Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

300 Question Bank/Study Guide 2018 > Question Bank > Flashcards

Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

When must you hold short of the ILS Critical Hold Line?

A

When instructed by ATC or during Cat II approach operations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which airplane category is applied to the CL300 for approach minimums?

A

Category C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the operational procedure when crossing runways?

A

All exterior Lights on. (Meets FAA Notice 8700.30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who must verify runway or departure changes prior to takeoff?

A

Both crewmembers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Is the use of baro VNAV allowed?

A

Yes, as long as you have the service bulletin.

currently only 4 planes do not 1/19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

On the audio control panel, what is the EMER switch for?

A

Bypasses the ACP and routes audio directly to the headset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

On the FMS6200(CL350), after the IRS aligns does an FMS position initialization(POS INIT)need to be set?

A

No - obtains position set from the IRS alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Can we use the SVS for navigation?

A

No - advisory only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What RNAV approach minimums are authorized with SBAS(WAAS) unavailable?

A

LNAV/VNAV - (with VNAV still available)

LNAV only - (without VNAV available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does RNP stand for?

A

Required Navigational Performance… RNP airspace error from FMS should be less than RNP value 95% of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What indication do we get when a comm radio has failed?

A

Amber frequencies on the CDU and MFD tuning column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What indications do we get when a NAV radio has failed?

A

Amber frequencies on the CDU and MFD tuning column, CDI needle is missing on HSI nav display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What indications do we get when the ELT is on?

A

ELT ON white status message, External “Buzzing”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How can we erase the CVR?

A

Hyd system powered, Parking brake set, Push and hold CVR erase button for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which airplane category is applied to the CL300 for approach minimums?

A

Category C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What RNAV approach minimums are authorized with SBAS(WAAS) unavailable?

LPV?
LNAV?
LNAV/VNAV?

A

LNAV/VNAV - (with VNAV still available)

LNAV only - (without VNAV available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where do we find deferal information for a missing static discharger?

A

AFM appendix - Configuration Deviation List(CDL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where do we find the GO/NO-GO list for CAS messages?

A

QRH Volume 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can we depart with the nose wheel steering inoperative?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you adjust the standby instruments lighting?

A

+/- in the ISI bezel, or the MFD lighting knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which (exterior)lights will not illuminate if the LG is not down and locked?

A

The nose landing and taxi lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The secondary navigation light is selected on the?

A

Right Avionics Rack Circuit Breaker Panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The cabin entry/exit door light switch is powered by:

A

Left Battery Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What powers the emergency lights?

A

Two Independent Rechargeable Battery Packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If power to the standby instruments light normal source is lost (left main bus) standby lights are automatically switched to which bus?

A

Right Essential Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Power is normally supplied to the standby instrument lighting by which bus?

A

Left Main Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Emergency lighting will last a minimum of how many minutes?

A

15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What advisory is displayed when the Emergency lights are on?

A

EMER LIGHTS amber CAS message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When armed when do the emergency lights come on automatically?

A

When power to the Right Main Bus is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Where is the Therapeutic oxygen port?

A

Right side cabin wall behind the VIP seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where do we find the Oxygen Duration Tables for preflight planning?

A

QRH vol 1 has O2 duration tables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where is the black medical kit / AED?

A

In the Lav under the sink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is the first aid kit located?

A

Front crew closet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Emergency equipment on board?

11

A 
Goggles
first aid kit(blue)
large medical kit(black)
AED
crash axe
fire extinguisher
flashlights
life vests
life rafts
oxygen masks
PBE’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Oxygen masks are not recommended above what altitude?

A

40,000 ft cabin altitude for the crew and 25,000 ft cabin altitude for the passengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Crew oxygen masks deliver 100% oxygen above what cabin altitude?

A

35,000 feet - cabin altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Oxygen servicing port is where? What does the gauge read when full?

A

Right side fuselage just in front of the engine……1850 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where is the Oxygen overboard discharge indicator?

A

Right fuselage, above the lav servicing door.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the selectable modes for passenger oxygen mask deployment and what is the difference between them?

A

OFF, AUTO, MANUAL
—-AUTO uses the EPAV for distribution
—-MANUAL mode expells the O2 at a set rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Oxygen distribution is controlled by what?

A

EPAV(Electric Pneumatic Actuating Valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where are the oxygen bottles and the EPAV located?

Electric Pneumatic Actuating Valve

A

Behind the Lav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 3 selectable modes on the crew oxy masks?

