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OSOMOP > Quizes - True or False > Flashcards

Quizes - True or False Flashcards

1
Q

In reversible pulpitis pain is generally elicited by stimuli such as hot or cold and resolves once any stimuli is removed

A

True

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2
Q

In irreversible pulpitis patients can normally localise pain to the responsible tooth

A

False

Stimulation of proprioceptors in the periodontal ligament allow pain to be localised, at this point the inflammation and infection will have spread beyond the pulpal tissues

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3
Q

Periapical periodontitis of infective origin is characterised by night waking while periapical periodontitis of traumatic origin is not

A

True

Traumatic periapical periodontitis is generally the result of some kind of occlusal interference, for example a high restoration and therefore pain tends to brought on during function

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4
Q

Irreversible pulpitis of can usually be resolved by removing any decay in the affected tooth and placing a sedative restoration

A

False

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5
Q

The treatment of both irreversible pulpitis and periapical periodontitis of infective origin is likely to be root canal treatment or extraction

A

True

Yes, but if periapical periodontitis is of traumatic origin then removing the occlusal interference will usually be sufficient

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6
Q

A 35 year old woman presents with a 7 day history of pain in the upper right quadrant. She says it is brought on by biting, lasts for hours and she can localise it to the upper right 6. The most likely diagnosis is irreversible pulpitis

A

False

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7
Q

A 25 year old presents with symptoms of reversible pulpitis. Root canal treatment is likely to be required

A

False

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8
Q

You placed a restoration in the lower right 5 for a patient last week. They now have pain on biting which they localise to that tooth, it lasts for hours the does not wake them from their sleep. You diagnose irreversible pulpitis, root canal is the most appropriate treatment.

A

False

The history of a recent restoration being placed and the fact that there is no night waking suggest that symptoms are due to an occlusal interference from the new restoration. The occlusion should be adjusted.

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9
Q

A 45 year old man attends with intermittent pain in the lower left quadrant, He cannot localise it, it is normally brought on by hot drinks or food and resolves spontaneously within seconds. the most likely diagnosis is reversible pulpitis.

A

True

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10
Q

A 46 year old man attends with pain in the lower left quadrant. He cannot localise it, states the pain comes on for no reason and lasts for hours. radograpically there is extensive secondary caries below the restoration in the lower left five. the correct diagnosis is irreversible pulpitis and the tooth requires root canal treatment or extraction.

A

True

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11
Q

The best radiograph to provide a detailed view of the tissues around the apex of the root of a tooth is a bitewing

A

False

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12
Q

An IOPA (intra-oral periapical) is designed to show the crowns of premolar and molar teeth on one side of the jaws

A

False

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13
Q

An upper standard occlusal is commonly used alongside an IOPA to locate the position of an unerupted permanent maxillary canine by the horizontal parallax technique

A

True

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14
Q

A mandibular anterior 90o occlusal is a useful technique in the investigation of possible submandibular duct calculi

A

True

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15
Q

When viewing an OPT (orthopantomogram) it is important to be aware of soft tissue and air shadows which may cause difficulty with interpretation

A

True

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16
Q

Digital radiography is convenient for the dentist, but provides a higher radiation dose to the patient than traditional (non-digital) radiography

A

False

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17
Q

Areas that appear dark on a radiograph are described as “radiodensities”

A

False

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18
Q

A corticated margin to a radiolucent lesion suggests that it is growing slowly

A

True

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19
Q

A lesion that appears radiographically to have several compartments can be described as unilocular

A

False

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20
Q

When writing a radiology report for a radiolucent lesion, it is important to consider the quality standard and general features before focussing on the main area of concern

A

True

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21
Q

Where cone beam CT is available, it should usually be used for elective dental and maxillofacial radiography (where a 3D image is required), rather than traditional (medical) CT scanning

A

True

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22
Q

MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) is associated with a high radiation dose to the patient

A

False

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23
Q

In relation to the parallax technique, if an ectopic tooth appears to move in the same direction as the x-ray beam the tooth is likely to be positioned lingually/palatally

A

True

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24
Q

If a radiograph is characterised a Quality Standard 2 it should be repeated

A

False

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25
Q

A bite wing radiograph could be taken to assess a molar tooth for extraction

A

False

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26
Q

Impacted lower third molars are a common cause of lower incisor crowding

A

False

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27
Q

An intra-oral periapical radiograph is usually the preferred view when assessing an impacted lower third molar for possible removal

A

False

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28
Q

Essential factors to be considered as part of the radiological assessment of an impacted lower third molar prior to removal include the type of impaction and the relationship to the inferior dental canal

A

True

29
Q

Common types of lower third molar impaction include mesioangular and distoangular impactions

A

True

30
Q

Winter’s (or WAR) lines can be used to assess the depth and angle of impaction of a lower third molar, and therefore help to predict how difficult removal of the tooth will be

A

True

31
Q

If the inferior dental canal appears to narrow in the region of the root apices of a lower third molar, it can be assumed that the inferior alveolar nerve will be at low risk of damage during removal of this tooth

A

False

32
Q

All patients with impacted lower third molars should be offered removal of these teeth when it becomes apparent that they will erupt no further, in order to prevent problems with the adjacent teeth in future

A

False

33
Q

As well as risk of inferior alveolar nerve damage, patients undergoing lower wisdom tooth removal must be warned about risk of damage to their lingual nerve

A

True

34
Q

On clinical assessment of a patient with an ectopic maxillary canine, proclination of the adjacent incisors is likely to indicate that the tooth lies palatally

A

False

35
Q

Ectopic maxillary canines can be located buccally, palatally or in the line of the maxillary arch

A

True

36
Q

An ectopic maxillary canine left untreated in a child patient may resorb the roots of the adjacent incisor teeth, or develop an associated dentigerous cyst

A

True

37
Q

Closed exposure of an unerupted tooth involves the placement of an orthodontic bracket and chain at the time of surgery

A

True

38
Q

The decision of whether or not to treat an impacted tooth varies between patients, and the risks and benefits must always be taken into account and discussed with them

A

True

39
Q

All wisdom teeth where the Inferior dental nerve appears to be in close proximity should have a Cone Beam CT scan undertaken

A

False

The nerve may simply be superimposed

40
Q

Nice guidelines state that any wisdom tooth with 3 or more episodes of pericoronitis associated should be considered for removal.

A

False

2 or more episodes of pericoronitis allows a tooth to be a candidate for removal

41
Q

Patients can be diagnosed with MRONJ if bone remains exposed after 4 weeks.

A

False

42
Q

Paraesthesia could be a symptom of MRONJ.

A

True

43
Q

A patient with a prolonged history of exposed bone who is having pain from the area would be classified as having stage 2 MRONJ.

A

True

44
Q

For a patient at risk of MRONJ extractions in the maxilla are a higher risk than extractions in the mandible?

A

False

45
Q

Before patients start on anti-resorptive medications it is NOT important for them to be dentally fit.

A

False

46
Q

Dental extractions are the most common initiating factor for MRONJ.

A

True

47
Q

A patient with a 2 year history of bisphosphonate use and no other medications or medical problems is at low risk of developing MRONJ following a dental extraction.

A

True

48
Q

A patient with a one year history of taking a bisphosphonate for treatment of bone metastases is at a high risk of developing MRONJ following dental extraction.

A

True

49
Q

A patient with a 1 year history of oral bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis who also takes a salbutamol inhaler and prednisolone for asthma would be at low risk of developing MRONJ following a dental extraction.

A

False

50
Q

Patients who are diagnosed as having MRONJ by their general dental practitioner should be referred to Oral Surgery/Oral and maxillofacial surgery for follow up.

A

True

51
Q

There is no evidence to support the use of a ‘drug holiday’ to reduce the risk of MRONJ.

A

False

52
Q

Patients who are at low risk of MRONJ should NOT have their teeth extracted in general dental practice.

A

False

53
Q

Patients who are at high risk of MRONJ following dental extractions should only have their teeth extracted if the source of infection cannot be removed by restorative means.

A

True

54
Q

For the majority of MRONJ patients the area undergoes complete healing.

A

False

55
Q

Extractions are a common initiating factor for osteoradionecrosis (ORN)

A

True

56
Q

For a patient who has received head and neck radiotherapy, extractions in the maxilla are a higher risk for ORN than extractions in the mandible?

A

False

57
Q

Smoking is not a risk factor for ORN

A

False

58
Q

Head and neck radiotherapy results in hypovascularity, hypocellularity and local hypoxia

A

True

59
Q

Osteoradionecrosis will always cause the patients pain

A

False

60
Q

Patients with large areas of ORN effecting their mandibles can suffer jaw fractures after receiving minimal trauma

A

True

61
Q

A patient with ORN confined to the dentoalveolar bone would be classified on the Notani scale as a grade I

A

True

62
Q

A patient with ORN effecting the mandible below the inferior dental canal would be classified on the Notani scale as a class II

A

False

63
Q

ORN will appear on a radiograph as a well-defined, homogenous, non-corticated radiolucency

A

False

64
Q

Early debridement is important for managing ORN

A

False

65
Q

Hyperbaric oxygen therapy increases the oxygen carrying capacity of the patient’s blood

A

True

66
Q

‘Triple therapy’ includes doxycycline, pentoxifylline and tocopherol

A

True

67
Q

Teeth with a poor prognosis should be extracted before radiotherapy treatment

A

True

68
Q

Oral hygiene and diet advice are unimportant in the prevention of ORN

A

False

69
Q

Teeth should not be extracted less than 10 days before radiotherapy begins

A

True

OSOMOP (14 decks)

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