Prededicated Flashcards

1
Q
83 yo man confused, hx of DM, gluc at 50 because accidentally took insulin twice. Duaghter says inc forgetfulness with bills and groceries, MRI of brain shows no issues. What is cx of cognitive sxs?
A. Alz Dx
B. Benzos use
C. Normal Aging
D. Parkinsons
E. Vasc Dementia
A

A. Alz Dz

  • slow progessing trouble with ADLs and MRIs normal during early stage. Late stage = temporoparietal atrophy esp in hippocampus region
  • B. benzos = delirium in elderly, wax/wane of consciousness. contra in old ppl
  • C. norm aging = no issue woth ADLs
  • D. Parkinsons = bradykinesia, shuffling gait. loss of Dopa in substantia nigra. lewy bodies present
  • E. Vasc Dementia = decline via discrete CVA events. MRI shows mini infarcts. common in DM, HTN, smoking. often moody
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2
Q
28 yo female with hx of asthma thats worsening. takes albuterol but doesnt want corticosteroid. Dr gives step up tx directly interacting with these cells (mast cells)
Which med was prescribed?
A. cromolyn Na
B. Ipratropium bromide
C. Montelukast
D. Omalizumab
E. Salmeterol
F. Theophylline
A

A. cromolyn Na

  • stab mast cells to dec degran = no histamine rls
  • B. ipratrop = antimusc of M3, used in COPD or refract asthma. no interaxn with mast cells
  • C. Montelukast = blocks LT recep, no interaxn with mast
  • D. omalizumab = used for severe persistent asthma, binds IgE to dec degran of mast
  • E. Salmetrol = long acting B agonist of B2 recep, no interaxn with mast
  • F. Theopylline = inhib phosphodiesterase= inc cAMP = bronchodil, no mast cells
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3
Q
A 60-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to her gynecologist because of abnormal vaginal bleeding. The bleeding has occurred for the past 6 months and has been accompanied by decreased appetite with a 7-kg (15-lb) weight loss. Further history reveals onset of menses at age 12 years with normal 28-day cycles; completion of menopause occurred at age 52 years. She also had three uncomplicated vaginal deliveries. Review of family history is negative for gynecologic malignancies in her first and second-degree relatives. Physical examination reveals a discrete mass in the uterus. The patient undergoes hysterectomy and a postoperative biopsy specimen is shown in the image. (looks like smooth m cells). Most likely dx?
A. Adenocarc
B. Papilloma
C. Sarcoma
D. Teratoma
E. urothelial carc
A

C. Sarcoma

  • leimyosarcoma bc sm cells, atypia, postmeno bleeding
  • A. Adenocarc = should see glands/mucus producing cells
  • B. papilloma = benign, surf epithel, form fingers
  • C. teratoma = all three germ layers
  • D. urothel carc = no vag bleeding with this
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4
Q

A 73-year-old man in the cardiac care unit has had nausea, vomiting, and chills for the past 24 hours. He underwent a cardiac artery bypass procedure 6 days ago. His post-operative course has been complicated by new-onset atrial fibrillation treated with direct current cardioversion. His medical history is significant for insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and post-operative urinary retention after a past hernia operation. Because of this, the surgical team keeps his urinary catheter in place. His current medications include amlodipine, carvedilol, aspirin and pantoprazole. On evaluation today, his temperature is 100.6°F (38.1°C), blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, pulse is 66/min, respiratory rate is 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 95% on room air. His height is 180 cm (5’10”), and his weight is 99 kg (BMI is 30). His heart rhythm is regular, but he has a decrescendo diastolic murmur best heard when leaning forward. The murmur was not present during an examination yesterday. He has left costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. The Foley catheter is in place and is draining clear yellow urine. All intravenous sites are clean without erythema. Laboratory studies show:

WBC: 12,000/mm3
Hemoglobin: 11 g/dL
Platelets: 220,000/mm3
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Cr: 1.2 mg/dL

Urinalysis shows positive leukocyte esterase, negative nitrite, and negative hematuria with a pending bacterial culture. Blood cultures are drawn and the patient is started on empiric antibiotics to treat the presumed infection.