A

Norm, 100%, Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

PBE oxygen is available for how long?

A

About 15 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How many PBE’s are installed? Where?

A

2 - One in the cockpit behind the captains seat, other above the lav seat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

At what cabin altitude do the Passenger Oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

14500 ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How is the pitot/static system heated?

A

Electrically through the L/R Probe switches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many Pitot tubes are there?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Where are the standby static ports?

A

Each side of the cockpit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the primary function of the APU?

A

Starting engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the APU fuel burn?

A

150 lbs per hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Is there an external APU shutoff?

A

Yes, External Power Control Panel below the right engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

APU gets fuel from where?

A

Right collector tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is fuel fed to the APU?

A

Right fuel pump until RT engine is running, then ejector pump supplies the fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

You are being de-iced prior to departure. What must you consider?

A

De-icing with the APU running is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Prior to starting the APU you should ensure what minimum battery voltage?

A

20.5 volts ***(Flexjet CFM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does the APU provide us with?

A

Bleed air for air conditioning, pressurization, engine start and DC Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many fire bottles are dedicated to the APU?

A

One; the number two bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Is the APU fire protection system automated while on the ground?

A

Yes it will shutdown and discharge the number two bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Can the APU be operated with the APU generator inoperative?

A

Yes per the MEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What happens with the batteries when starting the APU?

R/L batteries?

A

The Right battery PBA shows off and is powering only the APU starter.

The Left battery is
powering the rest of the aircraft including the start logic for the APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What APU is installed?

A

Honeywell 36-150BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What approaches are approved using the ISI for navigation?

A

ILS or LOC only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of approaches cannot be flown on the ISI?

A

Back Course approaches are prohibited.

The ISI is not capable of performing NDB, VOR, or
FMS approaches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where does the ISI get its air data and attitude reference?

A

From a dedicated ADC and AHRS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How long is the ISI powered after generator power is lost?

A

3.5 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

AHRS takes how long to initialize on the ground?

A

40 seconds in MAG mode

4.5 minutes in HDG mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In the event of a Left MFD failure where does the EICAS auto transfer to?

A

3 AFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the indications of a single AHRS / IRS failure and can the data be retrieved?

A

A red boxed attitude flag “ATT” and /or a red boxed heading flag “HDG”

Data can be retrieved using the reversion panel - “ATT/HDG” Switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the indications of a single ADC failure and can the data be retrieved?

A

Red air data flags will appear for invalid airspeed, altitude, or vertical speed;

The data can be retrieved using the reversion panel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In the event the Left PFD were to fail can the information be reverted or compressed and if so how do you do it?

A

Yes; by using the reversion panel and selecting Left Displays to MFD REV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

You are taxiing for take off and you get a HDG Comparator that will not correct. Can you depart?

A

Possibly, refer to the QRH Vol 1 supplemental section for checklist guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When flying in RNP airspace, the position error should be less than the RNP value what percentage of the time?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How can we tune the radios?

A

Either CDU, either MFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How do you accurately read the standby compass?

A

Turn the Windshield/Window heat off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Where are maintenance interphone panels located?

A

Left hand side nose compartment area and Aft equipment bay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How are the SVS and FPV selected on or off?

A

REFS page #2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which primary flight controls are hydraulic?

A

Elevators. Rudder, Roll Spoilers(MFS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

In a R and L hydraulic failure condition, how are the elevators and rudder operated?

A

Elevator - Manual Reversion(cables)through PCU’s.

Rudder – Lower rudder PCU via the Aux Hydraulic pump.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Is the yaw damper active on the ground?

A

Yes, up til 60 knots where it is disabled (landing) then re-enabled with weight off wheels (takeoff)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Is there a trim tab on the rudder?

A

No, the rudder surface is deflected directly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Ground spoilers are available when?

A

Switch is Auto or Manual Arm with TL’s at IDLE and 2 of 3 :

1) WOW
2) radar alt. less than 7ft
3) wheel speed is above 16 knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The stick pusher can be disabled 4 ways?

A

1) MSW
2) Stall Push off
3) CB1 labeled PUSHER
4) Windshear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Maximum altitude with the YD off?

A

31,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How do you turn off the roll spoilers?

A

By selecting the Roll Spoilers PBA to OFF.

as directed by the checklist for a Roll Control Jam on the Captains side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When the roll disconnect is activated who controls the roll spoilers and who controls the ailerons?

A

The pilot controls the roll spoilers and the co-pilot cotnrols the ailerons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The gust lock secures which controls?

