Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP 3 COPY > Rheumatology > Flashcards

Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

A woman > 50 y/o presents with at least 6 weeks of symmetrical joint pain and morning stiffness involving multiple joints of the hands and lasting for more than 1 hour in the morning most likely suffers from ..

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are 8 possible criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis? (of which you only need 4)

A
  1. morning stiffness lasting more than 1 hour
  2. wrist and finger involvment (PIP, MCP)
  3. swelling of at least 3 joints (except sacroilliac)
  4. symmetrical
  5. presence of rheumatoid nodule
  6. X-ray abnormalities showing erosions
  7. positive rheumatoid factor (RF) or anti-CCP
  8. elevated C-reaction protein (CRP) or ESR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the single most accurate test for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti- cyclic citrulinated peptide (anti-CCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A pt presenting with rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly and neutropenia most likely suffers from …

A

Felty’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the most important step in management prior to intubating a pt with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

check for C1/C2 cervical spine subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

…. is flexion of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint with hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint

A

Boutonniere deformity

associated with rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

… is extension of the proximal interphalageal (PIP) joint with flexion of the distal interphalageal (DIP) joint

A

Swan neck deformity

associated with rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 4 criteria involved in the new alternate diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  1. synovitis (can be single joint)
  2. positive rheumatoid factor (RF) or anti-CCP
  3. elevated ESR or CRP (C-reactive protein)
  4. prolonged duration (>6 weeks)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the characterisitic hematologic finding in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

normocytic, normochromic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the initial steps in management of a suspected rheumatoid arthritis pt? (7)

A
  1. X-rays (erosions)
  2. Rheumatoid factor
  3. anti-CCP
  4. CBC (anemia)
  5. ESR
  6. CRP (C-reactive protein)
  7. aspiration of joint (if effusion present)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the best initial therapy for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDs with methotrexate (a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug- DMARD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the adverse side effects of methotrexate?

A
  1. bone marrow suppression
  2. pneumonitis
  3. liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the next best step in management of a pt with rheumatoid arthritis in which NSAIDs and methotrexate have not been successful?

A

add biologic agents (infliximab, adalimumab, etanercept block TNF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an adverse side effect of using hydroxycholorquine (type of DMARD)?

A

retinopathy (pt will require regular eye exams)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an adverse side effect of using sulfasalazine (type of DMARD)?

A

bone marrow suppresion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rituximab (alternate DMARD)?

A

anti-CD20 antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the mechanism of action of anakinra (alternate DMARD)?

A

IL-1 receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tocilizumab (alternate DMARD)?

A

IL-6 receptor antagonist (added to methotrexate if needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the mechanism of action of leflunomide (alternate DMARD)?

A

pyrimidine antagonist (less toxic than methotrexate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of abatacept (alternate DMARD)?

A

inhibits T-cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the major side effect of gold salts (used as alternate DMARD)?

A

nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An acutely ill rheumatoid arthritis pt with severe inflammation should receive what other medication other than NSAIDs and a DMARD as initial therapy?

A

steroids such as prednisone (bridge to DMARD therapy; allow time for DMARD to take effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A young male pt (

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

also associated with uveitis, aortitis, restrictive lung disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for ankylosing spondylitis?

A

MRI of sacroilliac joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What diagnostic tests should be performed when a pt presents with suspected ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  1. X-ray (followed by MRI)
  2. HLA-B27 (positive)
  3. ESR (elevated)
  4. rheumatoid factor (negative)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the best treatment for ankylosing spondylitis? (3)

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. biological agents (infliximab, adalimumab)
  3. sulfasalazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A pt with the history of GU/GI infection presents with asymmetric arthritis (especially involving the knee), conjunctivitis, urethritis/ cervicitis/ circinate balantis (lesion around penis head) and keratoderma blenorrhagicum most likely suffers from …

A

Reactive arthritis/ Reiter’s syndrome

triad of knee (joint), pee (urinary), see (eye)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the treatment for reactive arthritis/ reiter’s syndrome?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A pt with a history of silvery scaled patches on their skin presents with nail pitting, arthritis of the sacroiliac spine and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint, sausaged shaped fingers (dactylitis) and inflammation of tendinous insertion sites (enthesitis), negative for rheumatoid factor but positive for HLA-B27 most likely suffers from …

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

joint involvement with history of psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the best initial treatment for psoriatic arthritis?

A

NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the best treatment for resistant psoriatic arthritis?

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a disease that can possible occur from the use of anti-TNF agents?

A

reactivation of TB (old TB encased in granuloma held together by TNF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A pt presenting with fever, myalgias, lymphadenopathy, polyarthritis, salmon-colored rash, hepatosplenomegaly, elevated transaminases, positive for HLA-B27 and negative for rheumatoid factor most likely suffers from…

A

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis (JRA; adult-onset Still’s disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the treatment for juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?

A

NSAIDs (use steroids if unresponsive to NSAIDs then use DMARD to get off steroid if needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the diagnostic findings associated with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis? (3)

A
  1. very high ferritin
  2. elevated WBC count
  3. negative for rheumatoid factor (RF) and ANA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A pt presents with history of diarrhea, fat malabsorption (steatorrhea, vitamin ADEK deficiency) and weight loss presenting with joint pain most likely suffers from …

A

Whipple Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the treatment for Whipple Disease?

A

trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for Whipple Disease?

A

bowel biopsy showing PAS positive organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An older pt presents with joint pain and morning stiffness that last less than 30 minutes with associated creptius of the joint, affecting the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint, with the presents of osteophytes on DIP and/ or PIP joint most likely suffers from …

A

Osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are Herberden’s nodes?

A

DIP (distal interphalangeal) joint osteophytes (associated with osteoarthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are Bouchard’s nodes?

A

PIP (proximal interphalageal) joint osteophytes (associated with osteoarthritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the best initial test for osteoarthritis?

A

X-ray of the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the best initial step in management for a pt presenting with suspected osteoarthritis? (5)

A
  1. ANA
  2. ESR
  3. Rheumatoid factor
  4. anti-ccp
  5. aspirate joint fluid (WBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the best treatment for osteoarthritis?

A

acetominophen (with weight loss and exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the 11 criteria used for diagnosing systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)? (4 of which are needed)

A
  1. malar rash (butterfly)
  2. photosensitivity rash
  3. oral ulcer rash
  4. discoid rash
  5. arthalgias (joint pain)
  6. hematologic abnormality (RBCs, WBCs, platelets)
  7. renal abnormality (proteinuria to end stage)
  8. neurological abnormality (behavioral, stroke, seizure, meningitis)
  9. serositis (pericarditis, pleuritic chest pain, pulmonary HTN, pnemonia, myocarditis)
  10. positive ANA
  11. positive dsDNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the best initial test for systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)?

A

ANA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the most accurate test for systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)? (2)

A
  1. anit- ds DNA

2. anti-Sm (most specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the best tests to follow the severity of a systemic lupus erythematous flare-up? (2)

A
  1. complement level (decreases in flare)

2. anti-dsDNA (increases in flare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the best initial step in management of a pt with suspected systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)?

A
  1. complement levels
  2. anti-Sm
  3. anti-dsDNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What disease is a baby of a pregnant woman with lupus at risk for if anti-Ro or anti-SSA antibodies are present?

A

heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the treatment for acute flare-ups of systemic lupus erythematous?

A

steroids (prednisone); if severe disease relapse after cessation of steroids, use belimumab, azathioprine, cyclophosphamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the treatment for joint pain of systemic lupus erythematous?

A

NSAIDs (if joint pain or rash persist use hydroxychloroquine)

53
Q

What is the treatment for nephritis in systemic lupus erythematous?

A

steroids and mycophenolate mofetil

54
Q

what are the three most common causes of drug- induced lupus?

A
  1. hydralazine
  2. procainamide
  3. isoniazid (INH)
55
Q

What is the major difference between drug-induced lupus and systemic lupus erythematous? (3)

A
  1. drug induced results in anti-histone antibodies and always has positive ANA
  2. no renal/ CNS involvement in drug induced
  3. complement level and anti-dsDNA is normal in drug induced
56
Q

A female pt presents with dry eyes, dry mouth, sensation of sand under they eyelid, loss of taste and smell, presence of anti-Ro/SSA and/ or anti-La/SSB and has history of teeth loss at an early age most likely suffers from …

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

can also have ANA and RF present

57
Q

What is the most accurate test for Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

lip biopsy

58
Q

What is the schirmer test and what disease is it used for?

A

decreased wetting of paper held to eyes showing decreased lacrimation; Sjogren’s syndrome

59
Q

What is the treatment for Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

pilocarpine- everywhere and cevimeline- salivary glands (increase ACh to increase oral and ocular secretions)

60
Q

A pt presents with tight, fibrous thickening of skin, sclerodactyly (immobile fingers), raynaud’s phenomenon (painful vascular hyperreactivity turning white-> blue-> red), giant capillaries in nail folds, and mild symmetrical joint pain most likely suffers from …

A

Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)

61
Q

What other systems besides skin and joints are involved in Scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)?

A
  1. lung (fibrosis, pulmonary HTN)
  2. GI (reflux, barrett’s esophagus, primary biliary cirrhosis)
  3. heart (restrictive cardiomyopathy
  4. renal (malignant HTN)
62
Q

What diagnostic test is specific for scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)?

A

Antitopoisomerase (anti-Scl 70)

63
Q

What is the treatments used for the different systems affected in scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)?

A
  1. renal & HTN: ACE inhibitor
  2. pulmonary HTN: bosentan, prostacyclin analogs, sildenafil
  3. raynaud’s: calcium channel blocker
  4. GERD: PPI
  5. lung fibrosis: cyclophosphamide
64
Q

A pt presents with calcinosis of the fingers, raynaud’s phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia most likely suffers from …

A

CREST syndrome (limited scleroderma)

65
Q

What diagnostic findings is more commonly associated with CREST syndrome (limited scleroderma)?

A

anti-centromere antibodies

66
Q

A pt presents with thickened skin that looks like scleroderma, “orange peel” appearance (peau d’ orange), and marked eosinophilia that worsens with exercise most likely suffers from …

A

Eosinophilic fasciitis

67
Q

What is the treatment for eosinophilic fasciitis?

A

steroids

68
Q

A pt presents with inability to stand from seated position without using arms, muscle pain and tenderness, proximal muscle weakenss, elevated CPK and elevated aldolase most likely suffers from …

A

Polymyositis

69
Q

A pt presents with rash, inability to stand from seated position without using arms, muscle pain and tenderness, proximal muscle weakenss, elevated CPK and elevated aldolase most likely suffers from ..

A

dermatomyositis

70
Q

What are Gottron’s papules and what disease are they associated with?

A

rash over metocarpophalangeal joint; dermatomyositis

71
Q

What is a heliotrope rash and what disease is it associated with?

A

periorbital, purplish lesion around eyes; dermatomyositis

72
Q

What is the Shawl sign and what disease is it associated with?

A

erythema of the shoulder and neck; dermatomyositis

73
Q

What is the most accurate test for polymyositis and dermatomyositis?

A

biopsy

74
Q

What is the initial best step in management for suspected polymyositis and dermatomyositis? (5)

A
  1. liver function test
  2. CPK (elevated)
  3. aldolase (elevated)
  4. ANA
  5. electromyogram (abnormal EMG)
75
Q

What disease is a pt with signs and symptoms of polymyositis/ dermatomyositis with presents of anti-Jo1 antibody at risk for?

A

interstitial lung disease

76
Q

What is the most common serious complication of polymyositis/ dermatomyositis?

A

cancer

77
Q

What is the treatment for polymyositis/ dermatomyositis?

A

steroids

78
Q

A female pt presents with muscle aches, muscle stiffness and pain that can be triggered by palpation at certain locations on the body, nonrefreshing sleep and may have depression and/or anxiety most likely suffers from …

A

Fibromyalgia

79
Q

What is the best initial treatment for fibromyalgia?

A

milnaciprin, duloxetine, or pregabalin
(with exercise)
(second line is TCAs)

80
Q

A pt > 50 y/o presents with fatigue/ malaise, profound muscle pain and stiffness of the proximal muscles (shoulders, pelvic girdle) that is worse in morning and has associated elevated ESR and normocytic anemia most likely suffers from …

A

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

81
Q

What is the treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

steroids

82
Q

A pt presenting with fatigue and malaise lasting more than 6 months and history of nonrefreshing sleep without any other abnormalities most likely suffers from …

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome

83
Q

A pt presents with fatigue, malaise, weight loss, fever, abdominal pain, renal involvement, testicular involvement, pericarditis, HTN, Hep B surface antigen, elevated ESR, joint pain and neuropathy most likely suffers from …

A

Polyarteritis Nodosa

type of vasculitis
(tx: prednisone and cyclophosphamide)

84
Q

What is the best initial test for Polyarteritis Nodosa?

A

angiography of abdominal vessels

85
Q

What is the most accurate test for vasculitis?

A

biopsy

86
Q

What is the best initial treatment for vasculitis?

A

steroids (prednisone and glucocorticoids)

87
Q

A pt presents with upper and lower respiratory involvement, fever, malaise, joint pain and has c-ANCA present most likely suffers from ..

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis

tx: prednisone and cyclophosphamide

88
Q

A pt presents with fatigue, fever, skin lesion, joint pain, neuropathy along with eosinophilia, asthma and possibly p-ANCA or anti-myeloperoxidase most likely suffers from ..

A

Churg-Strauss

tx: steroids

89
Q

A pt presents with headache, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, scalp tenderness and elevated ESR most likely suffers from…

A

Temporal arteritis (Giant cell arteritis)

90
Q

What is the best initial step in management of a pt with suspected temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)?

A

give steroids (then perform tempral artery biopsy)

91
Q

A young asian pt presents with history of fatigue, weight loss, arthralgia, anemia and increased ESR and develops loss/ decrease of pulses and may have had a stroke/ TIA most likely suffers from …

A

Takayasu’s arteritis

tx: steroids

92
Q

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for suspected takayasu’s arteritis?

A
  1. aortic arteriography

2. magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)

93
Q

What disease is associated with cryoglobulinemia?

A

Hepatits C

94
Q

A pt presents with fatigue, malaise, skin lesions, joint pain, hepatitis C and renal involvement most likely suffers from …

A

cryoglobulinemia

presence of cryoglobulins and rheumatoid factor

95
Q

What is the treatment for hepatitis C (associated with cryoglobulinemia)?

A

interferon and ribavirin

96
Q

A pt of middle eastern/ asian decent presents with oral and genital ulcers, uveitis/ optic neuritis, and hyperreactivity to needlesticks (pathergy) most likely suffers from …

A

Behcet Disease

tx: prednisone and colchicines

97
Q

A man presents with sudden onset of severe toe pain that started at night, the toe is red, swollen and tender, and he has a history of binge drinking/ thiazide use/ nicotinic acid use most likely suffers from …

A

Gout

98
Q

What is the best initial test for gout?

A

arthrocentesis (joint fluid aspiration)

99
Q

What is the most accurate test for gout?

A

polarized light exam showing negatively birefringent needles

100
Q

What are diagnostic tests that can be used to detect gout? (4)

A
  1. athrocentesis (cell count, culture, protein level)
  2. serum uric acid
  3. X-ray of toe (punched out lesions)
  4. extremity exam for tophi
101
Q

What is the best initial therapy for acute gouty attack?

A

NSAIDs (use steroids if unresponsive or NSAIDs contraindicated)

102
Q

When should colchicine be used in gout treatment?

A
  1. within 24 hour of attack

2. and if NSAIDs (renal insufficiency) and steroid can not be used

103
Q

What are the side effects of colchicine?

A
  1. nausea
  2. diarrhea
  3. bone marrow suppression
104
Q

What is the best preventative treatment for gout?