Which of the following pathogens is most likely responsible for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Enterococcus faecalis
C. Escherichia coli
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. Proteus mirabilis
F. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
A

B. Enterococcus faecalis

  • pt is nitrate neg indicating gram + infxn. pt has pyeloneph with bacteremia bc heart murmur, CVA tenderness, + leuk esterase, and endocarditis sxs. this bac cxs nosocom UTIs and endocard
  • A. Enterobac cloacae = gram -, cx of nosocom UTI, surg site infxn, and pneumo. nitrite pos, no endocard
  • C. E. Coli = gram -, nitrite +, no endocard, can cx nosocom UTI
  • D. Kleb pneumo = gram -, can cx nosocom UTI, pneumo, and peritonitis. no endocard
  • E. Proteus mirabilis = gram -, stones, usually CA-UTI. no endocard
  • F. Staph saproph = gram +, mostly cx CA-UTIs (sex active females). no urosepsis or endocard
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5
Q

A researcher is interested in studying the process of oogenesis. To do this, she harvests an oocyte from a healthy 18-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles and no history of prior pregnancies or abortions. She decides to harvest the oocyte after its release from the ovary into the fallopian tube.

At what stage of meiosis will the oocyte be arrested, assuming it is not fertilized?
A. Anaphase I
B Anaphase II
C Metaphase I
D Metaphase II
E Prophase I
F. Prophase II
A

D. Metaphase II

- oocyte arrested in prophase I until ovulation and then metaphase II until fertilization

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6
Q

A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of increasing muscle weakness. He states he first noticed that he had some mild weakness in his feet and legs 4 days ago. He initially attributed the weakness to “being tired,” but became concerned when he began to have difficulty walking. He states that his symptoms have progressed over the past few days, and the weakness has now spread to his arms and hands. Other than a recent episode of diarrhea and vomiting, the patient has been in good health. His neurologic exam is notable for 1+ Achilles and patellar reflexes, 2+ reflexes in the brachioradialis and biceps, 3/5 strength on foot dorsiflexion and plantarflexion, and 4/5 strength on knee extension.

Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with this patient’s neurologic symptoms?
A. α-Hemolytic, encapsulated, gram-positive cocci that produce an IgA protease
B. Curved, oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacteria that can be grown at 42°C
C. Non-lactose-fermenting, oxidase-positive, gram-negative, aerobic bacilli
D. Rod-shaped, gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobe that produces a heat-labile toxin
E. Spiral-shaped bacteria with axial filaments, visualized using dark-field microscopy

A

B. Curved, oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacteria that can be grown at 42°C

  • this describes Gullian Barre Syndrome via Campylobac jejuni. mild gastroenteritis and ascending paralysis
  • A. α-hemolytic, encapsulated, gram-positive cocci that produces an IgA protease = Strep pneumo= bacteremia, meningitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis
  • C. non-lactose-fermenting, oxidase-positive, gram-negative, aerobic bacilli = Pseudomon aerug = otitis externa, UTI, pneumo, sepsis in immunocomp
  • D. od-shaped, gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobe that produces a heat-labile toxin = Clostrid botulinum = blocks ach at NMJ = flaccid paralysis
  • E. Spiral-shaped bacteria with axial filaments, visualized using dark-field microscopy = Treponema pallidum = syphilis = tabes dorsalis = loss of proprio/fine touch
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7
Q

A 5-month-old child is brought for evaluation because of a 1-month history of breathlessness and fatigue. On physical examination of the child, the physician notes an enlarged tongue, severe generalized muscular hypotonia, and a palpable liver. In addition, the physician finds evidence of pitting edema in the child’s extremities. ECG reveals a short PR intervals with giant QRS complexes; blood work reveals increased serum creatine kinase and decreased leukocyte acid maltase concentrations.