A

Only the Ailerons and Thrust Levers

PCU’s trap pressure for elevator and rudder dampening for approximately 12 hrs after hyd pressure is removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What flight controls have trim tabs?

A

Aileron - left side only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What systems use primary trim? (3)

A

Autopilot, Configuration trim, and Mach trim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How does primary trim differ from secondary trim?

A

Primary trim is variable speed according to configuration/IAS.

Secondary trim constant .2°/ sec.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder travel limiter?

A

Restricts rudder movement as speed increases to avoid empanage damage or rudder failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many Ice Detector Probes are installed?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How many wing inspection lights are there?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Does the wing heat source switch automatically transfer to the operating engine in the event of an engine failure?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What surfaces are being heated by High Pressure Bleed air?

A

Wing leading edges and engine inlets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

With the updated ice detect probes (CL350 and CL300’s modified with SB 100-30-04), at what speed must the wing heat be on?

A

In icing conditions and the airspeed is less than 210 KIAS or the Ice Detected CAS message is On.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What happens to the wing anti-ice valves when electrical power is lost?

A

The valve is spring loaded to fail closed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What happens to the engine anti-ice valve when electrical power is lost?

A

The valve is spring loaded to fail open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which probes and sensors are heated electrically?

A

1) L/R Pitot/Static probes
2) L/R AOA
3) Stby pitot probe
4) L/R stby static ports
5) TAT probe(when weight off wheels)
6) windshield/windows
7) T2 sensors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When are the ice detect probes receiving DC power?

A

When the batteries are on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Amber “ICE DETECTED” CAS means what?

A

Ice is detected and 1 or more anti-ice systems are not on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

After being de-iced/anti-iced with Type 2,3,or 4, when do you turn on the wing anti-ice?

A

Just prior to setting TO power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What controls the anti-ice protection system?

A

Integrated Air System Controllers(IASC) 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which window is heated during Essential Power Only condition?

A

L. (side)Window only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Auto pilot uses which trim system?

A

Primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Flight directors operate independently of each other in which modes?

A

Takeoff, Go-Around, and Approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How many flight directors are installed?

Can we dispatch with less?

A

2

Can MEL the FD, supplement section of the AFM has guidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The minimum autopilot use height for climb, enroute, or descent is?

A

700 ft

For precision approach >3.5 80 ft <3.5 160 ft

For visual and non-precision approach? 200 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does pressing the MSW switch do?

A

Disengages autopilot.

Holding) Disables all trims and stall pusher (except on EASA aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How do you disconnect the torque motors to make small maneuvers without disconnecting the autopilot?

A

Depress and hold the Autopilot Synchronization Switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How is the AP manually disengaged? Automatically disengaged?

A

Manually—-Master Disconnect Switch (2), Auto Pilot and Yaw Damper Disconnect Lever (gangbar), Activating the Stab Trim (2), Pressing the AP button, Pressing the TOGA Switch (2), Pressing the YD button, Circuit Breakers.

Automatic—-Some System Faults, Stall Warning, excessive out of trim condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What altitude is 1/2 bank auto enabled?

Can you manually disable it?

A

31,600’

YES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How many modes of pressurization operation are there?

A

2 - “Auto” through the IASC’s

1 - “Manual” direct control of the outflow valve using rate knob (max. 3000 fpm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The temperature “Pull up/Pull down works under what conditions?

A

APU or Pnuematic cart, Air source – Normal, Temp mode-AUTO, Main cabin door not

114
Q

How is temp controlled in “Auto”?

In “Manual”?

A

Ventilated temp sensors in the cockpit and cabin input to the IASC’s to regulate set temperature.

Direct control through the IASC’s to regulate the temperature.

115
Q

How do you set landing altitude manually?

A

Landing Alt outer knob-MANUAL and inner knob to select the landing altitude in 20’ increments.

116
Q

Where do you find X-Bleed/External Air Cart start procedures?

A

QRH 1-Supplemental Section

117
Q

EMER DEPRESS button does what?

A

Cabin Depressurizes at 2,500 fpm to 14,000 in MANUAL mode. 3,000 fm to 14,500 in AUTO mode -OR- aircraft altitude, whichever is lower.

118
Q

Is the PACK cold or hot air?

A

Pack is COLD and HOT air. Trim air is HOT.

119
Q

What does Ram air do?

A

Provides cooling air to the heat exchangers and air for cabin ventilation at low altitudes (unpressurized).

