion

175
Q

Neurologic impairments can be enhanced by what other body system?

A

cardiopulmonary (vital signs ex: BP, HR, RR can assess body system integrity)

176
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system composed of?

A

Parasympathetic & sympathetic

177
Q

Nerves that carry impulses from the brain to other body systems are called?

A

Efferent

178
Q

Afferent nerves are considered sensory or motor?

A

Sensory

179
Q

Nerves that carry impulses from body systems to the brain are called?

A

Afferent

180
Q

What are the components of the CNS?

A

Brain & Spinal Cord

181
Q

Efferent nerves are considered sensory or motor?

A

Motor

182
Q

What are Brunnstrom stages of recovery?

A

flaccid, spasticity, voluntary, voluntary & control & decline of spasiticity

183
Q

According to Brunnstrom, what is contracture or movement characterized by?

A

contracture development, emergency of voluntary control/decline of spasticity, increase voluntary control, normal control/coordination

184
Q

Name the 5 common cardiopulmonary diagnosis encountered by the pt/pta

A

congestive heart failure (CHF), coronary artery disease (CAD), chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases (COPD, asthma, chronic lung diesase-pediatrics), pneumonia

185
Q

A cardiopulmonary eval consists of? (7)

A

medical diagnostic test, pain assessment, breathing patterns (RR), skin/nail bed color, vitals sounds, Pulse, pt feeling (general weakness, dizziness, edema)

186
Q

Signs & Symptoms of a neurologic & cardiopulmonary disorder?

A

decreased, absent pulses (PVD), bilateral edema (heart problems), unilateral peripheral edema (thrombophelebitis or peripheral vascular disease), skin changes or temp changes.

187
Q

Chronic lung disease caused by increased constriction of the tracheobronchial trees (inflammation), production of mucus and increased breathing

A

Ashtma

188
Q

Asthma can be caused by what irritants?

A

inhalants, mold spores, dust, tobacco smoke , (genetics)

189
Q

Secretion removal techniques for pulmonary dysfunctions include?

A

postural drainage, percussion/vibration massage

190
Q

Absence of emotional expression. Lack of interest or emotional involvement

A

Apathy

191
Q

Mild to severe cognitive impairments secondary to impaired language skills, difficulties in nonverbal and verbal communication and in social and play interactions.

A

Autism

192
Q

Degrees of uneasiness, apprehension or feelings of doom/dread; accompanied by palpations, stiffness/tightness in the chest which can result in difficulty in breathing/breathlessness, and choking sensations

A

Anxiety

193
Q

Less severe type of autism; normal language skills higher intelligence; interact with individuals but do not know how to exhibit social interactive behaviors.

A

Asperger Syndrome

194
Q

Eating disorder with excessive dieting and refusal to maintain a normal body weight.

A

Anorexia Nervosa

195
Q

Eating disorder with binge eating followed by vomiting, purging, and depression.

A

Bulimia Nervosa

196
Q

Anxiety related symptoms appear after personal experience of a traumatic event.

A

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

197
Q

Major mood disorder with chronic sadness, loss of energy, hopelessness, worry, and discouragement, and commonly, suicidal impulses and thoughts.

A

Depression

198
Q

Mood disorder with alternating periods of mania and depression.

A

Bipolar

199
Q

Confusion in thinking; faulty perceptions and irrational behavior; Associated with alcohol withdrawal.

A

Delirium

200
Q

Associated with depression, occurs based upon the season of the year usually beginning in October through November; Mania feelings usually occur between mid-February to April.

A

Seasonal Affective Disorder (SAD)

201
Q

Fixed, false belief that cannot be changed by logical reasoning or evidence.

A

Delusion

202
Q

Loss of intellectual abilities with impairment of memory, judgment, and reasoning as well as changes in personality.

A

Dementia

203
Q

Extreme excitement, hyperactive elation, and agitation.

A

Mania

204
Q

Name some contraindicated activities for Down’s Syndrome Patients.

A

Diving, tumbling, tackle football, and headstands

205
Q

-Sphenia

A

Suffix, means muscle strength

206
Q

Loss or impairment of the ability to move parts of the body (most likely LE)

A

Hemiplegia

207
Q

Coordination and balance impairments caused by a disorder in the cerebellum

A

Ataxia

208
Q

Athetosis

A

Fluctuating

209
Q

Hemiparesis

A

Weakness

210
Q

Types of Cerebral Palsy

A

Spastic; Athetoid; Rigidity; Tremor; Ataxic

211
Q

Flexibility & muscle elongation for spastic muscles; adaptive equipment & assistive technology; increase coordination & balance to promote head & trunk control for upright sitting; and functional skills such as rolling, sitting to standing, transfers, crawling, pulling to standing are treatments for what condition?

A

Cerebral Palsy

212
Q

A non-progressive injury that can occur during early infancy, early childhood-Acquired injury, or during adolescence. The condition results in a group of motor impairment disorders.

A

Cerebral Palsy

213
Q

Condition caused by a congenital defect in the spine

A

Spinal Bifida

214
Q

Spinal deformity where the neural groove folds do not close over the spinal cord. There is herniated cord tissue.

A

Meningomyelocele

215
Q

Spinal cord is intact but the membrane sac covers the spinal cord. This is a cyst that includes cerebrospinal fluid but the spinal cord is intact.

A

Meningocele

216
Q

The medical goal when treating Meningomyelocele is:

A

1) Prevent infection and protect the spinal nerves, and 2) diffuse changes in the brain, hydrocephalus, paralysis, and sensation impairments.

217
Q

Involves superficial cutaneous stimulation using stroking, brushing, icing, or muscle stimulation with vibration, to evoke voluntary activation

A

Rood’s Sensorimotor Approach

218
Q

Aims to inhibit spasticity and synergies, using inhibitory postures and movements, and to facilitate normal autonomic responses that are involved in voluntary movement.

A

Bobath’s Neurodevelopmental Technique Approach

219
Q

Relies on quick stretching and manual resistance of muscles activation of the limbs in functional directions, which often are spiral and diagonal in direction.

A

Knott and Voss’ PNF Approach

220
Q

Incorporates functional training for key motor tasks such as sitting, standing, standing up, or walking. The therapist analyses each task, determines which component of the task cannot be performed, trains the patient in those components of the task, and ensures carryover of this training during daily activities.

A

Motor Re-learning Program for Stroke

221
Q

Stroke treatment approach is based on systems model of motor control and contemporary motor learning theories. Emphasizes that effective therapeutic intervention depends on identification of the system that is critical to controlling the occupational performance at a specific time.

A

Contemporary Task-Oriented Approach

222
Q

Stroke treatment approach forcing patients to use the weak limb by repeated encouragement or even restraint of unaffected hand when performing ADL in the home situation.

A

Forced Use Approach

223
Q

This stroke treatment approach is the development of coordinated movement patterns, training begins with learning the control of individual muscles on a cognitive level.

A

Muscle Re-education Approach

224
Q

Motor Control & Motor Learning Treatment that improves postural control, movement, and functional skills; Inhibits abnormal postures and facilitates righting and equilibrium responses.

A

Neurodevelopmental Treatment (NDT)

225
Q

Motor Control & Motor Learning Treatment that restores joint and extremity function by using specific sensory stimulation techniques of joint position through specific ROM; Requires auditory and verbal cueing.

A

Proprioceptive Neurofacilitation (PNF)

226
Q

Motor Control & Motor Learning Treatment that fosters functional skills through the use of specific positioning techniques; Mobility, stability, control mobility, and functional skill or task-tapping, vibration, shaking, or joint approximation.

A

Sensory Stimulation

227
Q

Body’s outermost covering secreting fluids; preventing fluid, heat, and electrolyte (salt) loss; reduced pathogen exposure.

A

Skin

228
Q

Receptors for pain, pressure, and touch are located with nerve endings in this layer of the skin (middle layer)

A

Dermis

229
Q

Nerve fibers sending impulses to the skin from the heat centers in the brain altering the skin cells when the body is hot/over heating or cold/freezing is called

A

Thermoregulation

230
Q

Name the two glands located in the skin that secrete an oily substance and a sweat/watery substance in order to cool the body

A

Sebaceous Glands (oily substance) and Sweat Glands (sweat/watery substances)

231
Q

Major skin pigment and formed by melanocytes in the epidermis

A

Melanin

232
Q

Outermost layer of the skin, subcutaneous layer of the skin; lacks blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and connective tissue thus depends on the deeper layer of skin with the rich capillary system.

A

Epidermis

233
Q

Layer of skin containing melanocytes where growing / multiplying layer of cells occurs

A

Basal Layer

234
Q

Layer of skin containing Keratin or keratinocyte

A

Stratum corneum

235
Q

Cells making up the outermost layer of skin

A

Squamous cells

236
Q

Name the conditions that cause open wounds

A

Cellulitis, Diabetes, Systemic lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

237
Q

Superficial layer of the skin, no blisters, epidermal layer describes this type of burn?

A

First Degree

238
Q

Epidermal and dermal lesions with redness, blisters, hypersensitivity; painful (nerve-ending damage) describes this type of burn?

A

Second Degree (partial thickness)

239
Q

Necrosis of the epidermal and dermal layers (necrosis of the skin); subcutaneous layer is damaged thus leaving white, charred skin describes this type of burn?

A

Third Degree (full thickness)

PT 101 (2 decks)

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