Which of the following enzymes is most likely deficient in this infant?
A α-1,4-Glucosidase
B α-Galactosidase
C β-Glucocerebrosidase
D Glucose-6-phosphatase
E Glycogen phosphorylase
A

A. alpha 1,4 - Glucosidase

  • Pompes Dz = heart issues, dec acid maltase (gly stor dz), hypotonia, HSM, large QRS = biventric HT = cardiomegaly
  • B α-Galactosidase deficiency would present with peripheral neuropathy symptoms (Fabry disease).
  • C. β-Glucocerebrosidase deficiency (Gaucher disease) is characterized by femur necrosis and bone crisis.
  • D. glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency have signs and symptoms of severe hypoglycemia and increased blood lactate levels (von Gierke)
  • E. Glycogen phosphorylase deficiency presents with severe muscle cramping. (McArdle Dz)
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8
Q

A 65-year-old woman who recently immigrated from China presents to her physician with a swollen abdomen. Her appetite is poor, and she reports a weight loss of 6.8 kg (15 lb) during the past 6 months. The patient denies alcohol use, and she has no family history of malignancy. On physical examination, the patient has scleral icterus, abdominal distension, and a positive fluid wave. Laboratory studies demonstrate the following:

HBsAg negative
Anti-HBc negative
Anti-HBs positive
HCV antibody negative
Anti-HAV IgM negative
Anti-HAV IgG negative
Given this patient’s background, exposure to which of the following environmental substances is MOST likely linked to her underlying condition?
A Aflatoxin
B Arsenic
C Asbestos
D Naphthalene (aniline) dyes
E Nitrosamines
A

A. Aflatoxin

  • cxs HCC via aspergillus flavis. banned in US but common in Asia
  • B. arsenic = squam cell carc of skin or liver angiosarc (much less common than HCC)
  • C. Asbestos = mesothelioma and broncho carc
  • D. Napthtalene/dye = medical/industrial dyes that cx bladder trans cell carc
  • E. Nitrosamines = in cured meats, cx esophageal or stomach carc (uncommon HCC)
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9
Q

An HIV-positive 43-year-old man is brought by his caregiver to the physician. His caregiver reports that the patient has experienced significant cognitive and behavioral decline over the last 6 months. Recent CD4+ count was 150/mm3. According to the caregiver, the patient has not had fevers or headaches. His temperature is 98.7°F (37.0°C). No focal neurologic deficits are detected on physical examination. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis from lumbar puncture is unremarkable except for an HIV viral load of 700 copies/mL. A biopsy specimen obtained from the patient’s brain is shown in the image.

Which of the following cell types has most likely become infected in this patient's central nervous system?
A Astrocytes
B Langerhans cells
C Microglia
D Neurons
E Oligodendrocytes
A

C. microglia

  • pt has HIV encephalop = infxn of macrophages and microglia in CNS with diffuse cortical atrophy. HM of microglia = multinucleated giant cells, Common manifestations include severe impairment in cognition and the inability to perform activities of daily living.
  • A. astrocytes = start shaped, common in Toxoplasmosis infxn = CNS abscesses = fever, HA, seiz
  • B. Langerhans cells = macrophages of the skin, not the CNS
  • D. neurons = damaged indirectly due to infection and inflammation of the glial cells, neurons themselves are rarely infected in HIV.
  • E. oligodendrocytes = not infxd in HIV, However, JC virus is a human polyomavirus that infects oligodendrocytes after it becomes reactivated. JC virus is often acquired in childhood and remains latent in the kidneys and lymphoid organs of most adults. However, if the immune system becomes severely compromised, as it does in the late stages of AIDS, JC virus can become reactivated, resulting in progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), which leads to lysis of oligodendrocytes. Since oligodendrocytes are the myelin-producing cells within the CNS, their destruction by JC virus causes an appearance of small foci of demyelination within the subcortical white matter. Seizures, ataxia, aphasia, hemiparesis, and sensory deficits are common manifestations.
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10
Q

Arsenic

A

squam cell carc of skin

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11
Q

asbestos

A

mesothelioma or bronch carc

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12
Q

aflatoxin

A

HCC via aspergillus flavis

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13
Q

napthtalene/dyes

A

transitional cell carc of bladder

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14
Q

α-galactosidase A deficiency

A

Fabry disease is lysosomal storage disease

- eripheral neuropathies of the hands and feet, angiokeratomas, and cardiovascular and renal disease