120
Q

When does the DITCHING switch become active?

A

At 15,000’ the outflow valve opens and starts depressurizing the aircraft.

121
Q

When the START switch is selected what happens to the Flow Control Valves?

A

They automatically close to allow all air to be used for the ATS.

122
Q

What does the ozone converter do?

A

Converts ozone from the IP bleed air into 02 to combat fatigue and dehydration.

123
Q

Does the environmental control system use HP or IP air?

A

IP

124
Q

Do the safety valves require electrical power to operate?

A

No, they are pneumatically operated and spring loaded in the closed position.

125
Q

What is the function of the safety valves?

A

To provide overpressure and negative pressure relief.

126
Q

How many safety valves are installed and where are they?

A

TWO-on the aft pressure bulkhead.

127
Q

How many outflow valves are there?

A

1

128
Q

How is the outflow valve opened and closed?

A

Electrically by servo motors.

129
Q

What is the IASC and how many are there?

A

Integrated Air System Controller, 2

130
Q

Flying into KTEX the “CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING HIGH” CAS illuminates. How does this affect the CABN ALTITUDE Caution and Warning?

A

Increases caution to field elevation plus 650’.

Increases warning to field elevation plus 1,550’

131
Q

With the destination altitude below 7,850’ when does the CABIN ALTITUDE CAS (s) illuminate?

A

Caution 8,500’

Wanring 9,400’

132
Q

What centers the nose gear during retraction?

A

The SCU-steering control unit (electrical)

Also, mechanically by the cams on the nose strut.

133
Q

What are the tire pressures?

A

Nose: 113 PSI
Mains: 154 PSI

134
Q

When does the PTU operate in “AUTO”? (4)

A
  1. Left EDP failed
  2. Right EDP producing pressure
  3. WOW-in air
  4. Gear not in the position selected by handle.
135
Q

Where are the brake accumulator gauges?

A

In the battery bay.

136
Q

How do we check brake wear indicators?

A

parking brake set, pins greater than flush.

137
Q

When should the “LG PULL” handle be stowed?

A

After landing with the gear pins installed.

138
Q

What does the “LG PULL” handle do?

A
  1. Manually releases the uplocks (nose and mains)

2. Actuates the dump valves (sends fluid pressure to the return side of the actuators)

139
Q

If a gear control or left hydraulic system failure occurs how do we extend gear?

A

Use the checklist which will say “LG PULL” handle.

140
Q

Parking brake accumulator has sufficient pressure for how many applications?

A

6

141
Q

Brake accumulators provide braking when hydraulic pressure fails for how long?

A

1 continuous application to a full stop.

142
Q

Gear is held up by?

A

Mechanical Uplocks

143
Q

The nose gear steering is actuated by which system?

A

LEFT Hydraulic System.

144
Q

The landing gear is normally actuated by which hydraulic system?

A

LEFT

145
Q

Why must we observe brake cooling times?

A

To ensure sufficient energy to stop within charted times.

146
Q

How much steering authority do we have with the Tiller? Pedals?

A

65 degrees/7degrees

147
Q

Antiskid is available down to what speed?

A

10 knots

148
Q

What does a “NWS LIMIT EXCEEDED” (C) cas indicate?

A

NWS has been turned beyond 120 degrees. Check sheer pins, if broken it has exceeded 123 degrees and possible damage has occurred.

149
Q

On CL350’s and A/C with modified with SB 100-29-18(Brushless DCMP’s)(522FX,523FX,524FX,525FX,526FX,531FX,425FX) - What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff??

A

Remain in the “AUTO” position.

150
Q

A/C not modified SB 100-29-18 (Brushless DCMP’s), What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff?
Why?

A

OFF - to prevent short circuits in a high temp environment that could lead to a cascade electrical failure.

151
Q

From which electrical buses are the Right and Left DCMP’s powered?

A

Right DCMP is powered from L ESS bus, Left DCMP is powered from R Main bus.

152
Q

When do the DCMP’s operate in the auto position?

3

A
  1. Low hydraulic system pressure
  2. when flaps are selected out of 0 (zero)
  3. on the ground with NWS ON(Left).
153
Q

When does the Aux Hydraulic pump automatically turn ON?

2

A
  1. Aux system pressure less than 2500 psi(OFF at 3350 psi)

2. Right hydraulic system pressure is less than 1800 psi

154
Q

Why does flap extension using only the Right DCMP or Alternate Flaps take much longer than normal?

