PROFESSIONALISM Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Human Tissue Act 2004 do?

A

It regulates the removal, storage and use of human tissues for research, pt treatment, post-mortem examination, anatomical examination, surgical training and display in public

Its primary aim is to ensure that these activities are conducted with proper consent, respect for the individual, and regard for public health and safety.

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2
Q

What are the rules with taking material from the deceased under the HTA?

A

Consent can be given from the individual whilst they are alive and have capacity to consent
If the individual did not indicate this then those close to them can be asked whether a nominated representative was appointed. If not then a person in a qualifying relationship can make the decision

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3
Q

What is the Human Tissue Authority?

A

The independant regulatory body that oversees compliance with the Human Tissue Act

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4
Q

Ethical issues surrounding the use of human tissue

A

Informed consent
Respect for autonomy, dignity
Cultural considerations
Confidentiality and data protection

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5
Q

What are independant assessors for organ donation?

A

These are people that gather information about the donor and recipient during a statutory interview and submits their report to the HTA who will make the final decisions to go ahead with the donation

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6
Q

What is the purpose of independent assessors?

A

To prevent donors being forced against their will or coerced
That no reward has been offered
That the donor has capacity to make an ifnromed decision

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7
Q

What are the conditions for the living donor?

A

Donor is competent and over 18
Risk to donor is low - may be to do with comorbidities or smoking etc
Decisions are fully informed
Decision must be voluntary and not coerced or incentivised
Transplant must have a good chance of a successful outcome

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8
Q

What are directed and non-directed organ donations?

A

Directed Donation is when the donor names a specific person who will receive the kidney. It is the most common type of living donation. Directed donations are often between blood relatives, like parents, siblings, or children. They can also happen between people with close personal relationships, such as a spouse, friend, or coworker.
Non-directed donation is when a person donates anonymously to someone in need. They usually do not have any kind of relationship with the person who gets their donated kidney. Other names for a non-directed donor include an altruistic or “good Samaritan” donor.

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9
Q

What is taken into consideration when transplantation decisions made?

A

Urgency status
Blood group and HLA matching
Weight and height of donor compared to recipient
Geography
How long pts have waited for
Life expectancy - note age itself should not be used to restrict transplantations according to the Age Discrimination Act 1975

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10
Q

Who manages blood and transplantation services to the UK?

A

NHS Blood and Transplant

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11
Q

What is Donation after Circulatory Deatg?

A

The retrieval of organs for the purpose of transplantation from patients whose death is diagnosed and confirmed using cardio-respiratory criteria

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12
Q

What are controlled and uncontrolled Donation after Circulatory death?

A

Uncontrolled - organ retrieval after a cardiac arrest that is unexpectated and from which the pt cannot or should not be resuscitated

Controlled - after a death which follows the planned withdrawal of life-sustaining treatments that have been considered to be of no overall benefit to a critically ill pt on ICU or in ED

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13
Q

What is donation after Brainstem Death?

A

This is retrieval of organs from patients whose death has been confirmed using neurological criteria where Brian injury is suspected to have cause irreversible loss of the capacity for consciousness and respiration before terminal apnoea has resulted in hypoxic cardiac arrest and circulatory standstill i.e. only possible in pts on mechanical ventilation
These organs are usually in better condition than DCD!

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14
Q

Allocation process for donation after circulatory death and donation after brainstem death?

A

DCD - typically allocated regionally to reduce time between organ retrieval and transplantation = improves success rates
DBD - typically allocated nationally via the National Allocation Scheme = allows organs to be matched with the most suitable recipients across the country’s

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15
Q

Law on organ donation in the UK?

A

Since March 2020 England operated under an opt-out system known as “deemed consent” or “Max and Keiras law”
Note if you do not opt out then the family is always involved before donation takes place
If someone is under 18 then the family will be asked to make the decision and provide consent. Other people excluded are those who lack the mental capacity to understand the changes for a significant period before their death and those who have not loved in England for at least 12 months before their death

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16
Q

Why was it important for the UK to change to an opt-out organ donation system?

A

80% of people in ENgland support organ donation but only 38% had opted in so families were often left with a difficult decision when a loved one died
There is a shortage of donors and last year 408 pts died on the transplant waiting list - aim to increase organ donation numbers
There are over 5000 people waiting on the organ transplant list

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17
Q

ethics of opt in vs opt out organ donation

A

Opt in system respected autonomy by requiring explicit consent whereas opt-out is presumed consent
Opt-in system may lead to lower donation rates due to lack of awareness or encouragement which can limit the number of organs. Opt-out systems tend to increase organ donation rates which can save more lives (promotes beneficence)
Issues with family members decisions conflicting with the individual’s stated wishes
For the opt-out system to work ethically it requires high levels of public awareness and education. It must ensure it does not disproportionately affect certain groups e.g. some groups of people may have limited access to information
The opt-out system can challenge public trust if they perceive it as infringing on personal freedom
Opt-out system can overcome many traditional barriers to organ donation e.g. lack of education or transplant awareness

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18
Q

What is a deductive argument?

A

An argument where the conclusion logically follows from the premise is.e. If the premises are true then the conclusion must also be true
“All humans are mortal. Socrates is human. Therefore, Socrates is mortal”

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19
Q

What is an inductive argument?

A

An argument where the conclusion is likely to be true if the premises are true but it is not garunteed
“Most Greeks eat olives. Socrates is a Greek. Therefore Socrates eats olives”

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20
Q

What make an argument valid?

A

If all of its premises were true then the conclusion would have to be true
(The conclusion must follow on from the premise and its impossible for the conclusion to be false if the premises are true)

Note that validity says nothing about whether or not any of the premises are true - it’s more about the form of an argument than the truth of the argument

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21
Q

What make an argument sound?

A

When it is valid AND all the premises are true

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22
Q

What is the straw man fallacy?

A

the logical fallacy of distorting an opposing position into an extreme version of itself and then arguing against that extreme version. In creating a straw man argument, the arguer strips the opposing point of view of any nuance and often misrepresents it in a negative light.

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23
Q

What is the Ad hominem fallacy?

A

argumentative strategies that involve criticizing an opponent’s character, motive, background, or other personal attributes instead of their argument’s content.

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24
Q

What is the appealing to emotion fallacy?

A

An informal fallacy characterized by the manipulation of the recipient’s emotions in order to win an argument, especially in the absence of factual evidence.

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25
Q

What is the begging the question fallacy?

A

an informal fallacy that occurs when an argument’s premises assume the truth of the conclusion

“People have known for thousands of years that the earth is round. Therefore, the earth is round.”

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26
Q

What is the argument from fallacy?

A

The formal fallacy of analyzing an argument and inferring that, since it contains a fallacy, its conclusion must be false

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27
Q

How do you check if an argument is valid?

A
  1. Check whether it is possible for the premises to be true while the conclusion is false -> if not possible the argument is valid
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28
Q

How do you check if an argument is sound?

A
  1. Check its valid: is it impossible for the premises to be true whilst the conclusion is false?
  2. Assess whether the premises are true
    If both conditions met then argument is sound
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29
Q

What is a red herring?

A

An attempt to shift focus from the debate at hand by introducing an irrelevant point

30
Q

What is equivocation?

A

a statement crafted to mislead or confuse readers or listeners by using multiple meanings or interpretations of a word or simply through unclear phrasing.

31
Q

What is the slippery slope fallacy?

A

the arguer claims a specific series of events will follow one starting point, typically with no supporting evidence for this chain of events.
E.g if we make an exception for Jo’s service dog, then other people will want to bring their dogs and before you know it the restaurant will be overrun with dogs and nobody will eat here anymore

32
Q

What is a hasty generalisation?

A

a statement made after considering just one or a few examples rather than relying on more extensive research to back up the claim

I felt nauseated both times I ate pizza from Georgio’s, so I must be allergic to something in pizza.

33
Q

What is an appeal to authority?

A

the arguer claims an authority figure’s expertise to support a claim despite this expertise being irrelevant or overstated.
E.g. if you want to be healthy you need to stop drinking coffee. I read it on a fitness blog

34
Q

What is a false dilemma or false dichotomy?

A

claims there are only two options in a given situation. Often, these two options are extreme opposites of each other, failing to acknowledge that other, more reasonable, options exist.

Example: If you don’t support my decision, you were never really my friend.

35
Q

What is the Bandwagon fallacy?

A

the arguer claims that a certain action is the right thing to do because it’s popular.

Example: Of course it’s fine to wait until the last minute to write your paper. Everybody does it!

36
Q

What is an appeal to ignorance?

A

a claim that something must be true because it hasn’t been proven false. It can also be a claim that something must be false because it hasn’t been proven true. This is also known as the burden of proof fallacy.

37
Q

What are human factors?

A

All of the factors that can influence the behaviour and performance of human beings in a system
It allows us to understand how people perform under different circumstances and why errors happen

38
Q

What are the human factors ‘dirty dozen’?

A

The 12 most common factors that can influence HCP and lead to mistakes and errors:
Communication
Distraction
Lack of resources
Stress
Complacency
Lack of teamwork
Pressure
Situational awareness
Lack of knowledge
Fatigue
Lack of assertiveness
Cultural norms “the way we do things around here”

39
Q

Why is it important to understand human factors?

A

Allows us to understand why we make errors
It improves the safety culture within teams and organisation
It enhances teamwork and communication
It identifies what went wrong
It helps us predict what could go wrong in the future
It improves the design of the system we work in

40
Q

What are the main characteristics of a safety culture?

A

Open - staff feels comfortable to discuss pt safety issues and raise concerns
Just - everyone is treated fairly
Reporting - staff feel able and confident to report incidents and near misses
Learning - learn from safety lessons
Informed - trust learns from previous experience and works hard to mitigate future harm

41
Q

What are some ways that understanding human factors is used?

A

Investigating incidents
Simulation training

42
Q

What is the human rights act 1998?

A

An act that sets out the fundamental rights and freedoms that everyone in the UK is entitled to

43
Q

Who needs to follow the human rights act?

A

All public authorities e.g. police, NHS empliyees, prisons, courts, etc
(Private companies and individuals do not need to follow it!)

44
Q

What is article 2 under the human rights act? And give an example

A

Right to life e.g. hospital has a duty to protect a pts life if they tried to commit suicide so they must make sure there are no areas in the room which would support a noose, its on ground floer etc

45
Q

What is article 3 under the human rights act? And give an example

A

Prohibition of torture and inhumane or degrading treatment
E.g. pt strapped into wheelchair to prevent them from leaving the hospital or a pt who could not lift themself up and the staff were leaving trays of food without helping

46
Q

What are limited rights? Give an example

A

Rights that can only be restricted in specific situations set out in the Human Rights Act e.g. article 5 says its not a breach of your right to personal freedom if you are detained following a criminal conviction or under mental health legislation and the correct procedure was followed

47
Q

Examples of absolute human rights?

A

Article 2, 3, 6

48
Q

Examples of limited human rights?

A

Article 5 and 14

49
Q

What is article 5?

A

The right to liberty and security i.e. the right to move around as you please and not be locked in a room

50
Q

What are the conditions for limit someone’s right to liberty and security?

A

It must be done lawfully
There must be safegaurds so you can challenge whether it is lawful or not to deprive you of your liberty

51
Q

What is article 6?

A

The right to a fair trial i.e everyone sectioned has the right to a mental health review tribunal hearing

52
Q

What are qualified rights?

A

When a public authority can interfere with your rights if its in the interest of the wider community or to protect other peoples rights

53
Q

What human rights are qualified rights?

A

Article 8, 9, 10, 11

54
Q

In what situations can you be treated without consent?

A

If you are sectioned under some sections of the MHA
If you dont have capacity to decide whether to have treatment (2, 3, 36, 37, 38, 47, 48, 45A), and the treatment is in your best interests

You can always refuse treatment provided you have capacity when you live in the community without restrictions or are in the hospital as a voluntary pt

55
Q

Can you be given ECT without consent?

A

Only if a Second Opinion Appointed Doctor confirms you lack capacity to consent and its appropriate to be given
Or if its needed immediately to save your life or stop the condition from getting a lot worse

56
Q

What is a SOAD

A

A second opinion appointed doctor
An independant doctor appointed by the Care Quality Commision in England that can check whether the Tx is appropriate and your views and rights have been considered

57
Q

What is a Community Treatment Order?

A

You are discharged from the section and can leave the hopsital but you may have to meet certain conditions e.g. living in a certain place or going somewhere for medical treatment

58
Q

What is Seni’s law?

A

A new law to prevent the use of force in mental health settings
It includes the fact that any force used to restrain a pt must comply with the Human Rights Act 1998

The law says that, in situations where you can lawfully be given treatment for your mental health problem without your consent, then you can also be lawfully restrained in order to give you that treatment.

59
Q

Ethical dilemmas associated with compulsory detention or treatment under the mental health act UK?

A

Autonomy vs beneficence
Risk of misuse and abuse
Discrimination and stigma. Can reinforce societal stigma around mental health, creating a barrier for those seeking help
Deprivation of human rights and liberty
Infringes upon a persons right to informedconset
Use of restrain and coercion

60
Q

What is a deprivation of liberty?

A

This is to be replaced by Liberty Protection Safegaurds
It means a person is not fee to go anywhere without permission or close supervision and you are continuously supervised
This should only be used if its the least restrictive way of keeping you safe or ensuring you have the right medical treatment

61
Q

Who monitors deprivations of liberty?

A

Care Quality Commission

62
Q

What are the key elements that must be considered for a DoLS?

A

Is it in their best interested
Is it necessary and unavoidable i.e has every effort been made to prevent it from becoming necessary
Is it the least restrictive way?
Are they 18? Do they lack capacity to agree to the restrictions

63
Q

When can court of protection be used to lawfully deprive a person of their liberty?

A

if:

You’re age 16 or over
You lack capacity to agree to the restrictions
You live at home, in supported accommodation or in a shared lives placement
You’re in a care home or hospital but there’s a dispute over your placement there

64
Q

How can a person challenge a DoLS?

A

They can ask for a review of the authorisation or appeal to the court of protection

65
Q

Where can a DoLS be used?

A

Only in a care home or a hospital
If you’re deprived of your liberty anywhere else, an application must be made to the Coirt of Protection

66
Q

Why are cancer MDTs important?

A

Considered the gold standard for cancer pt management
As modern management involves many disciplines and allied heath professionals
An MDT streamlines and coordinates care so that it is not fragmented over several sites
Leads to better outcomes
Allows for continuity of care and reducing variation
Brings together a variety of specialists = holistic approach to pt care
Improved diagnosis and Tx planning
Enhanced communication and coordination
Pt-centred

67
Q

Whats the purpose of MDT meetings?

A

To discuss new diagnoses
To decide on management plans and inform primary care
To develop guidelines and ensure treatment aligns with guidelines
To designate specialist nurses to a pt
Education and professional development
Audit - identifies areas of r improvements

68
Q

Members of the community mental health team?

A

Psychiatrist
Community psychiatric nurse
Occupational therapist
Social worker
Clinical psychologist
Primary health care worker
Team manager
Other specialists e.g. art

69
Q

MDT in rehabilitation?

A

Neurologists
Specialist nurses
OT
PT
SALT
Dietician
Clinical neuropsychologists
Stroke liaison sister
Care navigator
Clinical psychologist or counsellor
Dietician

70
Q

What is needed for an MDT to be effective?

A

Clear roles and purpose
Diverse expertise
Strong leadership
Open communciattion
Structured process
Supportive environment evaluation and feedback