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15
Q

β-glucocerebrosidase deficiency

A

Gauchers dz lyso stor dz

- hepatosplenomegaly, aseptic necrosis of the femur, bone crises, and Gaucher cells

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16
Q

glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency

A

Von Gierke disease is a type I glycogen storage disease
- severe fasting hypoglycemia with large stores of glycogen in the liver, hepatomegaly, and increased blood lactate levels

17
Q

glycogen phosphorylase deficiency

A

McArdle type V glyc stor dz

- cramping and myoglobinuria with strenuous exercise and hypotonia

18
Q

α-1,4-Glucosidase

A

Pompe disease, a type II glycogen storage disease, is due to a defect in acid maltase, and primarily affects the heart. Patients often present with cardiomegaly symptoms such as breathlessness, peripheral edema, and fatigue, as well as a palpable liver.

19
Q

α-Hemolytic, encapsulated, gram-positive cocci that produce an IgA protease

A

strep pneumo

20
Q

Curved, oxidase-positive, gram-negative bacteria that can be grown at 42°C

A

campylobac jejuni

21
Q

Non-lactose-fermenting, oxidase-positive, gram-negative, aerobic bacilli

A

pseudomonas aerug

22
Q

Rod-shaped, gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobe that produces a heat-labile toxin

A

clostridium botulinum

23
Q

Spiral-shaped bacteria with axial filaments, visualized using dark-field microscopy

A

treponema pallidum (syphilis)

24
Q

A 59-year-old man is hospitalized after sustaining a severe myocardial infarction. He is initially treated with nitrates, β-blockers, and aspirin and subsequently undergoes cardiac catheterization with placement of two stents. After the procedure, he is hemodynamically stable without recurrence of chest pain. However, 5 days after admission to the hospital, his blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg, his pulse 134/min, and respiratory rate is 29/min. Physical examination reveals an elevated jugular venous pressure and absence of a radial pulse during inspiration.

Which of the following complications is most likely causing this patient’s symptoms?
A Cardiac arrhythmia
B Fibrinous pericarditis
C Interventricular septum rupture
D Rupture of the papillary muscle
E Rupture of the ventricular free wall
A

E. Rup of free vent wall

  • pt presents with cardiac shock due to tamponade with hypoten pulsus parodoxus and elevated JVP. occurs 3–14days post MI
  • C. Interventricular septum rupture would present with cyanosis.
  • A. Cardiac arrhythmias are a common cause of death within the first 24 hours after MI.
  • B. Fibrinous pericarditis can be seen 1–3 days after an MI (asymptomatic) or weeks to months afterward (Dressler syndrome, symptomatic)
  • D. Rupture of a papillary muscle would present with new-onset murmur with mitral regurgitation and associated heart failure.
25
Q

Evolution of MI compilcations (4 phases)

A
  1. 0-24 hrs: coag nec and reperfusion injury = arry and cardio shock
  2. 1-3 days: coag nec, acute inflam, neutro = fibrinous pericarditis
  3. 3-14 days: macrophages and gran tiss = rup of vent wall/tamponade; rup of papillary m/MR; intervent rup/cyanosis
  4. 2wks-months: scar tiss = Dressler syn (sx fib pericarditis) or arry or true vent aneurysm
26
Q

A 19-year-old woman comes to her family physician because of amenorrhea. Her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago and prior to this, her periods were light but regular, occurring every 30 days. A pregnancy test is negative. She also reports occasional episodes of feeling “down” ever since breaking up with her boyfriend a year ago. She dropped out of cheerleading 3 weeks ago and has been struggling with school, although she had been an honors student in the past. She admits to crying spells, feelings of guilt and worthlessness, and frequent thoughts of suicide. Physical examination is unremarkable but the patient has a BMI of 17.2 kg/m2. The following lab results were obtained:

Na+ 130 mEq/L
K+ 3.2 mEq/L
Cl- 90 mEq/L
BUN 25 mg/dL
Cr 0.9 mEq/L
Glucose 55 mg/dL
Serum cholesterol 185 mg/dL
Which of the following medications would be contraindicated in this patient’s treatment regimen?
A Bupropion
B Buspirone
C Haloperidol
D Mirtazapine
E Phenelzine
A

A. Buproprion

  • pt has major depressive do and anorexia nervosa which puts her at risk for electrolyte imbalances (seizures); buproprion is an atypical NDRI that is contra in seizure pts
  • B. Buspirone is a serotonin 5-HT1A receptor partial agonist used to treat generalized anxiety disorder, not depression, and therefore is not indicated in this patient.
    • C Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic drug not indicated in the treatment for depression.
    • D. Mirtazapine is an antidepressant with noradrenergic and serotonergic effects and is not contraindicated in patients with or at risk for seizures.
    • E. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used in atypical or refractory depression. Its use is not contraindicated in patients at risk of seizures.
27
Q

A 45-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, comes to her primary care physician because of a 3-week history of intermittent abdominal pain. She states that this pain is located in her right upper quadrant and is associated with nausea and occasional vomiting. The pain often radiates to her back and occurs more frequently after meals. She has a history of elevated cholesterol and does not use alcohol, tobacco, or other drugs. On evaluation today, her temperature is 37° C (98.6° F), blood pressure is 133/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min; her BMI is 34.7 kg/m2. On physical examination she is in no apparent distress. Her abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended. Her laboratory results are:

Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
AST: 25 U/L
ALT: 30 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase: 75 U/L
Total bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL
Amylase: 30 U/L
Lipase: 50 U/L

A sonogram of the right upper quadrant is shown. (stone in GB)

Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
A Chronic hemolysis
B Elevated serum calcium
C Increased cholesterol secretion into bile
D Infection of the biliary tree
E Inflammation of the gallbladder
F Ischemia of the gallbladder
G Poor enterohepatic circulation of bile salts
H Reduced hepatic synthesis of bile salts

A

C. inc of serum cholesterol sec into bile

  • A. Chronic hemolysis can cause pigment gallstones by the supersaturation of calcium salts and bilirubin. However, laboratory values would show elevated bilirubin, whereas this patient has normal levels.
    • B Elevated serum calcium can cause nephrolithiasis or pancreatitis, both of which can present with abdominal pain. However, neither would show a gallstone on ultrasound, and pancreatitis would present with elevated amylase or lipase.
    • H. Hepatic cirrhosis predisposes patients to the development of gallstones due to decreased synthesis of bile salts. This patient does not have a history of cirrhosis or reason for cirrhosis such as hepatitis C or alcohol abuse, and her liver function tests are normal, whereas a patient with cirrhosis would have increased levels of AST and ALT.
    • G. Crohn disease leads to decreased enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. Decreased bile acids lead to increased stone formation secondary to a decreased elimination of cholesterol, but this patient does not have a history of Crohn disease.
    • F Acalculous cholecystitis can be caused by ischemia of the gallbladder, which is often seen in prolonged hospitalizations for critical illnesses and/or in primary infections of the gallbladder. However, this patient does not have a history of recent hospitalizations or illnesses, and is not ill enough to consider ischemia of the gallbladder.
    • E Although cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder, presents with abdominal pain, it would be persistent, and would be accompanied by fever and a positive Murphy sign on abdominal examination.
  • D. Cholangitis, infection of the biliary tree, presents with Charcot’s triad of fever, jaundice, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain, two of which are not seen in this patient.
28
Q

A 20-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate because she was “walking funny,” had difficulty breathing, and slurred her speech. She was recently diagnosed and given medication for panic disorder. She is afebrile. Her pulse is 58/min, respirations are 8/min, and blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg. Her mucous membranes are moist and pupil size is normal. Serum laboratory studies are negative for evidence of ethanol, organophosphate, or opioid ingestion.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the agent that would be used to reverse the effects of this patient’s antianxiety medication?
A Amplification of the effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter by inhibiting its breakdown
B Displacement of the drug from its binding site
C Inhibition of the formation of a toxic metabolite
D Inhibition of the storage of a neurotransmitter
E Reactivation of a previously inactivated enzyme

A

B. displacement of the drug from its binding site

  • pt has benzodiazepine intoxication
  • E. Reactivating a previously inactivated enzyme is the mechanism of pralidoxime, indicated for organophosphate poisoning.
  • A Amplifying the effect of an endogenous neurotransmitter by inhibiting its breakdown is the mechanism of physostigmine, indicated for anticholinergic poisoning
  • C Inhibiting the formation of a toxic metabolite is the mechanism of fomepizole and ethanol, indicated for toxic alcohol ingestion
  • D. Inhibiting the storage of a neurotransmitter is the mechanism of reserpine, indicated for high blood pressure
29
Q

diplopia, dysarthria, and difficulty breathing post-anesthesia, with ptosis

A

Myasthenia gravis

  • antibodies to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction (postsynaptic ACh receptors)
  • assoc: thymus mass/tumor
  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents are contra as they block the few acetylcholine receptors these patients have.
30
Q

A mother brings in her 2-month-old infant to the pediatrician because of concerns about the child’s abnormally developed hands. The mother states that she had a normal pregnancy and delivered the child vaginally without any complications. However, she did report increasing her intake of yellow vegetables and dark leafy greens during her pregnancy because she thought it would improve health of the developing fetus. Physical examination of the child discloses fusion of the third and fourth digits of the hands bilaterally but is otherwise normal.

Mutation of which of the following genes is most likely responsible for this patient's findings?
A FGF
B Hox
C SHH
D SRY
E Wnt-7
A

B. HOX

  • HOX cxs syndactyly, polydactyly, an extra cervical rib, and an increased risk of cancer
  • Vit A = teratogen in leafy greens = disrupts HOX
  • C SHH = holoprosencephaly, cyclopia, cleft lip
  • D SRY = only in males, devel of testes
  • E Wnt7 = skeletal deformities of the limbs
  • A FGF = lengthening of limbs
31
Q

A 78-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled hypertension comes to the emergency department because of unilateral weakness and slurred speech. A CT scan reveals ischemia within the left temporal lobe.

Histological examination 1 to 2 weeks after ischemic cell injury is likely to show activation of which of the following cell types?
A Astrocytes
B Ependymal cells
C Fibroblasts
D Microglia
E Oligodendrocytes
F Schwann cells
A

A astrocytes
- 1-2 weeks following ischemic stroke, vascular proliferation gliosis with an abundance of astrocytes

  • D Microglia = foamy macrophages. 3-5 days after
  • C Fibroblasts=scar formation in peripheral nervous sys
  • F Schwann cells = in the peripheral nervous system
  • E Oligodendrocytes have a perinuclear halo, NO response to injury.
  • B Ependymal cells = dam in diseases of the the ventricle or infections, not ischemia. NO repair of the CNS
32
Q

A 64-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease, and type 2 diabetes presents to his physician because he “has trouble seeing.” Visual field testing reveals a defect in the left half of the visual field for both eyes, with sparing of central acuity.

Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms?
A Infarction of the lower division of the middle cerebral artery
B Infarction of the upper division of the middle cerebral artery
C Left retinal artery occlusion
D Right posterior cerebral artery infarction with sparing of the occipital pole

A

D Right posterior cerebral artery infarction with sparing of the occipital pole
- occipital pole is the extreme posterior end of the occipital lobe and is unique in that it receives a dual blood supply, with anastomoses from the PCA as well as the deep branch of the middle cerebral artery (MCA). Near the occipital pole, the junctional zone between the territories of the middle and posterior cerebral arteries corresponds to the visual (striate) cortex, which receives information from the macula. Collateral circulation of blood from the branches of the MCA into those of the PCA may account for the phenomenon of macular sparing. This collateral supply from the MCA is considered responsible for macular sparing of these PCA infarcts, resulting in hemianopia (in this case, left homonymous hemianopia) with sparing of central vision

  • A lower MCA = defects of the temporal lobe, producing contralateral superior quadrantanopia, or “pie in the sky” defects
  • B upper MCA = contralateral inferior quadrantanopia
  • C L. retinal a = hemianopia of the left eye, leading to left temporal and left nasal visual field defects