A

EDP pumps approximately 20 gpm, DCMP approximately 3 gpm.

155
Q

How many accumulators are on the hydraulic system?

A 
4:
Inboard
Outboard brakes, 
Aux system
Main gear down lock assist.
156
Q

After loss of the left and right hydraulic systems, what flight control is powered by the Aux hydraulic system?

A

The rudder thru the lower rudder pcu

157
Q

When would we use the Alternate flaps?

A

When directed by the checklist for Right hydraulic pressure low conditions or Flap Fault CAS.

158
Q

In the event generator power fails and both EDP’s fail, which DCMP is not load shed and can be powered?

A

The right DCMP if switch is selected to ON.

159
Q

What is the purpose of the Aux HYD system?

A

To provide hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder pcu if the right hydraulic system loses pressure(less than 1800 psi) - via a switching valve.

160
Q

Hydraulic SOV can be closed 3 ways?

A

Pushing the PBA, pushing the FIRE PBA, hydraulic temperature exceeds 275 for more than 3 seconds.

161
Q

How is hydraulic fluid cooled?

A

Via fuel/hyd heat exchanger in each wing tank.

162
Q

When does the PTU operate in “AUTO” ?

A
  • Left EDP failed
  • Right EDP producing pressure.
  • Weight off wheels(WOW in air)
  • Gear not in the selected position (ie…gear is down with the handle “UP”)
163
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

It is a hydraulic motor driven from the right system to provide pressure to the left system primarily to retract
the gear after takeoff with a left engine failure. Also pressurizes the left hydraulic reservoir.

164
Q

What does the Right Hydraulic System power?

A 
Flaps
Lower Rudder PCU
Outboard brakes
Outboard MFS
Outboard Elevator
Right Thrust Reverser

Main landing gear assist actuator
PTU

165
Q

What does the Left Hydraulic System power?

A 
Gear
Inboard MFS
Inboard brakes
Inboard elevator
Left(upper)Rudder PCU
Alt flaps
Spoilers 
Left TR
Nose steering
166
Q

Normal hydraulic system pressure is psi?

A

3000

167
Q

What is powered using the hydraulic system?

A

Brakes, Thrust Reversers, Flaps, Elevators, Rudder, and Multi Function/Ground Spoilers, NWS

168
Q

How many hydraulic pumps does the CL-300 have?

A 
Six
2 EDP’s
2 DCMP’s
PTU
AUX
169
Q

On CL350’s and A/C with modified with SB 100-29-18(Brushless DCMP’s)(522FX,523FX,524FX,525FX,526FX,531FX,425FX) - What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff??

A

Remain in the “AUTO” position.

170
Q

A/C not modified SB 100-29-18 (Brushless DCMP’s), What position do we place the DCMP switch after takeoff?
Why?

A

OFF - to prevent short circuits in a high temp environment that could lead to a cascade electrical failure.

171
Q

From which electrical buses are the Right and Left DCMP’s powered?

A

Right DCMP is powered from L ESS bus, Left DCMP is powered from R Main bus.

172
Q

When do the DCMP’s operate in the auto position?

A
  1. Low hydraulic system pressure
  2. when flaps are selected out of 0 (zero)
  3. on the ground with NWS ON(Left).
173
Q

When does the Aux Hydraulic pump automatically turn ON?

2

A
  1. Aux system pressure less than 2500 psi(OFF at 3350 psi)

2. Right hydraulic system pressure is less than 1800 psi

174
Q

Why does flap extension using only the Right DCMP or Alternate Flaps take much longer than normal?

A

EDP pumps approximately 20 gpm, DCMP approximately 3 gpm.

175
Q

How many accumulators are on the hydraulic system?

A 
4:
Inboard
Outboard brakes, 
Aux system
Main gear down lock assist.
176
Q

After loss of the left and right hydraulic systems, what flight control is powered by the Aux hydraulic system?

A

The rudder thru the lower rudder pcu

177
Q

When would we use the Alternate flaps?

A

When directed by the checklist for Right hydraulic pressure low conditions or Flap Fault CAS.

178
Q

In the event generator power fails and both EDP’s fail, which DCMP is not load shed and can be powered?

A

The right DCMP if switch is selected to ON.

179
Q

What is the purpose of the Aux HYD system?

A

To provide hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder pcu if the right hydraulic system loses pressure(less than 1800 psi) - via a switching valve.

180
Q

Hydraulic SOV can be closed 3 ways?

A

Pushing the PBA, pushing the FIRE PBA, hydraulic temperature exceeds 275 for more than 3 seconds.

181
Q

How is hydraulic fluid cooled?

A

Via fuel/hyd heat exchanger in each wing tank.

182
Q

When does the PTU operate in “AUTO” ?

A
  • Left EDP failed
  • Right EDP producing pressure.
  • Weight off wheels(WOW in air)
  • Gear not in the selected position (ie…gear is down with the handle “UP”)
183
Q

After generator power loss, how long will battery power last?

A

Main 24 VDC 44 AMP Batteries - 1 hour

Standby battery - 3.5 hours

184
Q

What do the Left and Right AUX buses power?

A

Cabin AC and DC
FO side window
foot warmers

185
Q

Which battery is turned on first when powering up the aircraft?

A

Right battery - To prevent uncommanded APU starts

186
Q

Where do we plug in a GPU?

A

On the lower right side of the fuselage, just below the engine pylon.

187
Q

When do the Emergency Lights come on automatically?

A

R.Main bus failure.

188
Q

Can all 3 gens power the aircraft simultaneously?

A

Yes, the Right and APU normally share the load of the right side items.

189
Q

Which battery powers the APU starter?

A

Right Battery, but can revert to Left if needed.

190
Q

What type of batteries does the CL-30 have and what are they rated at?

A

(2) 24 VDC NICAD , 44 amp

191
Q

What is the minimum voltage req. on the left battery prior to APU start?

A

20.5 volts (Flexjet CFM)

192
Q

Selecting the battery switch to the ON position connects the batteries to what buses?

A

Essential

193
Q

What buses will remain powered during loss of all generators in flight?

A

Essential Busses and battery busses.

194
Q

When are the auxiliary buses load shed?

A

Single Generator Operations

195
Q

When do the generators automatically come online?

A

Automatically when engine is running after start except when a GPU is connected

196
Q

Individual battery voltage can be read on?

A

Electrical and Summary Synoptic Pages

197
Q

GPU AVAIL indicates what?

A

The GPU is connected and meets the quality criteria. When 5 volts is sensed the electrical synoptic
page displays a green status for the GPU.

198
Q

The acceptable GPU voltage limit is?

A

24-32 volts

199
Q

How many CB panels are there?

A

CL300 : 7 Total - 2 cockpit, 2 entryway, 1 galley, 2 in the aft equipment bay.
CL350 : 8 Total - 5 cockpit, 2 entryway, 1 galley, 1 lav(behind mirror), 2 in the aft equipment bay.

200
Q

Is there AC power?

A

Passenger convenience items and cabin lighting through inverters.

201
Q

When does the bus tie automatically close?

A

Ext. power, Bat. power, single gen.

202
Q

Are the electrical system sides normally split or tied together?

A

Split

203
Q

What are possible sources of DC power?

A

3 Generators / (2) 24 VDC 44 AMP Batteries / External power(GPU) / HMDG

204
Q

In “AUTO” when do the electric fuel pumps come on?

3

A
  1. Run switch to “RUN” - for engine start
  2. Low fuel pressure indication
  3. Right pump for APU operation when right engine is not running
205
Q

The powered fuel transfer valve fails to open, what is the backup way of moving fuel between the wing tanks?

A

Gravity transfer

206
Q

How many fuel pumps are on the CL350/300?

A 
9
engine driven pumps(2)
electric boost pumps(2)
main ejectors(2)
scavenge ejectors(2)
and APU mechanical pump(1)
207
Q

When do we drain the fuel tanks?

A

When contamination is suspected

208
Q

How many water drains are in the fuel tanks?

A

6

209
Q

Do we need fuel anti-icing additive as long as the minimum oil temperature is achieved?

A

No, Fuel is heated thru the fuel/oil heat exchangers

210
Q

Minimum wing fuel for go-around?

A

500 lbs per side.

211
Q

What operates the Main Ejector and Scavenge Ejectors?

A

Motive flow from the engine driven pumps

212
Q

What is the function of the surge tank at the tip of the fuel tanks?

A

To provide additional expansion volume for the vent system.

213
Q

What part of the fuel tank supplies fuel to the engines?

A

Collector tanks

214
Q

Is mixing of fuel types approved?

A

Yes

215
Q

How many fuel crossflow valves are there and how do they operate?

A

Two Total - One powered and One Gravity

216
Q

Do you need battery power to fuel the aircraft?

