Quiz 1 Rules Flashcards

Rules

1
Q

Rule 3

A

Action commences in federal court with the filing of the complaint. In Minnesota state court, the action commences upon service, not filing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Rule 4

A

Summons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rule 4(m)

A

Service of a summons and the complaint should be made within 90 days of the filing of the complaint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rule 4(c)

A

Service may be made by anyone not a party who is at least 18 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rule 4(e)

A

Service upon an individual may be made by following state law OR by delivering the summons and complaint to the individual personally OR by leaving the summons and complaint at the person’s home with someone there OR by delivering the summons and complaint to an agent authorized to receive service by appointment or by law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rule 4(h)

A

Service upon a corporation may be made by following state law for service of process or by delivering the summons and complaint to an agent authorized to receive service by appointment or by law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rule 4(d)

A

Service may be waived upon compliance with a specific waiver procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rule 4(k)(1)

A

Service of a summons or filing a waiver is effective to establish personal jurisdiction over an absent defendant in three circumstances: A) General jurisdiction in forum state, B) The defendant is joined under Rule 14 or Rule 19 and is served within 100 miles from where the summons was issued, and C) A U.S. statute so authorizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Minn. Stat. 543.19

A

Minnesota long-arm statute. Enables the service of process and personal jurisdiction over a “nonresident” defendant when 1) owns, uses, or possesses property in MN; 2) does business in Minnesota; 3) commits in MN an injury-causing act; 4) commits outside of MN an act that causes injury in MN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

28 USC 1391(b)

A

Venue lies in a district where: 1) any defendant resides if all defendants reside in the same state; 2) a substantial part of the events or part of subject property is situated; or 3)
any defendant is subject to PJ if there is no other district available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

28 USC 1391(d)

A

A corporate defendant resides in any district in which it is subject to personal jurisdiction at the time the action is commenced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

28 USC 1404 and 1406

A

For transfer of venue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

28 USC 1331

A

Federal courts have “original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

28 USC 1332

A

Federal courts have “original jurisdiction of all civil actions where the matter in controversy exceeds the sum or value of $75,000, exclusive of interest and costs, and is between [citizens of different States].” “A corporation shall be deemed a citizen of every State . . . by which it has been incorporated and of the State . . . where it has its principal place of business.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

28 USC 1367(a)

A

“in any civil action of which the district courts have original jurisdiction, the district courts shall have supplemental jurisdiction over all other claims that are so related to claims in the action within such original jurisdiction that they form part of the same case or controversy under Article III of the United States Constitution.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

28 USC 1367(b)

A

If the basis for original jurisdiction is diversity, then the district courts do NOT have supplemental jurisdiction over any of the following kinds of claims: 1) Claims by plaintiffs against persons made parties under Rules 14, 19, 20 or 24; 2) Claims by persons proposed to be joined as plaintiffs under Rule 19; or 3) Claims by persons seeking to intervene as plaintiffs under Rule 24.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

28 USC 1367(c)

A

Federal district courts may choose to decline to exercise supplemental jurisdiction over a claim that fits within subpart (a)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

28 USC 1367(d)

A

Provides for the “tolling” of the statute of limitations on the supplemental claims for at least 30 days after the dismissal of such claims when the dismissal is because the federal court decides not to exercise supplemental jurisdiction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Rule 1

A

The rules govern procedure in all civil cases; the key theme is the just, speedy and inexpensive determination of litigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Rule 2

A

There is one form of civil action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rule 7

A

The only pleadings are: the complaint, the answer, an answer to a counterclaim, an answer to a cross-claim, a third-party complaint, and a third-party answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rule 8

A

A pleading (includes complaints and answers) must contain a statement of federal subject matter jurisdiction, a statement of the claim for relief, and a demand for judgment for the relief sought. The rule does not require the pleading of venue, but many lawyers will insert a venue allegation. It is not necessary or customary to plead personal jurisdiction but you will want the allegations inside the claim to demonstrate it

23
Q

Rule 38

A

A jury trial must be demanded or it is waived.

24
Q

Rules 8(d)(2) and 8(d)(3)

A

You may plead inconsistently or in the alternative.

25
Q

Rule 11

A

You need to act in good faith. Sanctions for failure to present correct (to your knowledge) writings or failure to correct when notified. [not for discovery sanctions] In MN: in malpractice suits expert testimony must be gathered before filing the complaint

26
Q

Rule 9

A

Specific pleading is required for fraud and special damages

27
Q

Rule 10

A

Captions should include the name of the court, the title of the action, the file number, the name of the pleading, and the names of the parties

28
Q

Rule 10(b)

A

You should plead alternative legal theories in separate counts. You should plead separate facts in separate numbered paragraphs.

29
Q

Rule 10(c)

A

Parties may incorporate material by reference.

30
Q

Rule 8(b)

A

Answers must contain admissions and denials that fairly meet the substance of plaintiff’s factual assertions. Answers must also contain defenses.

31
Q

Rule 8(c)(1)

A

Affirmative defenses: duress, estoppel, fraud, etc

32
Q

Rule 12(h)(1)(B)

A

Defenses under Rules 12(b)(2)-(5) are waived if not asserted.

33
Q

Rules 12(h)(2)-(h)(3)

A

Defenses under Rules 12(b)(1), (b)(6), and (b)(7) are not waived by non-assertion in the answer but ought to be promptly asserted

34
Q

Rule 12(b)(1)-(7)

A

Defenses that can be raised as motions: lack of SMJ, improper venue, failure to state a claim, etc

35
Q

Rule 12(a)(1)

A

Timing for serving a responsive pleading. Within 21 days unless waiver granted

36
Q

Rule 12(f)

A

Motion to strike “redundant, immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous matter.”

37
Q

Rule 12(e)

A

Motion for a more definite statement if the complaint is so vague and ambiguous that you cannot decipher what it means for purposes of trying to respond

38
Q

Rule 12(g)

A

You can only make one pre-answer motion. If you do make a pre-answer motion, you must consolidate all relevant defenses that might otherwise be waived.

39
Q

Rule 15

A

Amendments to pleading. A party may amend the party’s pleading once 21 days after serving it OR if the pleading is one to which a responsive pleading is required, 21 days after service of a responsive pleading or motion. The court should generally give leave to amend when “justice so requires”

40
Q

Rule 15(c)

A

Amendments may relate back to the date of the original pleading. 1) When “the amendment asserts a claim or defense that arises out of the transaction/occurrence of the original pleading.” 2) When the party to be brought in (i) was given adequate notice AND (ii) “knew or should have known that the action would have been brought against it

41
Q

Rule 18

A

Permissive joinder of claims. “Alternate” claims are “related” and covered by supplemental jurisdiction. “Independent” claims are NOT “related” and require independent federal subject matter jurisdiction. Note: claim preclusion to prevent “two bites of the apple”

42
Q

Rule 13

A

Counter and Cross-Claims.

43
Q

Rule 13(a)

A

Compulsory counterclaims 1) exist at the time of the pleading 2) arise from the same transaction/occurrence and 3) do not require third parties over whom there is no PJ

44
Q

Rule 13(b)

A

Permissive counterclaims generally require independent federal subject matter jurisdiction. Generally, permissive claims potentially waive 12(b)(2)-(5) defenses.

45
Q

Rule 13(g)

A

Cross-claims are permissive claims against co-parties when the claims arise out of the same transaction/occurrence as the original claim. Generally for contribution or indemnification

46
Q

Rule 20

A

Permissive joinder of parties is possible if 1) the right to relief arises out of the same transaction/occurrence and 2) there is at least one common question of law or fact

47
Q

Rule 14

A

Impleader for “If me, then him” claims. This is NOT a defense. When a claim is brought against a plaintiff, they may bring in third parties just as defendants may.

48
Q

Rule 19

A

Compulsory joinder of parties when (a)(1)(A) complete relief cannot be given without the outsider OR (a)(1)(B) the outsider claims interest, cannot protect its interest outside the suit, or without them existing parties face risk of conflicting obligations.

49
Q

Rule 19(b)

A

If there is no subject matter jurisdiction, service, or venue over the outside party, a court must decide whether to go forward or dismiss the case.

50
Q

Rule 24

A

Right of outsider to intervene. Outsiders are never required to intervene. The only way to bring a party in is to compel existing parties to join the outsider under Rule 19.

51
Q

Rule 24(a)

A

A court must allow the outsider in if 1) there is an unconditional statutory right OR 2) the outsider has an interest, disposition of the action may impair protection of their interest, and existing parties will not adequately represent the outsider

52
Q

Rule 24(b)

A

A court might allow the outsider in if 1) there is a conditional statutory right OR 2) the applicant’s claim/defense and the main action share a common question of law or fact

53
Q

28 USC 1335

A

Statutory interpleader

54
Q

Rule 22

A

Interpleader by rules of civil procedure