Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Understand the difference between blood pressure and cardiac output

A

Cardiac output (known as ‘Q’) is a measure of the amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart in one minute.

Blood pressure (BP) is a measure of the force being exerted on the walls of arteries as blood is pumped out of the heart.

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2
Q

Outline briefly the mechanism of control of blood pressure

A

Increasing sympathetic activity will cause decrease in BP.
How?
-Activation of B1 adrenoreceptors on the heart (cause increase in Cardiac O)
-Activation of A1 adrenoreceptors on smooth muscle (increased Venous return)
-Activation of B1 adrenoreceptors on the kidney (increases peripheral resistance)

  • decreased Renal blood flow (increases Renin which increases Angiotensin 2 and aldosterone)
  • decreased glomerular filtration rate, thus increased Sodium, water retention thus increased Blood volume.

All increase Blood pressure

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3
Q

Give a detailed account of the compensatory physiological response to CHF

A
  • retaining salt and water to increase fluid in blood stream
  • increase HR
  • Increase H size
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4
Q

List the classes of vasodilator treatments used for CHF?

What are vasodilators purpose?

A

reduce load on myocardium.

  1. Direct smooth muscle relaxants
  2. ACE inhibitor
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5
Q

List with examples the direct smooth muscle relaxants used as vasodilators in CHF

MOA
adverse effects

A

Direct acting Vasodilators:
1. Hydralazine: MOA: Smooth muscle hyperpolarization through opening of K+ channels. Stimulates formation of nitric oxide leading to cGMP-mediated vasodilation. Also causes reflex increase in CO and HR, so must use with B blocker and diuretic.
Adverse effects: Headache, nausea, sweating, arrhythmia, angina

  1. Minoxidil:
    MOA: causes direct vasodilation of resistance arterioles. Treatment of sever to malignant hypertension which is refractory to other drugs. Reflex tachycardia can be sever thus must be co-scribed with diuretic + B blocker.
    Adverse reactions: water and sodium retention, oedema, hypertrichosis (body + hair growth)
  2. Sodium Nitroprusside:
    MOA: its metabolized to NO in smooth muscel cells. Used for hypertensive emergency. Non selective and rapidly metabolized.
    Adverse reactions: reflex tachycardia, cyanide toxicity.
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6
Q

Give a detailed account of the mechanisms by which ACE inhibitors act in CHF

A

ACE Inhibitors:
Anything ending in Pril is an ACE inhibitor
Actions: decrease levels of vasoconstrictors (angiotensin 2, aldosterone), increase levels of vasodilators (bradykinin)
Therapeutics: used as an antihypertensive in patients with concominant disease (diabetes, congestive HF, hyperlipidemia)
Contraindications: (K+ supplements, spironolactone). K+ levels must be monitored
Adverse effects: Dry cough, skin rash, hyperkalemia, hypotension, fever
Example: Captopril, Enalapril, Lisinopril

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7
Q

List the major effects of angiotensin 2 in the body

A
  • increases release of Aldosterone which acts to increase Sodium and water retention
    2. It increases peripheral resistance
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8
Q

List with examples ACE inhibitors used as vasodilators in CHF

A

Captopril. Enalapril, Fosinopril, Lisinopril, Quinapril

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9
Q

List the routes of drug administration, giving advantages and disadvantages of each route

A

o Enteral
• Oral
• Most common way to administer a drug
• Most variable
• Requires the most complicated pathway to the tissues
• Drug is usually absorbed in the upper GI tract and passes into the portal venous system where it can undergo first-pass metabolism
• Other routes should be considered if:
o The drug is unstable or is rapidly inactivated in the GI tract (eg. Insulin)
o There is a loss of drug absorbance via the GI tract of inability for sufficient drug to reach its target through first-pass metabolism in the liver, vomiting or disease state
o Therapeutic effects demand local administration and systemic absorption would lead to adverse drug effects
• Sublingual
• Placement under tongue allows for drug to diffuse into the capillary network, avoiding first-pass liver metabolism and directly entering the systemic circulation
• Rectal
• Limited portal blood flow means exposure of the drug to first-pass metabolism is than with the oral route
• This route is useful if the drug induces vomiting when given orally or if the patient is already: vomiting
o Parenteral:
• Used mainly:
• For drugs that are poorly absorbed from the GI tract
• For drugs that are unstable in the GI tract
• In treatment of unconscious patients
• In treatment where rapid onset of action is required
• Provides most control over actual dose delivered

• Intravascular (IV)
• Most common parenteral route
• Avoids first-pass and is used for drugs that cannot be administered orally
• Intramuscular (IM)
• Subcutaneous (SC)
• Both require absorption of drug into the tissue
o Doesn’t go into the blood
• Use of carrier vehicles (such as peanut oil) allows for control of delivery

o Other
• Inhalation
• Allows for rapid delivery of drug across a large surface area
• Used for drugs that are gases or aerosols
• Intranasal
• Cocaine is generally taken by sniffing
• Intrathecal / Intraventricular
• Introduction of drugs directly into cerebral spinal fluid
• Topical
• Used when a local effect of the drug is required
• Transdermal
• This administration route achieves systemic effect by application of drugs to skin via a transdermal patch
• Used when sustained delivery is needed

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10
Q

Understand The importance of the enteroheptic circulation and first pass drug metabolism

A

s

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11
Q

describe the chemical and physiological factors that can influence drug absorption

A
o	Chemical properties:
•	Chemical nature
•	Molecular weight
•	Solubility
•	Partition Coefficient
o	Physiological variables:
•	Gastric motility
•	pH at absorption site
•	Area of absorbing surface
•	Mesenteric blood flow
•	Presystemic elimination
•	Ingestion with/without food
o	In general, most drugs presently used:
•	Are small organic molecules
•	Have molecular weights under 1000
•	Diffuse through biological membranes in their uncharged form
•	Exist as either weak acids or bases
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12
Q

Outline what is meant by bioavailability

A
  • Is the fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
  • Expressed at the fraction of administered drug that gains access to the systemic circulation in a chemically unaltered form
  • Is determined by comparing plasma levels of a drug by a particular route of administration (e.g. oral) with plasma levels achieved by IV administration (which must be 100%)
  • Plotting plasma concentrations of drugs given by both routes against time then the area under the curve (AUC) gives an indication of the extent of absorption
  • Bioavailability of a drug administered orally is the ratio of the area calculated for oral administration compared with the area calculated for IV injection
  • If 100mg of a drug is administered orally and 70 mg is absorbed unchanged, the bioavailability is 70%
    o The higher the AUC, the better it has been absorbed
    o F = (AUC) oral / (AUC) intravenous
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13
Q

Describe factors that influence bioavailability

A

s

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14
Q

Describe the determinants of drug distribution within the body

A
  • Vd = total amount of drug in the body / Plasma drug concentration
    o If the drug is avidly bound to peripheral tissues, its plasma concentration will drop to very low values though the total amount in the body is very large, thus a Vd might exceed the total volume of the body
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15
Q

Understand the concept of volume of distribution

A
  • Volume of distribution (Vd) is a hypothetical volume of fluid into which the drug can be disseminated
  • Vd relates the amount of drug in the body to the concentration in plasma
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16
Q

Calculate the Vd for a particular drug

A

Amount of drug in the body/ Concentration in the blood.

17
Q

Outline the overall effect that drug metabolism can have on the status of a drug?

A
•	Important effects of drug metabolism
➢	Drug made more Hydrophilic- speeds up excretion
➢	Metabolites are less active than the parent drug
•	Metabolism effects on status of drug
➢	Termination of drug action 
-	Inactive form before excretion
-	E.g. Phenothiazines
➢	Activating drug action  
-	Prodrugs are inactive and must be metabolised in the body to become active
-	E.g. Levodopa
➢	Drug elimination without metabolism 
-	Continue to act until eliminated
-	E.g. Lithium
18
Q

Outline the differences between phase 1 and 2 drug metabolism

A

Phase 1:
Phase I Metabolism
oxidation (via cytochrome P450), reduction, and hydrolysis reactions
phase I reactions convert a parent drug to more polar (water soluble) active metabolites by unmasking or inserting a polar functional group (-OH, -SH, -NH2)
geriatric patients have decreased phase I metabolism

Phase 2:
phase II reactions convert a parent drug to more polar (water soluble) inactive metabolites by conjugation of subgroups to -OH, -SH, -NH2 functional groups on drug
drugs metabolized via phase II reactions are renally excreted

19
Q

Outline the role of cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism

A

Cytochrome P450 enzymes are the most important enzymes in Phase I metabolism in mammals, and are primarily responsible for the metabolism (degradation and elimination) of drugs.
These enzymes use haem iron to oxidise molecules, often making them more water-soluble for clearance. They achieve this by either adding or unmasking a polar group

20
Q

List the reaction types involved in Phase 2 metabolism

A

Conjugation reaction-
conjugation is when 2 electrons is shared with 3 or more atoms.
-conjugation with a polar molecule increases water solubility .
-Glucoronate, glutathione, glycine, suplhate, and methyl groups.
-The resultant conjugate is inactive and less lipid soluble and can be excreted in bile or urine.

21
Q

Outline the mechanism whereby aspirin is fully metabolised

A

It is oxidised/ hydrolysed to Salicyclic acid then its conjugated with one of the sulphate etcs to a Glucuronide.

22
Q

Describe the factors that can determine biotransformation rate

A
  1. Lifestyle
  2. Gender
  3. Genetic factors
    - hydrolysis of esters (mutated form metabolises drugs slower)
    - acetylation of amines (acetylation deficiency: prolonged or toxic effects of normal dose)
  4. Other Drugs:
    - enzyme induction: barbiturates and rifampin induce production of CYP2C9
    - metabolism inhibitors: drugs that are metabolised to products that irreversibly inhibit the metabolising enzyme (e.g. Cimetidine inhibits metabolism of benzodiazepines and warfarin)–> this can cause increase in serum conc of drug going to harmful level.
23
Q

Outline the mechanism by which cimetidine acts as an inhibitor of drug metabolism

A

-metabolism inhibitors: drugs that are metabolised to products that irreversibly inhibit the metabolising enzyme (e.g. Cimetidine inhibits metabolism of benzodiazepines and warfarin)–> this can cause increase in serum conc of drug going to harmful level.

24
Q

List the routes used to excrete drugs from the body/

A
  • Urine through excretion
  • biliary excretion
  • lungs
  • milk in nursing mothers
  • extracorpeal dialysis in patients with renal failure
25
Q

Describe in detail the renal route of drug excretion

A
  1. Glomerular filtration–> diffuse into glomerular filtrate through glomerular capillaries
  2. Drugs not transferred to glomerular filtrate are actively secreted into proximal tubule. Can eliminate bound and free drugs
  3. Passive diffusion across the tubular epithelium
    - manipulation of the pH of urine can inc. clearance of the drug
    - eg give bicarbonate to a pt overdosing on phenobarbital (alkalinised the urine and dec. reab)
26
Q

How is clearance determined?

firstly what is clearance

A

CL= rate of elimination/ plasma drug conc.
dependant on drug and condition of the organs CL
-systemic CL is the sum of the CL of all drug eliminating and excretion organs
-CL total = CL hepatic + CL renal + CL pulmonary + CL other