A

Yes, to open the Fuel SOV’s

217
Q

How is the fuel heated?

A

Fuel / Oil Heat Exchanger

218
Q

How do you transfer fuel from the left wing to the right wing?

What if you’re on the ground with engines off and APU running?

A

L. pump on, xfer open.

L. pump on, xfer open, R. pump off. (Not documented as an approved procedure by Bombardier)

219
Q

Fuel tanks are divided into how many sections?

A

3 sections - main tank, collector tank, and surge tank

220
Q

Overwing/gravity fuel quantity?

A

13000 lbs

221
Q

Single Point Pressure Refuel quantity?

A

14150 lbs

222
Q

What extinguishing agent is used in the Fire Extinguishing System?

A

Halon 1301

223
Q

Do we normally test the fire detection system?

A

No, only during abnormal situations when prompted by the checklist or MX.

224
Q

Pushing the engine fire PBA does what?

6

A 
Fuel SOV
Bleed SOV
Hyd SOV’s
arms EXT 1  and 2 squib
deactivates the gens
FADEC commands engine shutdowns
225
Q

Is there a lav smoke detector?

A

No, baggage compartment detector thru vents.

226
Q

Is there a baggage compartment fire extinguishing system?

A

No

227
Q

Which areas have fire extinguishing?

A

Engine and APU

228
Q

What areas of the aircraft are monitored for leaks and/or fire?

A 
Engine Nacelles/Core/Pylon/Gearbox, 
Main Landing Gear Bay, 
Baggage Compartment, 
Bleed Air
Supply, 
Wing Anti-Ice Supply, 
APU
229
Q

Describe how the fire detection system recognizes a leak or fire?

A

Through fire detection loops and the resistance level in those loops

230
Q

Which firex bottle provides protection for the APU?

A

Right fire bottle(#2)

231
Q

Where can the fire bottles be discharged into?

A

1 into either engine, #2 into either engine and APU

232
Q

How many firex bottles are installed?

A

2

233
Q

What are the minimum oil temperature limits for operating?

Start, Idle, T/O—cold wx/normal) (4

A

-40* C - for engine start
5* C - idle power
15* C - Takeoff (as long as Cold Wx operation procedures are followed)
above 27* C - GREEN indication

234
Q

What type of oil is approved for use in our powerplants?

A

Exxon/BP 2380, there are others as well.

235
Q

What is the meaning of a Check Oil amber annunciation when checking the oil level on the ROLS? What should be done prior to dispatch?

A

Oil is below the full level. You must visually check the sight gauge to determine if the oil is below the no dispatch level.

236
Q

When should the oil be checked after a flight?

A

5 to 30 minutes

237
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

Fuel / Oil Heat Exchanger

238
Q

What engine functions does the FADEC control?
(10)
FLOATBIIEE

A 
Fuel scheduling
Limits for N1/N2/ITT
Overspeed protection
APR
Thrust enunciations
Bleed air extraction
Ignition
Idles (Ground, Flight, Reverse)
Engine Sync
Engine starting
239
Q

What is on the accessory gear box?

A 
FADEC
Air Turbine Starter(ATS)
Generator
Permanent Magnetic Alternator(PMA)
Oil pump
Oil reservoir
Hydraulic pump
HydroMechanical Fuel Metering Unit(HFMU)
240
Q

When is Mach Hold available?

A

CRZ power and ALT or ALTS,

Sync on - adjust N1 +- 3%

241
Q

When is engine sync available?

A

CRZ or CLB power and N1’s within 5%

242
Q

What will happen if a thrust reverser becomes unstowed in flight?

A

FADEC will command the engine to idle

243
Q

What type of oil is approved for our powerplants?

A

BP/Exxon 2380

244
Q

What are the three ways that APR can be activated?

A
  1. Manually be selecting the APR detent.
  2. Automatically when there is an N2 mismatch in excess of 15 percent.
  3. Automatically if FADEC’s stop cross communicating.
245
Q

List the three ways you can start a power plant on the ground.

A

APU, Crossbleed, and External Air Source

246
Q

Manual APR Time Limit?

A

5 minutes until exceedances are recorded

247
Q

Auto APR Time Limit?

A

10 minutes until exceedances are recorded

248
Q

When is Auto APR armed?

A

Auto APR switch is on

Thrust levers placed in TO detent

249
Q

Takeoff Power Time Limit?

A

5 minutes

250
Q

The FADEC is powered via DC during engine start. As N2 increases above 45%, how is the FADEC powered?

A

PMA(Permanent Magnet Alternator)

251
Q

What is the minimum N2 ground idle?

A

46%

252
Q

Normal thrust rating at ISA+15?

300/350

A

CL300 - 6826 lbs at SL to ISA+15 degrees (86F).

CL350 - 7323 lbs at SL to ISA+15 degrees (86F).

253
Q

APR provides that thrust rating to what temp?

A

ISA+20 degrees C(95F)

254
Q

What engines are installed?

A

AS907 (Type Designation)
HTF 7000 - CL300
HTF7350 - CL350

255
Q

How is the CVR erased?

5

A
  1. DC power
  2. Weight on Wheels(WOW)
  3. Hydraulic pressure
  4. Parking brake set
  5. Hold erase button for 2 seconds
256
Q

What synoptic buttons are pushed to display the Maintenance Diagnostic Computer(MDC)?

A

Anti-Ice, ECS, Fuel

257
Q

Can we silence GS / Flaps / Terrain warnings?

A

Press the corresponding PBA on the landing gear panel.

258
Q

If the L. MFD fails, where does the EICAS transfer to?

A

Auto transfers to the Rt MFD.

259
Q

What items trigger a takeoff configuration warning?

6

A
  1. AP
  2. 3 trim axis
  3. spoilers
  4. flaps
  5. parking brake
  6. disconnects (pitch and roll)
260
Q

The aural warning channel mute panel is located where?

A

Above the Circuit Breaker Panel over the Co-Pilots Seat

261
Q

A landing inhibit feature (warnings) is actve when?

A

Begins as the aircraft descends through

400 feet AND

slows below 40 knots
or 60 seconds.

262
Q

A takeoff inhibit feature (warnings)is actve when?

A

Begins as the aircraft accelerates through:

80 knots

Ends at:

400 ft or 60 seconds.

263
Q

Warning messages are always accompanied by what?(3)

A
  1. Triple chim
  2. Flashing master warning light
  3. Red on the eicas or synoptic page.
264
Q

What EICAS messages are accompanied by a single chime and flashing master caution lights?

A

Caution (Amber)

265
Q

On the synoptic page display, a parameter that exceeds the established limits changes the indications to what color?

A

Red

266
Q

What EICAS messages require immediate action?

A

Warnings (Red)

267
Q

What color denotes component failure (no flow, energy, or pressure)?

A

Amber

268
Q

What color denotes normal status of a component or no flow through a line?

A

White

269
Q

There are 400+ CAS messages that display in various colors. What are the colors and how are they prioritized?
(4)

A

Red-warning
Amber-caution
Cyan - advisory
White- status.

270
Q

How do we display the Maintenance Diagnostic Computer(MDC)?

A

Press Anti Ice, ECS and Fuel buttons simultaneously

271
Q

How many static dischargers are on the CL350? CL300?

A

26, 24

272
Q

What doors are monitored by the door warning system?

A
  1. Pax Door
  2. Emergency Exit
  3. Cargo Door
  4. Aft Equipment
  5. Battery bay
273
Q

The purpose of the vent flap in the cabin door handle is:

A

To equalize cabin pressure

274
Q

Under what condition does a PASSENGER DOOR Caution Amber CAS message display when the aircraft is in flight? On the ground?
(3/1)

A
  1. Passenger door rollers are not fully engaged into the fitting guides
  2. Door handle not down and locked
  3. Vent flap not closed.
  4. Door is not closed and the Left Engine run switch is placed to RUN
275
Q

On the ground you notice a Cargo Door(C) CAS is displayed, what condition has caused this?

A

The cargo door is not fully closed and Left Engine switch is in Run.

276
Q

How is the main entry door closed if the electric switch or door motor is inoperative?

A

Manually by the ratcheting pull handle on the left side .

277
Q

How is the main entry door normally closed?

A

Electrically by inside or outside switch.

278
Q

Torque links disconnected allow aircraft towing at any angle provided shock strut exceeds how many inches of chrome showing?

A

3.5 inches

279
Q

At what degree of nose angle will the nose landing gear swivel pins shear?

A

123 degrees

280
Q

What is the maximum travel each side of center while towing?

A

120* without disconnecting the torque links.

281
Q

What is the wing tip clearance for a 180* turn?

A

CL300……95’ 5”

CL350 ……101’

282
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180* turn?

A

58ft with a 5ft safety margin.

300 Question Bank/Study Guide 2018 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions