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Parasitology > PRELIM > Flashcards

PRELIM Flashcards

1
Q

It is described to have 4 to 5 lobes of testes arranged in cluster is which of the following schistosomes?

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma mansoni

A

b. Schistosoma haematobium

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2
Q

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about Dipylidium caninum?

a. Each segment has two sets of male and two sets of female reproductive organs
b. Degree of pathogenicity is directly related to the number of worms in a host
c. Direct fecal smear is used for diagnosis
d. Infection among humans requires ingestion of dogs

A

d. Infection among humans requires ingestion of dogs

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3
Q

In Echinococcus granulosus, humans serve as _____?

a. Parathenic host
b. Reservoir host
c. Accidental intermediate host
d. Definitive host

A

c. Accidental intermediate host

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4
Q

The larval forms of Dipylidium caninum

a. Coenurus
b. Cysticercoid
c. Cysticercus
d. Hydatid

A

b. Cysticercoid

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5
Q

Schistosoma eggs when laid:

a. Are already embryonated
b. Are non – operculated
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

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6
Q

Eggs of which of the following schistosomes can be recovered primarily in stool?

a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma haematobium

A

b. Schistosoma japonicum

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7
Q

Intermediate host/s of Fasciola hepatica

a. Lymnea philipinensis
b. Mugil cephalus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Lymnea philipinensis

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8
Q

Diecious trematode

a. Liver fluke
b. Intestinal fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

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9
Q

Egg packets may be seen on laboratory diagnosis

a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Taenia multiceps
d. Dipylidium caninum

A

d. Dipylidium caninum

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10
Q

What is/are the most characteristic external structure/s in Trematodes?

a. Acetabula
b. Suckers
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

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11
Q

Definitive diagnosis of Hymenolepis nana and Hymenolepis diminuta are based on

a. Eggs
b. Adult worm
c. Segments
d. Larva

A

a. Eggs

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12
Q

Embryo produced are called Coracidium

a. Rat tapeworm
b. Dog tapeworm
c. Beef tapeworm
d. Fish tapeworm

A

d. Fish tapeworm

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13
Q

It is a good preservative for protozoa in dysenteric feces

a. Giemsa
b. Polyvinyl alcohol fixation
c. Lugol’s iodine
d. Methiolate-iodine-formaldehyde

A

b. Polyvinyl alcohol fixation

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14
Q

It is a good preservative for protozoa in dysenteric feces

a. Giemsa
b. Polyvinyl alcohol fixation
c. Lugol’s iodine
d. Methiolate-iodine-formaldehyde

A

b. Polyvinyl alcohol fixation

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15
Q

Zigzag intestinal ceca are provided in which of the following organisms?

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. Echinostoma ilocanum
d. Fasciolopsis buski

A

a. Paragonimus westermani

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16
Q

Larvae of Fasciola hepatica may cause abscess formation and fibrosis in the:

a. Brain
b. Eyes
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

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17
Q

Diagnosis of True fascioliasis is based on:

a. Finding of larvae in DFS after 3 days liver – free diet
b. Finding of adult worm in DFS after 3 days liver – free diet
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

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18
Q

TRUE for fecal sample

a. Patient receiving barium must collect the specimen after 1 hour
b. Should not be mixed with urine
c. It must be examined 5 hours after collection
d. Collect sample after the intake of antibiotics

A

b. Should not be mixed with urine

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19
Q

Cuticle, as in Ascaris, is an adaptation for which of the following conditions?

a. Reproduction
b. Parasitism
c. Growth
d. Locomotion

A
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20
Q

Pyorrhea pockets between teeth and gums are the habitat of the cyst form of which of the following organisms?

  1. Entamoeba gingivalis
  2. Trichomonas tenax
  3. Dientamoeba fragilis
  4. Giardia lamblia

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 3 and 4
e. None of the above

A
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21
Q

Immuno-blotting is also known as

a. RAST
b. ELISA
c. Western blot
d. COPT

A

c. Western blot

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22
Q

Infective stage of what parasite/s is/are matured when laid?

a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
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23
Q

A pair of conical papillae of adult male belongs to which of the following species?

a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Capillaria philippinensis
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Trichuris trichiura

A
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24
Q

Infective form to the definitive host of Diphylobothrium latum

a. Cysticercus
b. Procercoid
c. Hydatid
d. Plerocercoid

A

d. Plerocercoid

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25
Q

Circumoral disk with collarette of spines is the diagnostic feature of which of the following parasites?

a. Fasciolopsis buski
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Echinostoma ilocanum
d. Opistorchis felineus

A

c. Echinostoma ilocanum

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26
Q

Intermediate host of Taenia saginata

a. Dog
b. Humans
c. Cattle
d. Cat

A

c. Cattle

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27
Q

Coenurus larva is present in this tapeworm

a. Taenia multiceps
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Taenia saginata

A

a. Taenia multiceps

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28
Q

Floatation technique:

a. Formalin ether technique
b. Zinc sulfate method
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. Zinc sulfate method

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29
Q

Infection caused by this parasite may resemble cases of tuberculosis

a. Garrison’s fluke
b. Heterophyds
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

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30
Q

Eggs has the same appearance

a. Cat liver fluke and Chinese liver fluke
b. Sheep’s liver fluke and Giant intestinal fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

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31
Q

The so-called, cross-eyed cyst, pertains to which of the following species?

a. Entamoeba gingivalis
b. Iodamoeba butschlii
c. Entamoeba hartmanni
d. Endolimax nana

A
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32
Q

What stage/s of Trematodes must find their next host otherwise they will perish?

a. Cercaria
b. Miracidium
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
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33
Q

The intermediate host for the Echinococcus granulosus

a. Dogs
b. Sheep
c. Fish
d. Cats

A

b. Sheep

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34
Q

Which of the following is the smallest tapeworm?

a. Taenia solium
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Echinococcus granulosus

A

d. Echinococcus granulosus

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35
Q

Cigar shaped chromatoidal bodies are the diagnostic feature of the pathogenic stage of which of the following parasites?

  1. Entamoeba histolytica
  2. Entamoeba dispar
  3. Entamoeba moshkovskii
  4. Entamoeba polecki

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

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36
Q

Modified acid fast positive

a. Cryptosporidium
b. Isospora
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

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37
Q

This is developed for the assay of serum IgE reactivity for allergen

a. ELISA
b. RAST
c. Western blot
d. COPT

A

b. RAST

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38
Q

Scolex of Pseudophyllidea

a. Provided with hooklets
b. Bothria
c. 4-cup like suckers
d. Globular

A

b. Bothria

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39
Q

Trichuris trichiura is known as by which of the following common names?

a. Whipworm
b. Giant intestinal roundworm
c. Trichina worm
d. Pudoc’s worm

A

a. Whipworm

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40
Q

Diphyllobothrium latum causes what type of disease?

a. Pernicious anemia
b. Cancer
c. Hydatid disease
d. Cysticercosis

A

a. Pernicious anemia

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41
Q

Which of the following organisms pass through the promastigotes in the life cycle?

a. T. rhodesiense
b. T. gambiense
c. T. cruzi
d. A and B
e. A, B and C

A

c. T. cruzi

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42
Q

True about Echinostoma ilocanum

a. 1st intermediate host: Snail
b. Second intermediate host: Fresh water fish
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
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43
Q

An egg counting procedure that is a semi-quantitative technique which assumes of using around 1-2mg of stool sample

a. DFS
b. Stoll’s egg counting
c. Beaver direct smear
d. Kato thick smear

A

c. Beaver direct smear

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44
Q

The larval form of this worm consists of daughter cysts and protoscolices

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia multiceps
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Echinococcus granulosus

A
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45
Q

The following statements are true about trophozoites, EXCEPT

a. The specimen must be examined immediately
b. Floatation is a method of choice to analyze the morphology of trophozoites
c. A liquid specimen is more satisfactory for examination
d. Trophozoites are killed when stained with iodine

A
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46
Q

Anal pruritis in tapeworms happen during

a. Person is asleep
b. Patient is in less active state
c. Takes place at night
d. Person is in active state

A
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47
Q

Which among the following parasites has the blood lung phase?

a. Dracunculus medinensis
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A
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48
Q

Intersegmental fertilization means

a. Segment of the same worm can fertilize its own segment
b. Segment of the same worm can fertilize another segment
c. Segment can be fertilized by each of the testicular follicle
d. Segment can be fertilized by another testicular follicle

A

b. Segment of the same worm can fertilize another segment

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49
Q

The intestinal ceca of which of the following schistosomes reunites early?

a. Schistosoma mansoni
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Schistosoma haematobium

A

a. Schistosoma mansoni

50
Q

What is/are the pathogenic stage of Schistosoma to humans?

a. Adult worm
b. Egg
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
51
Q

Larval development in the molluscan host is sporocyst → sporocyst → cercariae

a. Vesical blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
52
Q

TRUE to Cestodes

a. Diecious
b. All cestodes require two intermediate host
c. Leaf-like parasites
d. All cestodes are hermaphroditic

A
53
Q

Allergic manifestations are found in what stage of Schistosomiasis?

a. Stage of maturation
b. Stage of late infection
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Stage of maturation

54
Q

Positive result for COPT

a. Blebs are present on the egg
b. Trophozoites are unstained
c. Visualization of uterine branches
d. Recovery of Enterobius vermicularis eggs

A

a. Blebs are present on the egg

55
Q

The ovary of which of the following schistosomes is located anterior to the mid plane?

a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum

A

b. Schistosoma mansoni

56
Q

First and Second intermediate host of this parasite are both snails

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Echinostoma ilocanum
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
57
Q

Xenodiagnosis was originally used for the diagnosis of?

a. Malaria
b. Chaga’s disease
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. Chaga’s disease

58
Q

What parasite/s migrates the intestinal wall → abdominal cavity → Glisson’s capsule → Liver ?

a. Opistorchis felinues
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. Fasciola hepatica

59
Q

Rectal prolapse is a common manifestation of which of the following species?

a. Trichuris trichiura
b. Capillaria philippinensis
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A
60
Q

Feature/s of Heterophyes heterophyes

a. Has two (2) ovoid testes of equal size
b. Has a single large ovoid testes
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Has two (2) ovoid testes of equal size

61
Q

What Schistosoma is/are usually found in the inferior mesenteric plexuses/venules?

a. Manson’s blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Manson’s blood fluke

62
Q

What parasite has zig zag intestinal ceca?

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Paragonimus westermani

63
Q

Clinical event/s during the stage I of Schistosomiasis

a. Skin reaction due to the invading metacercaria
b. Formation of granulomas in the affected organ
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
64
Q

Metacyclic trypomastigotes are the infective stages of which of the following infections?

a. Kala azar
b. Dum dum fever
c. Trypanosomiasis
d. A and B
e. A, B and C

A
65
Q

What is/are the first stage larva of Trematodes?

a. Cercaria
b. Miracidium
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
66
Q

Serological test intended for cases of Toxoplasmosis

a. COPT
b. Sabin Feldman Dye test
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. Sabin Feldman Dye test

67
Q

Habitat/s of Fasciolopsis buski:

a. Proximal bile duct
b. Distal bile duct
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

68
Q

Diagnosis of infection by this parasite/s is thru the demonstration of eggs from the stool

a. Garrison’s fluke
b. Giant intestinal fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
69
Q

What is/are associated with neoplasm of the bile ducts?

a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
70
Q

Larval stage that is present in the copepod

a. Cysticercoid
b. Plerocercoid
c. Cysticercus
d. Procercoid

A

d. Procercoid

71
Q

The disease caused by the beef tapeworm on humans

a. Anemia
b. Cysticercosis
c. Dysentery
d. Taeniasis

A

d. Taeniasis

72
Q

It contains uterine pore

a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia multiceps
d. Dipylidium caninum

A
73
Q

Most frequently used solution in Floatation Method

a. Brine floatation
b. Sheather’s
c. Neither A nor B
d. Zinc-Sulfate

A

d. Zinc-Sulfate

74
Q

The vectors of malaria breed quite well in which of the following conditions of breeding places?

a. clean, slow-running, shaded water
b. clean, stagnant water
c. clean water collected in leaves of plants
d. dirty stagnant water

A
75
Q

Egg/s of which parasite is immature when laid?

a. Metagonimus yokogawai
b. Paragonimus westermanii
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
76
Q

Intermediate host of Pudok’s disease includes which of the following species?

a. Ambassis miops
b. Phlebotumus papataci
c. Glossina morsitans
d. Rhodnius prolixus

A
77
Q

The only human tapeworm without intermediate host

a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Hymenolepis nana

A
78
Q

Reservoir host/s of Cat Liver Fluke

a. Dogs
b. Cats
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

79
Q

What stage/s of Trematodes escapes from the first intermediate host?

a. Cercaria
b. Miracidium
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
80
Q

This tapeworm contains armed scolex

a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Hymenolepis diminuta
c. Taenia saginata
d. Hymenolepis nana

A
81
Q

Egg counting method/s that uses cellophane cover slip and glycerin

a. Kato thick smear method
b. Beaver direct smear method
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Kato thick smear method

82
Q

Transversely compressed vittelaria is associated with which of the following species?

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. Echinostoma ilocanum
d. Opistorchis felineus

A

d. Opistorchis felineus

83
Q

Graham Cellulose Tape Swab is used for the recovery of

a. Pinworm
b. Seatworm
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
84
Q

The so called “beneficial” situation is part of which of the following relationship of organisms?

a. Symbiosis
b. Commensalism
c. Mutualsim
d. A and B
e. A, B and C

A

c. Mutualsim

85
Q

Eggs of this tapeworm contains polar filaments

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia saginata
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Taenia solium

A

a. Hymenolepis nana

86
Q

Which of the following organisms exist in both cyst and trophozoite forms.

a. N. fowleri
b. T. tenax
c. E. gingivalis
d. A and B
e. A, B and C

A
87
Q

Montenegro’s tests are primary intended for which of the following conditions?

a. Gambian trypanosomiasis
b. Chaga’s disease
c. kala-azar
d. None of the above

A
88
Q

Water chestnut is the second intermediate host of which of the following species?

a. Fasciolopsis buski
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Opistorchis felineus
d. Echinostoma ilocanum

A

a. Fasciolopsis buski

89
Q

Flukes are provided with which of the following organ system/s?

a. Circulatory system
b. Respiratory system
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
90
Q

What parasite/s may cause/s acute ileus and partial obstruction of the bowel?

a. Fasciolopsis buski
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
91
Q

Capillaria philippinensis is known by which of the following common names?

a. Giant intestinal roundworm
b. Trichina worm
c. Whipworm
d. Pudoc’s worm

A

d. Pudoc’s worm

92
Q

Most common method used to diagnose cases of intestinal parasitic infection

a. Intestinal biopsy
b. Direct fecal smear
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
93
Q

COPT is used for the diagnosis of

a. Taeniasis
b. Amoebiasis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Blood fluke infection

A

d. Blood fluke infection

94
Q

What causes cough and fever in the Stage of invasion of Schistosomiasis?

a. Adult worm
b. Cercaria
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

95
Q

Eggs of what Schistosoma has a lateral spine?

a. Vesical blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

d. Neither A nor B

96
Q

Ovary of what Schistosoma is located centrally or near the midplane?

a. Manson’s blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
97
Q

The organism’s cytoplasm is stretch in the diameter of the host RBC is which of the following parasites?

a. P. malariae
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. P. falciparum

A
98
Q

Vesical plexuses are the habitat of which of the following schistosomes?

a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma japonicum

A

a. Schistosoma haematobium

99
Q

Infective stage of Echinococcus granulosus to man

a. Adult worm
b. Larva
c. Cysts
d. Eggs

A
100
Q

Pumpkin-seed shaped segments

a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Hymenolepis diminuta
d. Taenia multiceps

A

b. Dipylidium caninum

101
Q

Eggs are not infective to human host

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia saginata
c. Taenia solium
d. Echinococcus granulosus

A
102
Q

What parasite/s inhabit/s the distal biliary passages?

a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. A and B

103
Q

Parasite/s which require/s blood film preparation to demonstrate their presence

a. Trypanosoma spp.
b. Plasmodium spp.
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
104
Q

This stain will make the chromatin material of cysts stand-out against yellow-brown cytoplasm

a. Hematoxylin Eosin Stain
b. Trichrome stain
c. Iodine stain
d. Iron Hematoxylin

A

c. Iodine stain

105
Q

What is/are the infective stage of Schistosoma to humans?

a. Adult worm
b. Egg
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
106
Q

Blood film preparation which may be used for the diagnosis of malaria

a. Thin blood film
b. Thick blood film
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
107
Q

Dwarf tapeworm

a. Hymelopis diminuta
b. Taenia multiceps
c. Hymenolepis nana
d. Echinococcus granulosus

A

c. Hymenolepis nana

108
Q

What makes use of Schistosoma egg in the test?

a. CHR
b. COPT
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. COPT

109
Q

Oncomelania quadrasi is the molluscan host of what Schistosoma?

a. Manson’s blood fluke
b. Oriental blood fluke
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
110
Q

Gravid segment with 15-20 lateral uterine branches

a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia solium
c. Taenia saginata
d. Dipylidium caninum

A

c. Taenia saginata

111
Q

Enterotest may be used for the recovery of:

a. Giargia lamblia
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Giargia lamblia

112
Q

Infective stage of protozoa describe by which of the following characteristics?

a. non-feeding
b. with stored food
c. motile
d. A and B
e. A, B and C

A
113
Q

Infective stage of what parasite/s is found in watercress?

a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. Fasciola hepatica

114
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for Taenia species?

a. Adults inhabit the large intestine
b. Taenia solium cannot cause human cysticercosis
c. Taenia saginata can cause human cysticercosis
d. Taenia solium may cause cerebral cysticercosis

A

d. Taenia solium may cause cerebral cysticercosis

115
Q

Growing L. Donovani in artificial culture media will result to which of the following stages?

a. Amastigotes
b. Promastigotes
c. All the above
d. None of the above

A
116
Q

This require dehemoglobinization step on blood smear preparation

a. Knott’s method
b. Thick dry film
c. Kato-katz
d. Thin dry film

A

b. Thick dry film

117
Q

Eggs of which parasite is/are found in flecks of rusty material in the sputum?

a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Fasciolopsis buski
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

a. Paragonimus westermani

118
Q

Pathology of what parasite/s is due to mechanical or toxic effects?

a. Fasciola hepatica
b. Opistorchis felineus
c. A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A
119
Q

Which egg of the following schistosomes has an abbreviated lateral spine?

a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Schistosoma mansoni
c. Schistosoma haematobium

A
120
Q

The first intermediate host is tiny crustaceans

a. Cat tapeworm
b. Rat tapeworm
c. Dog tapeworm
d. Broad tapeworm

A

d. Broad tapeworm

Parasitology (1 decks)

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