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CLASS 21025 UNIT 3 PMT > REVIEW > Flashcards

REVIEW Flashcards

1
Q

What sxs do you report to the PIC

A

a. SORE THROAT W FEVER (EXLCUDE)
b. VOMITTING (EXCLUDE)
c. DIARRHEA (EXCLUDE)
d. JAUNDICE (EXCLUDE)
e. OPEN CUT/WOUND/BOIL OOZING PUS (RESTRICT)

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2
Q

Exclusion

A

THEY CANNOT WORK IN THE GALLEY TO INCLUDE ADMIN

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3
Q

Restriction

A

NO FORM OF FOOD HANDLING BUT CAN DO THINGS LIKE ADMIN

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4
Q

Who can give diagnoses

A

Medical Professionals can give diagnoses and will only be diagnosed with DIEASES not with SYMPTOMS

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5
Q

Who is the only person who can remove exclusions or restrictions

A

the PIC

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6
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

HEP A

A

Exclusion

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7
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

Salmonella (S. Typhi)

A

Exclusion

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8
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

Norovirus

A

Exclusion

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9
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

Shigella

A

Exclusion

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10
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

EHEC/STEC

A

Exclusion

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11
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

Sore Throat w a Fever

A

Exclusion

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12
Q

EXCLUSION or RESTRICTION:

Open Cut/ounds/Boil

A

Restriction

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13
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

HEP A

A
  1. Regulatory Authority
  2. Medical Note
  3. Jaundice free for 7 days
  4. Jaundice +1 other sx for 14 days
  5. Check immunity
  6. 30 days after exposure/30 days since household exposure is asymptomatic
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14
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

Salmonella

A
  1. Regulatory Authority
  2. Medical Note
  3. 3 Consecutive Stool 4.Samples; 48 hrs after stopping antibiotics
  4. 14 days after exposure/14 days since household exposure is asymptomatic
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15
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

Norovirus

A
  1. Regulatory Authority
  2. Medical Note
  3. 48hrs asymptomatic
  4. 48hr after exposure/48hrs after household exposure is asymptomatic
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16
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

Shigella

A
  1. Regulatory Authority
  2. Medical Note
  3. 2 Negative Stool Samples; 24hrs apart
  4. 72hrs after exposure
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17
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

EHEC/STEC

A
  1. Regulatory Authority
  2. Medical Note
  3. 2 Negative Stool Samples, 24hrs apart
  4. 72hrs after exposure
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18
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

Sore Throat w Fever

A
  1. Medical Note stating that your free of strep and if you’ve been treated.
  2. Neg Strep Test
  3. If positive-antibiotic for 24hrs.
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19
Q

To return from exclusion or restriction:

Open cuts/boils/wounds

A

cover it up with a dry durable tight fitting bandage

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20
Q

Temps for Chicken

A

165/15secs

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21
Q

Temps for Mechanically Injected MEat

A

155/15secs

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22
Q

Temps for Ratites

A

155/15secs

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23
Q

Temps for Commercially Farmed Fish

A

155/15secs

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24
Q

Temps for Raw Meats (beef, eggs, etc)

A

145/15secs

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25
Q

Temps for microwaving meats

A

165/2mins

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26
Q

Lag

A

little bacterial growth.

food only stays in this phase for a couple hours at room temp

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27
Q

Log

A

Bacteria is doubling every 20mins

left of for too long

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28
Q

Stationary

A

Rate of dying and reproducing is the same

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29
Q

Declined

A

all dead from each others toxins

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30
Q

FATTOM

F

A

Food

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31
Q

FATTOM

A

A

Acidity

7.5-4.6pH

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32
Q

FATTOM

T

A

Temperature

Danger Zone:41-135

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33
Q

FATTOM

T

A

Time

4 hours

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34
Q

FATTOM

O

A

Oxygen

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35
Q

FATTOM

M

A

Moisture

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36
Q

What are the two most important in FATTOM

A

Time
Temp

They can be controlled

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37
Q

Can Things just be controlled by Time?

A

Only by regulatory authority

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38
Q

For foods that are normally cold, they cant exceed what temp

A

70 degrees

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39
Q

Can food employees touch RTE foods

A

Only with gloves

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40
Q

Can food employees touch non-RTE foods

A

With bare hands, yes. Minimize the contact tho

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41
Q

Honestly Represented food

A

It is what it says it is

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42
Q

Taking foods off the hot service line and retaining it as leftovers

A

First 2 hours-70 degrees
last 4 hours-41 degrees or lower.
If you cant get it to 41 degrees in 6hrs, you have to discard it.

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43
Q

Where can water come from

A

has to come from an approved water system

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44
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring chlorine residual of bulk supplied potable water is tested daily

A

Foodservice Managers

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45
Q

Light Intensity:

above the floor, walk-in refrigeration units and dry food storage areas

A

108lux (10 foot candles) at a distance of 30in (75 centimeters)

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46
Q

Light Intensity:
self service/salad bar or where fresh produce or packaged foods are sold or offered
reach in and under-counter refrigerators
handwashing, warewashing, and equipment and utensil storage

A

215lux (20foot candles)

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47
Q

How are mops hung

A

shall be placed in a position that allows them to air dry without soiling walls, equipment, the mop hanfle, or suppkies.
The preferred method of storing mops is head down
an angled rack that allows the mop head to hang freely without draining onto the mop handle is also acceptable.
mops are no to touch the wall

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48
Q

How do we deny pests access to the establishment

A

i. Use reputable suppliers.
ii. Keep exterior openings closed tightly.
iii. Screen windows and vents.
iv. Cover drains with grates.
v. Seal cracks in walls, floors, and around equipment

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49
Q

What to do when using pesticides

A

i. Wait until facility is closed and employees are not in the area.
ii. Afterwards, wash, rinse, and sanitize food-contact surfaces.

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50
Q

Characteristic of Cockroachs

A

i. (1) Carry many microorganisms.
ii. (2) Live and breed in dark, moist, hard to clean areas.
iii. (3) Identify by:
1. (a) Strong oily odor.
2. (b) Droppings appear like pepper.
3. (c) Egg casings appear brown, black, or maroon.
4. (d) The most common species is the German cockroach.

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51
Q

Characteristics of Moths and beetles

A

i. The most common problem moths and beetles are:
1. The saw-toothed grain beetle.
2. The rice weevil.
3. The Indian meal moth.

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52
Q

How are toxic Materials stored

A

i. Poisonous or toxic materials shall be stored in a separate locked cabinet or room with restricted access.
ii. Only those poisonous or toxic materials that are required for the operation and maintenance of a food establishment are allowed in a food establishment.

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53
Q
  1. Minimum operational requirements for Food Service in Field Operations
A

a. Ensure field-expedient handwashing facilities are provided at food preparation and serving areas and latrines

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54
Q

another name from commnd surgeon

A

Senior Surgeon

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55
Q

a. Unless operational requirements prohibit, field food operations shall be –

A

i. At least 300 feet (100 yards) from latrines, waste storage, and disposal areas, taking into account gradient and predominant wind direction (e.g. uphill and upwind).
ii. At least 90 feet (30 yards) from sleeping areas and bodies of water.

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56
Q

b. Special considerations for the sanitation center or mess kit laundry include the following:

A

i. 1) Drainage from this operation shall be downhill from the food operation.
ii. 2) Establish procedures to reduce potential insect and rodent harborage.

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57
Q

waterless handwashing may be authorized using an approved hand sanitizer when

A

no other means is available.
food employees shall wear single use disposable gloves when waterless handwashing is the only available means for employee handwashing

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58
Q

Hand Antiseptics must be approved by who

A

the FDA; approved drug products with therapeutic equivalence evaluations

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59
Q

who takes corrective actions to re-chlorinate bulk water that falls below the minimum prescribed residual

A

Food Operations Mandager

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60
Q

Pipes, hoses, and connections meet what standard for potable water

A

NSF/ANSI

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61
Q

who conducts daily inspections of the food operations area for pests

A

PIC

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62
Q

50ppm (FAC) for

A

30Mins

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63
Q

100ppm (FAC) for

A

15mins

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64
Q

200ppm (FAC) for

A

30 secs

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65
Q

50-200ppm and the larger the ppm the (longer/shorter) the time

A

shorter

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66
Q

A consideration for transporting food

A

May not be transported with bulk fuel or chemicals

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67
Q

Food that requires time/temp control safety (TCS) to limit pathogenic microorganism growth of microorganisms

A

Potentially Hazardous Food

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68
Q

Regulatory Authority

A

i. Qualified military or DOD civilian medical personnel who are representing Army, Air Force, Navy or Marine Corps preventive medicine, public health, veterinary services, or the medical commander’s designated representative having jurisdiction over the food establishment

69
Q

PIC

A

i. The individual present at a food establishment who is responsible for the operation at the time of inspection.

70
Q

Medical Authority

A

i. The commander of the medical treatment facility or tactical unit or his/her designated representative, whose authority is above the preventive medicine, public health or veterinary unit designated representative conducting preventive medicine or veterinary inspections or audits under this publication.

71
Q

Food

A

i. Color additive is a dye, pigment, or other substance made by a process of synthesis or similar artifice or extracted, isolated, or otherwise derived from a vegetable, animal, mineral, or other source.

72
Q

Hazard

A

i. As it relates to HACCP means, any biological, chemical, or physical property that can cause an unacceptable risk.

73
Q

f. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP)

A

i. A systematic approach to identifying, evaluating, and controlling food safety hazards.
1. (a) Seven Principles of HACCP
a. 1) Hazard Analysis
b. 2) Identify the Critical Control Points (CCPs) in food preparation.
c. 3) Establish a critical limit which must be met at each identified CCPs.
d. 4) Establish procedure to monitor each CCP.
e. 5) Establish the corrective action to be taken when monitoring indicates a critical limit has been exceeded.
f. 6) Establish procedures to verify the HACCP system is working.
g. 7) Establish effective record keeping that will document the HACCP system.

74
Q

Cross Connection

A

i. Physical link through which contaminates from non-potable sources can enter the potable water supply.

75
Q

DD Form 2973

A

Food Operation Inspection Report

76
Q

ii. DD Form 2974

A

Tactical Kitchen Inspection Report

77
Q

Inspection Ratings:

Fully Compliant

A

No Deficiencies

78
Q

Inspection Ratings:

Substantially Compliant

A

No Imminent Health Hazard (IHH)1; and Two or less Critical findings Corrected Onsite (COS)2; and/or Five or less Non-Critical findings.

79
Q

Inspection Ratings:

Partially Compliant

A

No IHH; and Three or more Critical findings COS; and/or Six or more Non-Critical findings

80
Q

Inspection Ratings:

Non-Compliant

A

IHH is present; or Any Critical finding not COS

81
Q

Critical

A
  1. An asterisk (*) located at the end of a section title or tagline indicates that all of the provisions within that section are critical unless otherwise indicated.
  2. Any unmarked provisions within a section that has an asterisked tagline are critical.
82
Q

Non-Critical

A
  1. Any provisions that are followed by the bold, superscripted letter (N)
  2. All provisions following a tagline that is not marked with an asterisk.
83
Q

Swing

A
  1. Those that may or may not be critical depending on the circumstances.
  2. Any provisions that are followed by the bold, superscripted letter (S)
84
Q

Debitable Provision

A

i. Used to identify compliance criteria. Applies to requirements associated with managing and maintaining food establishments; must adhere to this criteria.

85
Q

Non-Debitable Provision

A

i. Those that end with two digits after the decimal point and the last digit is a zero

86
Q

Vector

A

a. Any arthropod or rodent capable of transmitting disease to individuals, act as intermediate hosts or reservoirs present problems of sanitary or hygienic significance or otherwise affect the health and efficiency of personnel.

87
Q

Host

A

a. Individual potentially susceptible to illness.

88
Q

Reservoir

A

a. (a) Organism where the agent lives and multiplies.

b. (b)Acts as an intermediate host

89
Q

Pesticide

A

a. (a) Any substance or mixture of substance that kills pests.

90
Q
  1. Purpose for Conducting Vector Control Operations
A

a. Vector control preserves the health and morale of Navy and Marine Corps personnel

91
Q
  1. DOD Directive 4150.07
A

Department of Defense Pest Management Program

92
Q

What does the DOD Directive 4150.07 provide

A

a. (1) Provides basics standards and policies governing the navy’s pest control program.
b. (2) Establishes minimum levels of pest control for DOD installations and program policies.

93
Q
  1. OPNAVINST 6250.4C
A

Pest Management Programs

94
Q

What does OPNAVINST 6250.4C do

A

a. (1) Provides Navy and Marine Corps policies and procedures for implementing pest management programs.
b. (2) Minimize the use of pesticides when non-chemical alternatives are available.

95
Q
  1. NAVMED P-5052-26
A

Shipboard Pest Management Manual

96
Q

What does the NAVMED p-5052-26 do

A

a. (1) Outlines DoD, OPNAV and BUMED policies and procedures

b. (2) Provides detailed guidelines for the U.S. Navy Shipboard Pest Management Program

97
Q
  1. Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM)
A

a. Standardizing pesticide and equipment recommended by BUMED for use aboard ship.

98
Q
  1. Commanding Officers
A

a. (1) Ensures that the SMDR responsible for pest control are certified in shipboard pest management.
b. (2) Ensures that only approved pesticides and equipment are stored or used aboard ship.
c. (3) Implements technical guidance from BUMED.

99
Q
  1. Integrated Pest Control and Management Procedures
A

a. a. Navy policy is to employ an integrated pest management program that minimizes pesticide use through the development and implementation of pest management techniques

100
Q

DD 2972

A

Risk Assessment

101
Q

Characteristics of spore forming and examples

A

Clostridium Botilinium
Clostridium Prifringes
Bacillius Cereus
Harder to Kill

102
Q

Characteristics of Non spore forming

A

Can be cooked at normal temp

103
Q

Cleaning

ICE-T

A

Daily

104
Q

Cleaning

Salad Bar

A

8 hours

105
Q

Cleaning

Raw Foods Surfaces

A

4 hrs

106
Q

Cleaning

Dry Rags

A

As needed

107
Q

Cleaning’

Wet Rags

A

Daily

108
Q

Two kinds of natural producing toxins

A

Cigatoxin

Scombroid

109
Q

Onset of sx timeframe for Cigatoxin

A

30mins-6hrs

110
Q

Manual WareWashing

3 sink

A

Wash-110
Rinse-120
Sanitizer-171

111
Q

Manual Ware Washing

Which sinks have thermometers

A

Wash

Sanitize

112
Q

Manual Ware Washing

Which sink has a “kit”

A

Sanitize

113
Q

Manual Ware Washing

How do you get 2 sinks

A

“alt manual warewashing”

approved by regulatory authority

114
Q
  1. Three (DOD) Pesticide Standards
A

a. (1) Restricted
i. (a) For use by trained pesticides applicators.
b. (2) Non-Restricted
i. (b) Does not require special training to apply, but only trained personnel may apply these products on ship..
c. Nonstandard pesticides.
i. Must be approved by the appropriate area entomologist prior to use.

115
Q

a. Pesticide type-by use

A

i. Acaricide
ii. Herbicide
iii. Insecticides
iv. Molluscicide
v. Rodenticide

116
Q

b. Pesticide type-by chemical “Classification Standard Chemical”

A

i. Organophosphate

ii. Chlorinated Hydrocarbons

117
Q

Which chemical pesticide is not currently used by the DoD

A

Chlorinated Hydrocarbons

118
Q
  1. The various formulations into which pesticides may be prepared are
A

a. (a) Oil solution.
b. (b) Emulsions.
c. (c) Suspensions.
d. (d) Dusts.
e. (e) Granules.*

119
Q
  1. FIFRA
A

Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act of 1972

120
Q

What is on pesticide labels

A

b. signal words, antidote statements, and general notice

121
Q

What are the Signal Words

A

c. (1) DANGER: Skull and crossbones, antidote statement, highly toxic.
d. (2) WARNING: No antidote statement, moderately toxic.
e. (3) CAUTION: No antidote statement, slightly toxic.
f. (4) No warning: Comparatively free of toxicity.

122
Q

All pesticides must bear the words

A

Keep out of the reach of children
*In addition name and brand, EPA registration number, ingredient statement, statement of use, directions for use, method of application

123
Q

PPE for Pesticide:

Respirators

A
  1. (a) Must be NIOSH approved.
  2. (b) Ensure the correct type of cartridge/canister to protect against specific gases and vapors.
  3. (c) Changed after 8 hours of use or if a pesticide odor is detected.***
  4. (d) Changed after 4 hours during heavy spraying.***
124
Q

PPE for Pesticide:

Body Protection

A
  1. Change before you go home.

2. A rubber apron should be worn when using highly toxic materials and when mixing.

125
Q

PPE for Pesticide:

Head Protection

A
  1. Always wear something to protect the head
126
Q

PPE for Pesticide:

Hand Protection

A
  1. (b) Ensure they are not fabric lined.

2. (c) Gloves should be tested for leaks on a daily basis.

127
Q

PPE for Pesticide:

Eye Protection

A
  1. Wear either unvented or indirectly vented goggles or a face shield to prevent contamination to the eyes
128
Q

k. Functions of a Navy Entomologist

A

i. (2) Technical assistance
ii. (1) On-site consultation
iii. Recommendations

129
Q

SMDR Responsibilities for pesticides

A

i. (3) Record all pest management activities

130
Q

m. Authorized Shipboard Pesticide List can be found in Appendix A of Shipboard Pest Management pocket guide, 2009

A

i. Combat Quick Kill - Bait station

ii. Maxforce Roach killer - Gel bait

131
Q

n. Exposure to Organophosphate

A

irreversible cholinesterase inhibition.

  1. 2 to 4 mg of atropine sulfate intravenous
  2. 2 PAM Chloride, 1 gm IV slowly, may be used for supportive therapy
132
Q

o. Carbamate Poisoning

A
  1. Central nervous system depressant/stimulants.

1. 2-4 mg atropine sulfate IV

133
Q

p. Organochlorine poisoning

A
  1. Central nervous system depressant/stimulants
  2. 2-4 mg atropine sulfate IV
  3. Give calcium gluconate (10% in 10 mL ampules) IV q 4 hours
134
Q

q. Procedures for pesticide spill kit

A

i. Confine
ii. Use absorbent material like earth, sand, or dirt
iii. Shovel all material into leak-proof barrel
iv. Treat contaminated surfaces with detergent and water or chlorine bleach (do not use latter with organochlorines)

135
Q

r. Pest Control Reporting Requirements

A

i. SAMS
ii. Separate Pest Control Log
1. Pesticide use

136
Q

Use e-DD1532-1 form to record and report pest management activities

A

i. Send the form monthly to NECE by e-mail

137
Q

a. (1) Body Louse***
i. Usually found on areas of the body other than head and neck
ii. Attaches nits to clothing and undergarments.

A
  1. Pediculus Humanus Humanus
138
Q

a. (1) Head Louse***
i. Usually found on the head and neck.
ii. Can be located in other hairy parts of the body.
iii. The egg of the head louse (called a “nit”) is cemented to the hair.

A
  1. Pediculus Humanus Capitis
139
Q

a. Crab Louse
i. Usually found on hairs in the pubic, anal regions, and eyebrows.
ii. cememnt nits to the hair

A
  1. Phthirus Pubis
140
Q
  1. Control Methods for ALL lice
A

a. Usually found on hairs in the pubic, anal regions, and eyebrows.
b. Wash all clothing and linens at 37.8ºC (100ºF) or higher.
i. This greatly reduces eggs from hatching.

141
Q

iii. Most common indoor species, especially in and around food services spaces and facilities.

A
  1. German Cockroach
142
Q
  1. German Cockroach
A

i. Has two longitudinal dark stripes near the head.
ii. Female produces an average of 6 egg capsules in a lifetime.
1. 50 eggs per capsule
iv. Need food, water, harborage, and warmth for growth and survival

143
Q
  1. Brown-banded cockroach
A

a. Two yellow cross bands near the base of the adult wings and two transverse light bands on the dorsal surface of the nymphs
b. Prefers living rooms, dining rooms and bedrooms and closets of dwellings.
c. It is a common pest in hotels and motels and often found in hospital wards.
d. It is not considered a food service area species.

144
Q
  1. American Cockroach
A

a. The anterior dorsal plate behind the head has conspicuous yellow posterior border strip.
b. Filthy habits, moving from shelter or breading area to food sources
c. Potential dangerous disease vector.

145
Q

most important non-chemical measure.

A
  1. Sanitation
146
Q
  1. Surveillance and Chemical control
A

a. Flushing agents are useful in locating cockroach harborage
b. Survey every 2 weeks in food service areas

147
Q

c. After applying pesticides

A

i. Refrain from a complete field day on treated spaces for 24 hours to prevent insecticides from being washed out

148
Q

Pests in Storerooms:

Lightly Infested

A
  1. less than 7 beetles per pound (other than dermestid species and flour beetles). Should be removed immediately and placed in a freezer space for at least 3 days and used as soon as possible thereafter
149
Q

Pests in Storerooms:

Freezing Pests

A
  1. Two weeks at 0 degrees F is required to kill all stages of the insects.
150
Q

Pests in Storerooms:
Dermestid Larva
Flour Beetle
Insects

A

iii. If the dry stores are infested with 1 living or dead dermestid larva, or 3 flour beetle adults or larvae per pound, or 7 insects (adult or larvae) of any other kind per pound, then the product is unfit for consumption
1. Dispose of the product

151
Q

What are the characteristics of a house fly

A

i. Most widely distributed insect of importance to mankind.
ii. Eggs
1. Deposited in decaying vegetable and animal matter, garbage, animal/human fecal material, and contaminated soil.
iii. Has 4 equally broad, dark longitudinal stripes
iv. Has non-biting, sponging mouth parts

152
Q

Disease Importance of House flies

A

i. Good mechanical vector
ii. Habitually walks on organic filth.
iii. Can carry many disease organisms or cause myiasis

153
Q

Disease Importance of blow flies

A

i. Although rarely a public health concern, their larvae (called surgical maggots) may cause myiasis.

154
Q

Characteristics of adult Sand Flies

A

i. Bodies/wings are densely covered with hair.

ii. Only females have piercing mouthparts for sucking blood.

155
Q

Disease Importance of Sand Flies

A

i. Bacterial (Bartonella).
ii. Viral (Sand fly or pappataci fever).
iii. Protozoal (Leishmaniasis).

156
Q

Characteristics of TSE TSE flies

A

i. Easily identified by the way they fold their wings when resting.
1. Scissor-like fashion above the abdomen.
2. Easily identified by the way they fold their wings when resting.
3. Scissor-like fashion above the abdomen. Both sexes are blood suckers.

157
Q

Disease Importance of TSE TSE Flies

A

transmitting trypanosomiasis.

158
Q

Characteristics of Black Flies

A

i. Female species may feed on man as well as domestic and wild animals, leaving a large size bite wound.

159
Q

Disease Importance of Black Flies

A

i. Capable of vectoring Onchocerciasis. River blindness

160
Q

Characteristics of horse/deer flies

A

i. Inflict exceedingly painful bites

161
Q

Disease Importance of Horse/Deer Flies

A

i. 1) Bacterial (anthrax and tularemia).
ii. 2) Protozoan (trypanosomes)
iii. 3) Helminthic (Loa loa) infections. Loiasis or African eye worm

162
Q

Characteristics of Eye Gnats

A

i. Very small flies, given their name for their predilection for eye secretions.
ii. They are also attracted to wounds, pus, and sebaceous secretions.
iii. They are able to abrade wound edges and the conjunctival epithelium with their mouthparts equipped with upturned spines designed as effective cutting instruments.

163
Q

Disease Importance of Eye Gnats

A

i. No significant disease occurrence

164
Q
  1. Controlling house and blow flies
A

a. The problem may be best corrected by removing or containing garbage onboard, or by controlling any nearby breeding source ashore.
b. (4) Miscellaneous control measures:
i. (a) Screens.
ii. (b) Fans.
iii. (c) Fly paper.
iv. (d) Baited traps.

165
Q
  1. Controlling Sand Flies
A

a. elimination of potential breeding Application of residual sprays

166
Q
  1. Controlling Black Flies
A

a. larvicides to the streams
b. where the immature forms are developing.
c. (2) Personal protective measures are considered essential.
d. (3) Use of protective netting and fabric

167
Q
  1. Controlling Horse or Deer Fly
A

a. Control of these pests is difficult and frequently ineffective.

168
Q
  1. Controlling Eye Gnats
A

a. aerial and ground delivered

b. sprays and aerosols have generally been unsuccessful.

CLASS 21025 UNIT 3 PMT (2 decks)

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