Procedures Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A pregnant woman comes to your office and wants to know if her cat has infected her with
    Toxo while she was pregnant. How would you proceed? (take this into account http://www.fda.gov/
    NewsEvents/newsroom/PressAnnouncements/ucm255922.htm)
    a. Tell her to go to the vet and get her cat checked for Toxoplasma
    b. Draw blood and determine if she has an antibody titer to Toxoplasma. If it’s >25000 then she is
    infected with Toxo and there is a risk to the baby
    c. it is important to distinguish previous exposure to toxoplasma compared to a current exposure/
    infection. Standard test will not provide the difference.
    d. About ⅓ of people have a positive titer for Toxo so it is impossible to determine if there is any danger
    to her baby
A

c. it is important to distinguish previous exposure to toxoplasma compared to a current exposure/
infection. Standard test will not provide the difference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. A person comes into the office and has watery diarrhea. Due to the patient’s recent activities and
    clinical signs you suspect the infection is caused by Giardia. What fecal examination method would
    provide you with the best chance of determining the parasite?
    A. ethyl acetate sedimentation
    B. zinc sulfate flotation
    C. magnesium sulfate float
    D. All the above
A

B. zinc sulfate flotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Blood work is run on a patient exhibiting some nausea and abdominal pain. The results can back
    showing eosinophilia and low iron. Can this be an indicator of a worm infection. Explain why or why not.
    a. No. Eosinophilia and low iron indicates the patient is infected with a virus, not worms
    b. Yes. Eosinophilia means there are a low number of white blood cells due to the worms killing them off
    c. Yes. Eosinophilia means there are a large number of white blood cells present, possibly fighting off
    an infestation of worms.
    d. No. Worm infections don’t cause low iron
    e. Yes. Eosinophilia means there are traces of worm antibodies in the patient
A

c. Yes. Eosinophilia means there are a large number of white blood cells present, possibly fighting off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A pregnant woman comes to your office to see if she recently became infected with Toxoplasmosis
    while she was pregnant. What laboratory experiments will be helpful in determining the exposure
    during the pregnancy?
    a. Test her pets for Toxoplasmosis by measuring their IgG and IgM level
    b. Test her pets for Toxoplasmosis by measuring their IgG and IgA level
    c. Test the pregnant woman for Toxoplasmosis by measuring her IgG and IgM level
    d. Test the pregnant woman for Toxoplasmosis by measuring her IgG and IgA level
    e. All of the above
A

c. Test the pregnant woman for Toxoplasmosis by measuring her IgG and IgM level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. An elder lady who is in a mental institution has been having severe abdominal pain and diarrhea.
    The patient’s nurse believes that she has been infected with the threadworm, Strongyloides stercoralis.
    What tests could be done to identify or diagnose this parasite?
    a. Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
    b. Serological test, specifically ELISA
    c. Identification of rhabditiform larvae in feces
    d. A and C
    e. B and C
    f. All of the above
A

e. B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
6.
The identification of the above, Schistosoma haematobium, egg is done by collecting a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
sample.
a. feces
b. urine
c. blood
d. saliva
A

b. urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. It is the middle of summer and a man, who has recently come back from a hiking trip in Arkansas,
    comes into your office complaining of muscle pain, fever and headache. You tell him to get plenty of rest
    and dismiss it as the common cold. A few days later he comes back with a rash and the same previous
    symptoms. You believe the individual has Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. What test(s) can you order to
    help diagnose the patient. Pick all that apply
    (http://www.cdc.gov/rmsf/symptoms/)
    a. a platelet count
    b. zinc sulfate flotation
    c. urinalysis
    d. gold standard serologic test
A

a. a platelet count

d. gold standard serologic test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. A group of elementary school students experience constant itching in the perianal area. The
    excessive scratching and infrequent bathing habits cause mucoid vaginal discharge in girls and urinary
    tract infections in boys. Which of the following tests is/are not the test to confirm pinworm infection?
    a. Cellophane technique
    b. Detection of eggs or worms in anus
    c. Detection of eggs or worms in the perianal area
    d. Detection of eggs or worms in the urinary tract
    e. None of the above
A

b. Detection of eggs or worms in anus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. For possible infections of Wucheria, Brugia, or Loa Loa in a patient residing in Africa, these
    samples should be collected for diagnosis during the ______.
    a. Day and Night
    b. Day, because Wucheria, Brugia and Loa Loa have diurnal periodicity
    c. Night, because Wucheria, Brugia and Loa Loa have nocturnal periodicity
    d. None of the above, it does not matter
A

a. Day and Night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. A patient in West/Central Africa is experiencing conjunctival granulomata and it is
    speculated that he or she is suffering from Loa Loa infection. What laboratory test or
    circumstances cannot indicate that the patient is suffering from Loa Loa?
    a. mango flies in the area
    b. the patient’s exposure to muddy ponds and swamps
    c. Visualizing ‘fugitive swellings’
    d. Detect microfilariae in blood during nighttime.
    e. Detect microfilariae in blood during daytime
    f. None of the above
A

d. Detect microfilariae in blood during nighttime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A patient has severe anemia and cravings to eat soil. It is speculated that the patient is
    suffering from a hookworm infection. Laboratory test for hookworm infections is usually done
    by visualizing the presence of hookworm eggs in feces. Which of the following information is
    not obtained from this test?
    a. egg wall thickness
    b. shell shape
    c. hookworm species
    d. none of the above
A

c. hookworm species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. After ingesting contaminated pork, a patient suffers from nausea, fever, profuse perspiration, facial
    edema and secondary bacterial infection. What tests can be performed to diagnosis Trichinellosis?
    a. Eosinophil level
    b. Liver biopsy
    c. Intradermal injection of larval suspension
    d. All of the above
    e. A and B
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. After ingesting contaminated pork, a patient suffers from nausea and fever. What is to be expected
    in early Trichinellosis? Pick the best answer.
    a. Eosinophillia
    b. Appearance of a wheal
    c. Treated easily with Mebendazole
    d. Negative laboratory results
    f. All of the above
A

d. Negative laboratory results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14.Severe swelling and intestine itching at sites transversed by infective filariform larvae indicate that
the patient is suffering from ground itch caused by threadworms. To diagnose a threadworm infection
(Strongyloides stercoralis), what are seen in feces during a laboratory test?
a. egg
b. rhabditiform larvae
c. filariform larva
*d. a and b
e. a and c

A

a. egg

b. rhabditiform larvae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Severe swelling and intestine itching at sites transversed by infective filariform larvae indicate that
    the patient is suffering from ground itch caused by threadworms. To diagnose a threadworm infection
    (Strongyloides stercoralis), what laboratory tests can be performed?

a. rhabditiform larvae in feces
b. eggs in feces
c. larvae in sputum
d. ELISA
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Severe swelling and intestine itching at sites transversed by infective filariform larvae indicate that
    the patient is suffering from ground itch caused by threadworms. What is the definitive diagnostic tool
    for a threadworm infection (Strongyloides stercoralis)?
    a. rhabditiform larvae in feces
    b. eggs in feces
    c. larvae in sputum
    d. ELISA
    e. All of the above
A

d. ELISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A patient develops fever 10 to 14 days after a bug bite and this fever occurs every 36 to 72 hours
    thereafter. These symptoms indicate a possible Plasmodium infection. What is the diagnostic method to
    detect low levels of parasitemia? Pick the best answer.
    a. Clinical presentation
    b.Thin blood smear
    c.Thick blood smear
    d. Serological testing
    e. PCR
A

c.Thick blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
18. A patient experiences fever, hemolysis and hemoglobinuria after getting a bug bite in the United
States. Which of the following laboratory test results or circumstances indicate that this is a Babesia
infection, not Plasmodium infection?
a. No hemozoin or Maurer’s cleft
b. Ring stage exists
c. Caused by mosquitos
d. B and C
e. All of the above
A

a. No hemozoin or Maurer’s cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Sammy lives on a pasture where grass is never ending. He recently went to a doctor’s appointment
    and was told that he had an enlarged tender liver and profuse anemia. When the doctor asked him for
    his tendencies, Sammy reported that he loves to eat watercress and chew on grass blades whenever
    he’s doing chores in the fields. His doctor believes that he may be infected with Fasciola hepatica. What
    test should the doctor perform for confirmation?
    a. Fecal sedimentation
    b. ELISA to determine presence of anti-parasite antibodies
    c. Identifying eggs that are yellowish and operculate
    d. A and C
    e. A and B
    f. All of the above
A

d. A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. A patient, recently returned from a traveling expedition in South America, comes into your office
    with symptoms associated with Giardiasis. In order to try and confirm if the parasite is present within
    the patient, what clinical test would you then proceed to perform upon them from the options listed
    45
    below?
    a. examine a stool sample for trophozoites
    b. examine a stool sample for cysts
    c. examine a blood sample during the day for cysts
    d. examine a blood sample during the night for cysts
A

b. examine a stool sample for cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Isolde visits Japan for summer vacation and regularly consumes uncooked freshwater fish such
    as salmon, perch, trout, and whitefish during her stay. A month after coming back from her trip, she
    experiences abdominal discomfort, weakness and salt cravings. Her doctor suspects a possible Broadfish
    tapeworm infection. What tests could be done to identify or diagnose this parasite?
    a. Levels of Vitamin B12 and folate
    b. Eggs in feces
    c. Proglottids recovery
    d. All of the above
    e.None of the above
A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. John cooks for the charity BBQ event with pork ribs and beef briskets. Many of the members who
    consumed food at this event experience abdominal discomfort and perforation of the intestinal wall.
    How would you as a community doctor proceed? Pick the best answer
    a. Tell patients that the disease will self resolve with Gas-X, Pepto, and Tums
    b. Patient stool tests to view the eggs or proglottids.
    c. Tell patients that the disease will self resolve on its own and it is unlikely they will develop a secondary
    condition.
    d. Laboratory test to view the eggs or proglottids in the meat consumed during the event
A

b. Patient stool tests to view the eggs or proglottids.

23
Q

23.Cestode infections cause inflammatory reactions at the site of parasite entry. Which of the following
laboratory tests can diagnose a Cestode infection?
a. ELISA
b. Cestode eggs in humans
c. Recovery of Cestode worms in suspected tissues
d. PCR
d. a and c
e. b and d

A

d. a and c

24
Q
24. When taking a stool sample which general property of parasites could affect identification of
parasites in stool?
a. Periodicity
b. Area of infection
c. Stage of illness
d. Species
e. all of the above
A

e. all of the above

25
Q
  1. The most common technique used to diagnose a hookworm infection is to take a stool sample, fix
    it in 10% formalin, concentrate it using the formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation technique, and then create a wet mount of the sediment for viewing under a microscope. Notwithstanding, the eggs of A. duodenale and N. Americanus – two hookworm species – cannot be differentially diagnosed through
    this procedure. In a case for which a physician wishes to differentially diagnose between A. duodenale and N. americanus, which of the following laboratory procedures should be utilized?
    a. examination of the adult larval hookworms present in the intestinal mucusa (biopsy) since the greatest prevalence of the disease is in the gastrointestinal tract during the infectious, symptomatic
    stage; differential diagnosis made by morphological differences, among others.
    b. examination of the immature larval hookworms present in the intestinal muscusa (biopsy) since the
    greatest prevalence of the disease is in the gastrointestinal tract during the infectious, symptomatic
    stage; differential diagnosis made by morphological differences, among others
    c. examination of the mature larval hookworms present in the urogenital tract (biopsy) since the
    greatest prevalence of the disease is in the urogenital tract during the infectious, symptomatic stage;
    differential diagnosis made by morphological differences, among others
    d. electroencephalography analysis of the patient’s brain to measure changes in voltage fluctuations
    from ionic current flows within the neurons of the brain caused by the prevalence of either one or the
    other
A

a. examination of the adult larval hookworms present in the intestinal mucusa (biopsy) since the greatest prevalence of the disease is in the gastrointestinal tract during the infectious, symptomatic

26
Q
  1. After Eliza traveled to Africa and slept without a protective net, she woke up with several mosquito
    bites. She started to feel sick after a few days and consulted a physician. The physician suspected Chagas
    disease, so in order to test for this he ordered laboratory tests to:
    A. detect the parasite in Eliza’s feces
    B. detect the parasite in Eliza’s bone marrow
    C. detect the parasite in Eliza’s blood or tissue specimens
    D. detect the parasite in a urine sample
A

C. detect the parasite in Eliza’s blood or tissue specimens

27
Q
27. According to Dr. Oli, what is the “American hub” for diagnostic procedures?
A. WHO
B. CDC
C. EPA
D. FDA
A

B. CDC

28
Q
  1. Dr. Oli explained that EPA is very important and relative to our class because:
    A. Their regulation of pollution reduces the amounts of parasites
    B. They inspect restaurants for parasitic spores and contaminants
    C. Their regulation of water helps ensure we do not consume contaminated water that may have
    parasites.
    D. All of the above
A

C. Their regulation of water helps ensure we do not consume contaminated water that may have
parasites.

29
Q
  1. Aside from food inspection, Dr. Oli explains that the FDA is very important because:
    A. They regulate our consumption of trans fats
    B. They advocate for healthier food alternatives in restaurants
    C. Their number one concern is to reduce parasitic infection through food consumption
    D. They approve diagnostic tests
A

D. They approve diagnostic tests

30
Q
30. Which of the following is not a concern during specimen collection?
A. Handling
B. Time of day
C. Color of specimen
D. Concentration procedure
A

C. Color of specimen

31
Q
  1. What is the problem with sending off a test order to the CDC for a patient who is suspected to be
    infected with Naegleria Fowleri?
    A. Turnaround time exceeds the necessary amount of time to treat and save the patient.
    B. This diagnostic tool is easily carried out in a laboratory facility and is too costly to order through the
    CDC
    C. The CDC does not have adequate supplies to diagnose individuals with specimens of the Naegleria
    genus
    D. None of the above, this is an emergency and the patient’s sample should be immediately sent to the
    CDC
A

A. Turnaround time exceeds the necessary amount of time to treat and save the patient.

32
Q
32. How long is the turnaround time for a Bartonella test ordered through the CDC?
A. 5-8 business days
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 weeks
A

D. 6 weeks

33
Q
  1. Blood smears are NOT carried out by the CDC.
    True
    False
A

True

34
Q
  1. A young women comes back from visiting Asia where she ate a lot of seafood and seems to have
    tuberculosis- type disease and coughing up orange-brown flecks. What fluke might this women have?
    a. Clonorchis sinensis
    b. Paragonimus westermani
    c. Schistosoma mansoni
    d. Schistosoma japonicum
A

b. Paragonimus westermani

35
Q
  1. A mother brings her child into the doctor’s office due to a persistent rash after playing outside.
    The mother recalls removing a tick from her son’s leg, so the doctor suspects infection by Borrelia
    burgdorferi (Lyme disease). According to the CDC, which of the following tests can be used to identify B.
    burgdorferi?
    a. IgG Western blot
    b. skin biopsy of erythema migrans (EM) rash
    c. IgM Western blot
    d. IgG/IgM ELISA
    e. All of the above
A

e. All of the above

36
Q
Match what area-specific diagnostic test goes with what particular parasite.
[Blood] 1. Trypanosomes
[Skin] 2. Pinworms
[Urine] 3. Schistosoma haematobium
[Vaginal] 4. Trichomonas
[CSF] 5. Naegleria
[Eye] 6. Loa Loa
A
Match what area-specific diagnostic test goes with what particular parasite.
[Blood] 1. Trypanosomes
[Skin] 2. Pinworms
[Urine] 3. Schistosoma haematobium
[Vaginal] 4. Trichomonas
48
[CSF] 5. Naegleria
[Eye] 6. Loa Loa
37
Q
  1. You suspect that your patient has a protozoan infection given their symptoms, but you are unsure
    of how to proceed in terms of what lab tests to have done to their fecal samples. You ask a colleague
    for their opinion on what to do, and he recommends using a Kato thick smear test to see if there are
    protozoa in the patient’s fecal matter. Is this the correct way to proceed?
    a. NO: Kato thick smear was meant only to test for helminth eggs, and not for protozoa eggs.
    b. NO: Kato thick smear can detect protozoa, but it was not always 100% accurate in testing for them
    c. YES: Kato thick smear was meant only to test for protozoa, and has high reliability in detecting them
    d. YES: Kato thick smear was a reliable test for detecting any parasite in fecal matter
A

a. NO: Kato thick smear was meant only to test for helminth eggs, and not for protozoa eggs.

38
Q
  1. Match the correct parasite detection method with its definition.
    [Direct saline smear] 1. Fecal sample placed on a saline drop and then spread out. Coverslip mounted
    and slide examined under microscope.
    [Kato thick smear] 2. Fecal sample spread on glycerine-malachite green-soaked wettable cellophane.
    Upon clearing of cellophane, eggs will become visible
    [Sedimentation] 3. In water; formalin/ether
    [Flotation] 4. Use of brine (saturated NaCl)
A
  1. Match the correct parasite detection method with its definition.
    [Direct saline smear] 1. Fecal sample placed on a saline drop and then spread out. Coverslip mounted
    and slide examined under microscope.
    [Kato thick smear] 2. Fecal sample spread on glycerine-malachite green-soaked wettable cellophane.
    Upon clearing of cellophane, eggs will become visible
    [Sedimentation] 3. In water; formalin/ether
    [Flotation] 4. Use of brine (saturated NaCl)
39
Q
39. Sampling of which of the following would be taken for the initial testing for a patient suspected of
having Naegleria fowleri?
a. Cerebrospinal fluid
b. blood
c. vaginal fluid
d. saliva
A

a. Cerebrospinal fluid

40
Q
  1. A man returns from a long vacation in the tropics, where he was fed on by several mosquitos. For
    a few days he was asymptomatic, but then began developing a fever and chills, as well as lymph nodes
    that were inflamed and painful. Still he ignored the symptoms, and after a while he began exhibiting
    edema in his legs. Because the possible causation of these symptoms were Wucheria bancrofti, when
    would be the optimal time to take a blood smear to find the parasites?
    a. at night, from 8 PM to 12 AM
    b. at night, from 9 PM to 3 AM
    c. during the daytime hours, from 12 PM to 4 PM
    d. during the daytime hours, from 8 AM to 2 PM
A

b. at night, from 9 PM to 3 AM

41
Q
  1. Sammy, a 5 year old girl living in the tropics, was rushed to the hospital due to fever and obstructive
    appendicitis. Sammy has recently been caught eating dirt around the pig farm near her house. Ascaris
    lumbricoides parasite seems to be the cause of Sammy’s symptoms. Which of the following clinical tests
    can diagnose or identify Ascaris lumbricoides?
    a. Egg count, Ascaris lumbricoides produces up to 200,000 eggs/day
    49
    b. Identification of eggs in feces
    c. Visualization of elongated fertilized eggs
    d. Visualization of ovoidal unfertilized eggs
    e. a and b
    f. c and d
A

e. a and b

42
Q
  1. In the case of perianal itching, cellophane technique is performed to determine a possible pinworm
    infection. How does this technique work?
    a. Adult worms scratch the surface of the tape
    b. Adult worms stick to the surface of the tape
    c. Eggs stick to the surface of the tape
    d. Eggs scratch the surface of the tape
A

c. Eggs stick to the surface of the tape

43
Q
  1. For Brugia and Wuchereria infections, an accurate identification of microfilariae in blood is
    important in determining whether the patient has the infection or not. Which of the following stains the
    blood smear during thick blood smear laboratory tests?
    a.OsO4
    b. hematoxylin
    c. Geisha
    d. Ivermectin
    e. Diethycarbamazine
A

b. hematoxylin

44
Q
44. For chronically infected patients with Trypanosoma cruzi, which of the following immunoglobulins
are detected in a serological test?
a. anti-parasite IgM
b. anti-parasite IgG
c. anti-parasite IgA
d. anti-parasite IgE
e. All of the above
A

b. anti-parasite IgG

45
Q
45. Xenodiagnosis raises \_\_\_\_\_\_ to feed on patient blood or patient. Which of the following is the
disadvantage of this method?
a. mice, it takes too long
b. mice, it is too costly and unreliable
c. bugs, it takes too long.
d. bugs, it is too costly and unreliable
e. All of the above
A

c. bugs, it takes too long.

46
Q
  1. A patient previously diagnosed with amoebic colitis. His physician sent a stool sample fixed with
    Formalin into the CDC to test for Entamoeba histolytica. This test came back negative. Why?
    a. The diagnosis is wrong
    b. the most effective test for E. histolytica requires a CSF sample
    c. the most effective test for E. histolytica requires an unpreserved stool sample.
    d. Formalin is not an effective sample preservative. LC-PVA should be used instead
A

c. the most effective test for E. histolytica requires an unpreserved stool sample.

47
Q
  1. Which of the following could be used to identify Giardia lamblia?
    a. Stool microscopy
    b. String test
    c. Antigen assay
    d. Nucleic acid amplification
    e. all of the above
A

e. all of the above

48
Q
  1. Which of the following species of Schistosoma can infect humans?
    a. S. bovis
    b. S. margrebowiei
    c. S. japonicum
    d. S. currasoni
A

c. S. japonicum

49
Q
  1. What is the incubation period of Alveolar Echinococcosis?
    a. 1-2 days
    b. 5-15 years
    c. 7-8 weeks
    d. 3-4 years
A

b. 5-15 years

50
Q
  1. What are the treatment options for Alveolar Echinococcosis?
    a. Surgery
    b. Albendazole
    c. Chemotherapy
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

51
Q
  1. The presence of eosinophilia in the patient exclusively indicates which of the following
    conditions in the patient:
    a. viral infection
    b. allergic illness
    c. parasitic infection
    d. Any of the above - eosinophilia is not specific for any particular infection
A

d. Any of the above - eosinophilia is not specific for any particular infection

52
Q
  1. Which of the following individuals are most likely to suffer from an episode of Fascioliasis?
    a. A twenty-one year old female living in the United States
    b. A seventy-six year old male on vacation in Nairobi
    c. A fifty year old male traveling through Europe
    d. All of the above individuals have similar risk
A

d. All of the above individuals have similar risk

53
Q
  1. What is one way we can differentiate between C. philippinensis and C. hepatica?
    a. . C. hepatica causes hepatitis
    b. C. philippinensis causes hepatitis
    c. C. philippinensis causes diarrhea
    d. C. hepatica causes diarrhea
A

a.. C. hepatica causes hepatitis