A

allopurinol (lowers level of uric acid)

as well as weight loss and avoiding alcohol

105
Q

What is the next best preventative treatment for gout if patient is intolerant of allopurinol?

A

febuxostat (xanthine oxidase inhibitor lowers uric acid)

106
Q

What are the side effects of allopurinol?

A
  1. rash
  2. allergic interstitial nephritis
  3. hemolysis
107
Q

What is the third line preventative treatment for gout when allopurinol and febuxostat are not enough?

A

uricase (rasburicase, pegloticase) break down uric acid

108
Q

What is the reason probenecid and sulfinpyrazone are rarely used as preventative treatment for gout anymore?

A

increase urinary excretion of uric acid which is problematic in renal insufficiency

(they are never the right answer)

109
Q

A pt with history of hemochromatosis/ hyperparathyroidism/ acromegaly/ hypothryoidism presents with joint inflammation of the knee and wrist that developed over a period of time most likely suffers from …

A

Calcium Pyrophosphate Deposition Disease (Pseudogout)

tx: NSAIDS or steroids

110
Q

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (pseudogout)?

A

polarized light exam of fluid showing positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

111
Q

A pt presents with a swollen, red, immobile, tender joint and has a history of an arthritic/ prosthetic joint most likely suffers from …

A

Septic arthritis

Usually Staph > Strep> gram negative rod

112
Q

What is the best initial test for septic arthritis?

A

arthocentesis (joint fluid aspiration) showing > 50,000 WBCs

113
Q

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for septic arthritis?

A

culture of joint fluid (too timely)

114
Q

What is the best initial empiric therapy for septic arthritis?

A

ceftriaxaone and vancomycin

115
Q

What other treatment combinations can be used to treat septic arthritis?

A
  1. anti-Staph & Strep (oxacillin, nafcillin, cefazolin) with anti-gram negative (ceftriaxone, ceftazidime, gentamicin)
  2. if penicillin allergic: anti Stap & Strep (vancomycin, linezolid, daptomycin, clindamycin) and anti- gram negative (aztreonam, fluoroquinolone)
116
Q

A pt presents with pain, stiffness, aching, history of fractures and bowing of the tibia with possible sarcoma most likely suffers from…

A

Paget’s Disease of Bone

117
Q

What is the best initial test for paget’s disease of bone?

A

alkaline phosphatase level (elevated)

118
Q

What is the most accurate test for paget’s disease of bone?

A

X-ray (osteolytic lesion early; osteoblastic lesions late)

119
Q

What tests should be order when paget’s disease of bone is suspected?

A
  1. alkaline phosphatase
  2. x-ray
  3. urinary hydroxyproline
  4. serum calcium level (normal)
  5. serum phosphatase level (normal)
  6. bone scan
120
Q

What is the treatment for paget’s disease of bone?

A

bisphosphonates and calcitonin

121
Q

A pt with history of osteoarthritis/ rheumatoid arthritis presents with swollen calf (posterior herniation of the synovium of the knee) most likely suffers from …

A

Baker’s cyst

if ruptured, pseudo-phlebitis

122
Q

What diagnostic test is important to perform in a pt with suspected Baker’s cyst?

A

ultrasound to exclude DVT

123
Q

What is the treatment for Baker’s cyst?

A

NSAIDs and steroid injection (if needed)

124
Q

A pt presents with pain on the bottom of the foot that is extremely severe in the morning but gets better with walking a few steps most likely suffers from ..

A

Plantar fasciitis

125
Q

What is the treatment for plantar fasciitis?

A

foot and calf stretches

126
Q

A pt presents with pain on the bottom of the foot that is more painful with use and is associated with sensory deficits (numbness) most likely suffers from ..

A

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

127
Q

What is the treatment for tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A

avoid boots and high heels (use steroid injections or surgery if needed)

128
Q

A pt presents with sharp, intermittent pain radiating into the toes that improves when shoes are removed, painful burning sensation in the interdigital web space between 3rd and 4th toes and tenderness when pressure is applied between head of 3rd and 4th metatarsals most likely suffers from …

A

morton neuroma

STEP 3 COPY (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions