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Q Flashcards

1
Q

Edwards syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18

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2
Q

Patau syndrome

A

Trisomy 13

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3
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

45X

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4
Q

Klinefelter syndrome?

A

47XXY

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5
Q

Malaria is caused by what organism?

A

Protozoa

Plasmodium falciparum

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6
Q

3 types of Helminths
1- segmented and flat
2- unsegmented and flat
3- Round worms

A

1-Cestodes
2- Trematodes
3- Nematodes

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7
Q

Bioavailability is….

A

The fraction/percent of an administer dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systematic circulation

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8
Q

o Changes in plasma protein binding is significant for drugs which are greater than 90% bound to plasma proteins.

A

Just a statement!

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9
Q

Are preganglionic fibres myelinated?

A

YES

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10
Q

What are M1, M3 and M5 receptors coupled to the activation of?

A

Phospholipase C–> IP2 and DAG

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11
Q

M2 and M4 are coupled to…

A

adrenyl cyclase but -vely

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12
Q

Propranol blocks…

A

B1 and B2 equaly

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13
Q

Atenolol is selective for….

A

B1

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14
Q

How do NSAIDS work?

A

o Inhibit the formation of prostaglandins responsible for modulating inflammation

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15
Q

Beta Lactam antioboitics…?

A

Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis

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16
Q

In pharmacology what is ‘ceiling’?

A

The lowest dose that produces a maximal effect

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17
Q

What are the 3 stages of the ‘fertilisation age’?

A

Early stage development period= 0- 2 weeks
Organogenesis period= 3- 8 weeks
Foetal period= 9 weeks- birth

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18
Q

TORCH?

A 
T-toxoplasmosis= parasite
O-ther
R-ubella
C-ytomegalovirus
H-erpes type 2
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19
Q

What is the zona pellucida?

A

Protective barrier around the oocyte. Also prevents the cells from getting larger when the zygote is divinding

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20
Q

When does Morula–> Blastocyst occur?

A

When Morula (16-32 cells) develops a fluid filled cavity

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21
Q

Trophoblasts is made up of…?

A

-Syncytiophoblast and cytotrophoblast

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22
Q

Embryoblasts is made up of..?

A

Hypoblast and epiblast

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23
Q

Full implanation on day___?

A

9

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24
Q

Trophoblastic lacuna is….

A

Holes the syncytiotrophblasts case.

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25
Q

Chorionic cavity forms from the extra embryonic mesoderm

A

:)

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26
Q

What is a hydatidiform mole?

A

The development of the trophoblast without any embryonic tissue

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27
Q

What forms the difinitive endoderm?

A

When the hypoblast is replaced by epiblast cells.

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28
Q

Sirenomelia?

A

Mermaid syndrome formed by insufficient mesoderm in caudal region

29
Q

Sacrococygeal teratoma?

A

Too much mesoderm

30
Q

2 roles of the notochordal process?

A
  • Initiates neurulation

- Initiates and organsises the formation of vertebrae from somites

31
Q

Difference between Class I and Class II MHC?

A

Class I: advertise whats going on inside of the cell

Class II MHS: present antigens to T helper cells

32
Q

What initiated the Lectin pathway?

A

Bacterial sugars

33
Q

What causes the macrophages to become ‘hyperactive’?

A

Cytokines: TNF and IL-1

34
Q

Role of IgA?

A

Protect mucousal surfaces

35
Q

B cells change their Fc region and Fab region by…?

A 
Fc= class switching
Fab= hypermutation
36
Q

Axons…..

A

transfer signals away from the cell body

37
Q

CNS has the following cells:

  • Ependymal cells
  • Oligodendrocytes
  • Astrocytes
  • Microglia
A
  • Ependymal cells: line and have cilia
  • Oligodendrocytes: myelinated axons
  • Astrocytes: star cells, involved in metabolic exchange
  • Microglia: immune defence
38
Q

Nodes of Ranvier

A

Only part in a myelinated fibre which allows AP to ‘jump’

39
Q

What is sensory transduction?

A

Conversion of environmental signals to electrochemical signals

40
Q

Muscle spindle?

A

Sensory receptors within a muscle that detects changes in the length of the ,muscle.
Stretched= activated

41
Q

Electrical synapse is formed by….?

A

Interlocking connexon channels

42
Q

Difference between inotropic receptor and a metabotrophic receptor?

A 
Inotropic= cluster of similar sub units
Metabotrophic= 7- transmembrane molecules that are often couped to an intercellular protein (e.g. GPCR)
43
Q

Conentric contraction?

Eccentric contraction?

A 
CON= muscle shortens
ECCEN= muscle lengthens
44
Q

Which type of muscle is white, due to myoglobin, and fatigues easily?

A

Type IIb

45
Q

Whats the function of the ANTERIOR pituitary gland?

A 
Produces hormones 
(Posterior = stores)
46
Q

Whats the test done to test for UNDER secretion?

A

Stimulation test

Static test= test for oversecretion

47
Q

To test for GH deficiency?

A

Test with glycagon stimulation test OR insulin stress test

48
Q

What are the three stop codons?

A

UAA, UAG and UGA

49
Q

What is it called when something is secreted when the whole cell disintegrates and is pinches off?

A

Holocrine

different to Merocrine and Apocrine

50
Q

Eosinophil look like?

A

Bi-lobed nucleus with a granular cytoplasm

51
Q

Lymphocyte look like?

A

Large round nucleus, little cytoplasm

52
Q

Neutrophil look like?

A

SMILEY FACE!

53
Q

Affect of competitive inhibitor on Vmax and Km?

A 
Vmax= unchanged
Kmax= increases
54
Q

Affect of uncompetitive inhibitor on Vmax and Km?

A 
Vmax= decreases
Kmax= unchanged
55
Q

Where is the HM3 form of lactate dehyrogenase found?

A

Kidneys and Pancreas

=LDH4

56
Q

What is a O-linked sugar?

A

Attatched to thge hydroxyl group of serine or threonine

57
Q

How do statins lower cholesterol?

A

They inhibit HMG CoA reductase, therefore reduces mevalonate and therefore also lowers cholesterol synthesis.

58
Q

What does the lectin pathway activate?

A

C2 and C4

59
Q

What causes Graves disease?

A

Uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

60
Q

Difference between Th1 and Th2 cytokines?

A 
Th1= activate cell mediated immunity
Th2= responsible for antibody production
61
Q

What does the mesoderm go on to form?

A

Bones, skeletal muscle and internal organs

62
Q

What is meningocele?

A

When a menges sac, filled with cerebrospinal fluid forms outside the vertebrae

63
Q

What causes rachischisis?

A

Failure of the posterior neuropore to fuse

64
Q

What is neurofibromatosis?

A

General name for a condition which causes tumours to grow along your nerves.
It is caused by abnormal neural crest cell development

65
Q

What do Alpha 1 GPCR receptors activate?

A

Alpha 1 = Activate phospholipase C = IP3 + DAG

o Vasoconstriction
o Relaxation of GI smooth muscle
o Salivary secretion
o Hepatic glycogenolysis

66
Q

Where are the main types of adrenergic receptors found?

A
  • Types of adrenergic receptor
    Beta 1 – mainly on heart
    Beta 2 – mainly on bronchioles (beta 2 receptor agonist e.g. salbutamol)
    Alpha – mainly on blood vessels
67
Q

What is ED50?

A
  • ED50: dose that produces a 50% of maximum response
68
Q

What does the adrenal cortex produce?

A

Corticosteroids & androgens

cortisol & aldosterone & male hormones

69
Q

What produces catecholamines?

A

The adrenal medulla

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