Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Resp > Resp 3 > Flashcards

Resp 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of ARDS?

A

can be precipitated by Acute Pancreatitis

Bilateral Pulmonary Infiltrates

Hypoxaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How does Fondaparinux work?

A

Antithrombin III activator

Which in turn inhibits Factor Xa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Spirometry unremarkable in suspected diagnosis. Next step?

A

Fractional Exhaled FeNo testing - assess inflammation in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can happen if a pleural effusion is drained too quickly?

A

Re-expansion of pulmonary oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In lung cancer, after chest x-ray, what should bebe performed next?

A

Contrast CT

then biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What should be given to maintain patency of fetal circulation? What could be given to close it?

A

PG to open

NSAID to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Choice of antidepress in adolesc and kids?

A

Fluoxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blunt trauma causing hypotension, raised JVP and and tachycardia. What is likely diag?

A

Cardiac Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is Levine scale?

A

The Levine Scale:
Grade 1 - Very faint murmur, frequently overlooked
Grade 2 - Slight murmur
Grade 3 - Moderate murmur without palpable thrill
Grade 4 - Loud murmur with palpable thrill
Grade 5 - Very loud murmur with extremely palpable thrill. Can be heard with stethoscope edge
Grade 6 - Extremely loud murmur - can be heard without stethoscope touching the chest wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acute SVT managemnt?

A

vagal manoeuvres: e.g. Valsalva manoeuvre, carotid sinus massage
intravenous adenosine 6mg → 12mg → 12mg: contraindicated in asthmatics - verapamil is a preferable option
electrical cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Most reliable film to determine cardiomegaly?

A

PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should need for O2 therapy be assessed?

A

The need for oxygen therapy should be assessed in:

all patients with very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 < 30% predicted)

patients with cyanosis

patients with polycythaemia

patients with peripheral oedema

patients with a raised jugular venous pressure

patients with oxygen saturations ≤ 92% breathing air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What features of an aspirate would indicate and empyema?

A

acidic pH

low glucose

high LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can be given to COPD patients with frequent exarcebations in the last year?

A

Corticosteroids

Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Drugs following STEMI?

A

ACE + Beta blocker + Statin + Aspirin + Clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is PLummer vinson syndrome?

A

dysphagia, glossitis and iron-deficiency anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Management of cord prolapse during labour?

A

To prevent cord compression, it is recommended that the presenting part be elevated either manually or by filling the urinary bladder

Can also consider tocolytics while preparing for CS

18
Q

What is trifascicular block?

A

RBBB +left anterior or posterior hemiblock + 1st-degree heart block

19
Q

what is kussmaul’s sign? seen in what pathology?

A

Kussmaul’s sign (the raised JVP that doesn’t fall with inspiration). These are all classic features of constrictive pericarditis

20
Q

What is a canon A wave? When would you see it?

A

A cannon ‘A’ wave is caused by the ventricles contracting against a closed atrio-ventricular valve and sending a pressure wave up the jugular vein.

This is seen in complete heart block and sometimes pulmonary embolism

21
Q

Side of effect of quinine?

A

hypoglycaemia

22
Q

Depending on drug regime, what are the target hbA1c for patients?

A

Lifestyle 48 mmol/mol (6.5%)
Lifestyle + metformin 48 mmol/mol (6.5%)
Includes any drug which may cause hypoglycaemia (e.g. lifestyle + sulfonylurea) 53 mmol/mol (7.0%)

23
Q

What is the Kleihauer test?

A

A Kleihauer test is a test for FMH which detects fetal cells in the maternal circulation and, if present, estimates the volume of FMH to allow calculation of additional anti-D immunoglobulin. According to BCSH guidelines, it is required for any sensitising event after 20 weeks gestation.

24
Q

What can be used to quantify severity of vomiting in pregnancy?

A

The Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy

25
Q

combined test?

triple test?

quad test?

A

nuchal translucency measurement + serum B-HCG + pregnancy associated plasma protein A

alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin

alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin and inhibin-A

26
Q

What other diseases are associated with Zollinger-Ellison? How else would they present?

A

MEN-I
parathyroid (95%): hyperparathyroidism due to parathyroid hyperplasia
pituitary (70%)
pancreas (50%, e.g. Insulinoma, gastrinoma)
also: adrenal and thyroid

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome typically presents with multiple gastroduodenal ulcers causing abdominal pain and diarrhoea.

27
Q

Suddenly raised LFTs following MI?

A

ischaemic hepatitis

28
Q

What is SAAG? What does it indicate?

A

The serum ascitic albumin gradient

A high SAAG (>11g/L) indicates portal hypertension and the ascitic fluid is a transudate. Causes of this include liver cirrhosis, hepatic failure, venous occlusion (e.g. Budd Chiari syndrome), alcoholic hepatitis, and kwashiorkor malnutrition.

A low SAAG (<11g/L) suggests the ascitic fluid is an exudate. Causes of this include malignancy, infection, pancreatitis and nephrotic syndrome

29
Q

What can be given to avoid hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Lactulose and rifaximin are used for the secondary prophylaxis of hepatic encephalopathy

30
Q

What is stepwise management of variceal bleed? When would you use adrenaline injection?

A

Variceal band ligation is the NICE recommended method of stopping oesophageal variceal bleeding. Sengstaken tube and TIPSS is recommended if this fails

Use adrenaline for other causes of upper GI bleed

31
Q

What is Miller-Fisher syndrome?

A

Rare form of guillan barre

32
Q

Occlusion of which artery = aphasia?

A

Dominant side MCA

33
Q

What is the rosier assessment tool?

A

xclude hypoglycaemia first, then assess the following:

Assessment	Scoring
Loss of consciousness or syncope	- 1 point
Seizure activity	- 1 point
New, acute onset of:	
• asymmetric facial weakness	+ 1 point
• asymmetric arm weakness	+ 1 point
• asymmetric leg weakness	+ 1 point
• speech disturbance	+ 1 point
• visual field defect	+ 1 point

A stroke is likely if > 0.

34
Q

What would cabamezepine make worse?

A

absence seizures

35
Q

What is Lateral Medullary syndrome?

A

A combination of ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy with contralateral hemisensory loss indicates this diagnosis.

36
Q

Treatment for nephrogenic DI?

A

A thiazide like chlorthiazide

37
Q

Component of CHA2DS2-VASc score?

A 
Congestive heart failure	1
H	Hypertension (or treated hypertension)	1
A2	Age >= 75 years	2
Age 65-74 years	1
D	Diabetes	1
S2	Prior Stroke or TIA	2
V	Vascular disease (including ischaemic heart disease and peripheral arterial disease)	1
S	Sex (female)	1
38
Q

Investigation of choice for liver cirrhosis?

A

Transient Elastography

39
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the nipple?

A

Eczema change in nipple

Assoc. with malignancy - most common - ductal invasive carcinoma

40
Q

Side effects of the progesterone only pill?

A

20% of women will be amenorrhoeic
40% will bleed regularly
40% will have erratic bleeding.

41
Q

Instructions of taking POP?

A
  • started before 5th day of cycle = full protection
  • if switching from COCP from end of pill packet = full protection
  • as long as within 3 hrs of normal time, fine, if more than 3 hrs =use condoms until 48 hrs of regular pill taking (cerazette within 12 hrs is fine)
42
Q

COCP rules when missed

A

The standard rule for 2 missed pills is to take 2 pills on the same day, and then continue the pack taking one pill each day as previously until she reaches the end of the pack.

no more than 2 a pills a day

only if 7 pills missed then emergency contraception

Resp (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions