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SAS Airbus 350 > SAS A350 Limitations, need & nice to know > Flashcards

SAS A350 Limitations, need & nice to know Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum Battery voltage

A

25V

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2
Q

Initial Engine spool-up for take-off is

A

25% N1

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3
Q

When do you use Full FWD stick for T/O?

How do you set Thrust in this case?

A

When any tailwind or when crosswind > 25 kts:

  • Reach CL setting at 20 kts
  • Reach FLX/TOGA at 40 kts
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4
Q

Engine cool-down time?

A

5 min

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5
Q

ICE ACCRETION minimum speed?

Does this speed cover WAI inop?

A

Clean: GDS
Landing Config (3 or FULL): Keep VLS+5

Yes

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6
Q

When should you avoid retracting FLAPS after LDG?

A

With ICE accretion

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7
Q

On approach, when does the PM call out “SPEED” (from target)?

A

-5 to +20 kts

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8
Q

On approach, when does PM call out “PITCH”?

A

Below 0 or above +10 degrees

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9
Q

On landing, when does PM call out “BANK”

A

Above 6 degrees

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10
Q

On approach, when does PM call out “SINK RATE”?

A

Above 1200 FPM

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11
Q

During a go-around, when does PM call

“PITCH”?

“SINK RATE”?

A

Pitch above 20˚ or below 10˚

If no climb rate

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12
Q

What is the lowest LVO landing minima with NWS or ANTI-SKID inop or when runway is contaminated?

A

LAND 3 single:
- First segment 175m (600 feet) RVR (2nd segm. 125 m RVR (600 feet USA))
- DH at least 50 feet…

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13
Q

Which deceleration do the different Autobrake modes provide?

BTV
BTV CONTAM
MEDIUM
RTO

A
  • BTV targets a ground speed equal to 10 kt, approx. 60 m before the selected exit.
  • BTV CONTAM provides a constant deceleration of 3 m/s² limited by A-SKID
  • BRK MED provides a constant deceleration of 3 m/s²
  • RTO mode provides maximum braking performance limited by A-SKID.
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14
Q

When does the AUTOBRAKE activate during an RTO?

A

When the ground spoilers extend and GS above 40 kt.
(Spoilers extend > 72 kts wheel speed)

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15
Q

DECEL on SPD SCALE means?

A

Deceleration rate has reached at least 80 % of the selected deceleration

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16
Q

When does the PM call “CROSS TRACK” on approach?

How about “COURSE”?

A

CROSS TRACK
When XTK > 0,1 NM

COURSE
VOR APPR > 1/2 dot = 2,5˚
NDB APPR > 5˚off course

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17
Q

PM calls “LOC” when?

A

More than 1/2 dot deviation

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18
Q

PM calls “GLIDESLOPE” when?

A

More than 1/2 dot deviation

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19
Q

On approach PM calls “VDEV” when?

A

1/2 dot / 50 feet deviation

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20
Q

On approach PM calls

“ON PROFILE”,
“SLIGHTLY HIGH / LOW” and
“HIGH / LOW” when?

A

On an approach using V/S or FPA, call-outs are made in reference to the temperature corrected altitudes over published points/distances:

On profile: within 50 feet of target
Slightly: 50-100 feet deviation
High/low: more than 100 feet deviation

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21
Q

When may you leave the FLIGHT DIRECTORS on below minima?

A

When GP is relevant - Anchor point is the runway threshold

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22
Q

When may you arm an ILS approach?

A
  • Within coverage (OM-A: within 10˚ and 24nm (Some cases 18nm))
  • Cleared for approach
  • Intercept trajectory for the final approach course
  • LOC deviation is available on the PFD.
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23
Q

When may you arm an RNP approach?

A
  • Cleared for approach
  • Intercept trajectory for the final approach course
  • Next waypoint is the FINAL descent point
  • F-LOC/XTK deviation is available on the PFD.
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24
Q

When is an ILS or LOC approach stabilized?

(LOC, G/S or path)

A

ILS: Max 1 dot from Localizer / Max 1 dot from GP
LOC: Max 1 dot from Localizer / Along the vertical profile

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25
Q

When is an RNP approach stabilized?

A
  • XTK within 1/2 RNP (brief deviations up to RNP) and MAX XTK 0.2 nm
  • V/DEV within 75 feet / ¾ dot. (Above 1000’ more than 75’ above profile is allowed)
  • If using FPA: Along the vertical profile
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26
Q

When is a VOR or NDB approach stabilized?

A

VOR:
Max ½ dot or 2.5 ° from inbound track /
Along the vertical profile

NDB:
Max 5 ° from inbound track /
Along the vertical profile

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27
Q

What are the SPEED and THRUST criteria for a STABILIZED approach?

A
  • Aircraft at target speed (-5/+10) and thrust stabilized, usually above idle.
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28
Q

Stabilized concept: Wings level and along desired flight path at what altitude for a circling and visual approach?

A

300 feet for circling

500 feet for visual

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29
Q

For an approach to be STABILIZED the maximum rate of descent is?

A

1500 FPM

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30
Q

At what altitude must an approach be stabilized and what are the call-outs if:

  • SPEED above target but decreasing at 1000 feet AAL?
  • NOT STABILIZED at 1000 feet AAL, but VMC?
  • SPEED above target at 500 feet AAL?
A

All approaches shall be planned to be stabilized at 1 000 ft AAL. In IMC all approaches must be stabilized at 1 000 ft AAL (except SPEED/THRUST if decelerating towards target) and in VMC not later than 500 ft AAL.

  • “1000 feet, NOT STABILIZED, SPEED”
  • “1000 feet, NOT STABILIZED, VMC”
  • “500 feet, NOT STABILIZED, GO-AROUND”
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31
Q

What is an SBAS approach? Lowest minima?

A

Satellite Based Augmentation System LPV – Localizer Performance with Vertical guidance This correspond to an ILS CAT I accuracy and is flown with SLS as guidance function and indicated on the PFD

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32
Q

What is an GBAS approach? Lowest minima?

A

GBAS – Ground Based Augmentation System

The accuracy is such that LAND 1 capability is reached.

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33
Q

How does the PM call out altitude and distances on a 2D approach?

A

Ex. “On profile. Next is 6 miles at 1860 feet”

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34
Q

When do you need to do an Engine run-up?

How do you do it?

A
  • OAT 0˚C or below
  • Freezing fog/drizzle with visibility < 1000m
    and
  • Engines running more than 10 minutes.

50% N1 for 10 seconds, every 10 minutes.
Brakes on and notify TWR.
Record time in these conditions in the logbook.

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35
Q

What does RAW ONLY mean for a VOR or NDB approach?

For a LOC, ILS G/S OUT, LOC B/C approach?

A

For VOR and NDB approaches:
- Use TRK-FPA guidance.
- Monitor and fly on VOR or NDB signal.

How about for a LOC, ILS G/S OUT, LOC B/C approach:
- Track LOC signal
- Use FPA vertical selected mode (disregard G/S indication)

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36
Q

Is VFE NEXT always available on the speed tape?

If Slats or Flaps are jammed, What is VFE NEXT based on?

A

No. It is only displayed below 22.000 ft

Actual Slat/Flap position

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37
Q

Low Visibility Take-off means RVR below?

Special requirements for LVTO?

A

RVR less than 550 m

LVO operations in use and
LVTO shall be performed by the L/P

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38
Q

What is a pre takeoff check?

What if the HOT is expired?

A

Whenever conditions are such that frost, ice and snow might be present on the critical surfaces, the CDR shall perform a Pre-takeoff Check within 2 minutes of commencing takeoff roll. Ways to do it:
- Mental Review
- Check of a Representative Surface
- Check of Wings

If HOT expired a new de/anti-icing is required.

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39
Q

With BA POOR, rwy code 1 or FC 0.25–0.20, the CDR should?

A

…carefully consider wind, gross weight, runway and taxiway state etc, before deciding to take-off or land

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40
Q

Operations with BA NIL, rwy code 0 or FC below 0.20 is?

A

Prohibited

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41
Q

If a runway width exceeds 45 meters, snow clearing to 45 meters is considered as the entire width. What is the minimum cleared width for A350?

A

45 m

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42
Q

When different braking actions are reported along a runway, which value should be applied?

A

For maximum crosswind, use lowest value for the whole runway.

If required runway LENGTH is less than available runway, lowest value for required runway length.

If different BA/FC are given on the required WIDTH of the runway, the lowest value applies.

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43
Q

Do you need a fueling supervisor before fueling while boarding?

A

Yes. Usually ground personel, but can also be one of the pilots, if no other personel available. Agreed upon 2-way communication like TAC must be used or visual contact with fueling supervisor (standard fire/rescue hand signals should be used in case of spill or fire):
- Hand across neck below face to stop fueling.
- Right arm making a figure 8, while left pointing upwards for engine fire or downward for brake fire.

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44
Q

FD tasks for fueling while boarding?

A

Flight Crew shall:
- Set Seat Belts signs OFF
- FD manned (coordinate if crew change)
- Establish two-way communication with fueling supervisor (TAC, Flight interphone, verbal or agreed hand signals)
- Inform CC and passengers that fueling will take place.
- Inform Gate Personnel that boarding may start.
- Stop the fueling immediately if vapour detected or other hazards during fueling.
- Inform cabin crew when fueling completed (or turn on fasten seat belt sign)

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45
Q

RVR value in feet in the SAS LVO GUIDE applies to?

A

Operation in the US and Canada

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46
Q

Which 6 tasks are included in the PFI?

A

External Inspection (EI)
Preflight Emergency Equipment Check
Check of Aircraft Technical Log Book
Aircraft Fueling – Documentation
Departure Check
External surface / Contamination Check
(Performed by FD on SH. Trained maintenance/ground personnel on LH)

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47
Q

When shall the number of passengers seated in fwd and aft sections of the aircraft be counted and checked against the Loadsheet?

A
  • When total number of passengers is 25–210
  • On request from the CDR.
  • On flights with “free seating”.
  • On transit flights with passengers boarding and/or disembarking during intermediate ground stops.
  • In case of unusual distribution of passengers in the cabin.
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48
Q

When should pilots use supplemental oxygen?

A
  • When cabin altitude exceeds 10 000 ft after 30 minutes
  • When cabin altitude exceeds 13 000 ft.
  • On non-pressurized flights, continuously when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
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49
Q

What is a type A approach?
Type B?

A

Type A: DH >= 250’

Type B: DH < 250’

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50
Q

Minimum RFFS for departure and destination airports?

Alternates and temporary downgrade of the above?

ETOPS enroute alternates (available with 30 minute notice)?

A

9 (E in the US)

7 (C in the US)

4 (A in the US)

In flight, the CDR may decide to land at an open aerodrome regardless of the RFFS category if, in his judgement, to do so would be safer than to divert.

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51
Q

What is the 60 minute diversion distance?

180 minute?

A

427 NM

1241 NM

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52
Q

Which winds are reported in true and which in magnetic?

A

If you read it,​ it’s​ true:
•​ ​ METAR, TAF, upper winds​ ​​

​If you hear it, it’s magnetic:
​•​ ​ ATIS and​ tower/controller reported wind​

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53
Q

What is the difference between Landing distance affected and Landing performance affected?

A

If Landing performance is affected = revised Vapp speed

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54
Q

When using BTV you must check the ND runway length vs. airport data (LIDO). What is the limit?

A

The LDA displayed on the ND (left upper corner) must not exceed the LDA published in airport data by more than 35 m (115 ft).

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55
Q

What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIB approach?

A

75m or published value if higher

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56
Q

What is the procedure for In-Flight contingencies in Oceanic airspace?

A
  • Attempt to get ATC clearance
  • Maintain level or minimize level change
  • Turn 30˚ right and offset 5 NM
  • LIGHTS ON, visually scan and monitor TCAS for traffic
  • Alert other aircraft on 121,50 and 123,45
  • Below FL285 -> diversion
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57
Q

Failures that qualify for an ETOPS diversion (OM-A):

A
  • Electrical failures with only power from a single primary source.
  • Smoke warnings except when positively identified as harmless.
  • Hydraulic failures that seriously restricts the operation
  • Explosive decompression or other structural damage.
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58
Q

What is the NAV ACCURACY required in NAT HLA airspace?

A

10 NM on Random ROUTES

4 NM on Organized Tracks

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59
Q

Describe the BANK ANGLE protection

A
  • Max 67˚ bank (60˚ high lift situation)
  • Returns to 33˚with stick neutral
  • Turn coordination
  • “BANK, BANK” auto call below 100 feet and bank above 6˚

With High SPEED or High AOA protection:
- Max 45˚ bank

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60
Q

Describe the PITCH ATTITUDE protection

A

Pitch is limited to:
- Max 30˚ Nose up (25˚ at low SPD)
- Max 15˚ Nose down
Tail strike prevention:
- “PITCH PITCH” auto call above 10,5˚ degrees below 50 RA
- Pitch limit displayed on PFD for landing

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61
Q

How does the LOW ENERGY protection work?

A

Aural call “SPEED, SPEED, SPEED” if speed between Vls and Va prot:
- 2500’ to 100’ RA on landing
- 200’ to 2500’ RA on takeoff

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62
Q

Explain the ALPHA FLOOR function?

A

Automatically sets TOGA thrust when one of the following conditions is true:
- The angle of attack is above α-floor
- The angle of attack protection is active, and sidestick close to full back stick
- The speed is below VLS -5 kt and autopilot engaged in cruise above 25 000 ft

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63
Q

When is the REACTIVE WINDSHEAR alert active?

A

From 50 to 1300 feet

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64
Q

How does the AOA protection work?

A
  • Limits stick input between Va prot and Va max.
  • Bank angle limited depending on load factor (max 45˚ bank)
  • Pitch up trim frozen = static stability
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65
Q

How does the HIGH SPEED protection work?

A
  • OVERSPEED aural warning depending on acceleration rate.
  • SPEED BRAKE auto extention/retraction

With High SPEED protection active:
- Max bank 45˚
- Pitch trim frozen
- Pitch increases with speed
- Spiral stability - bank reduced to 0˚ with stick released

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66
Q

What does the LOAD LIMIT protection do?

A

Limits G-Loads in NORMAL LAW to:
+2,5 to -1 clean configuration
+2 to 0 slats extended

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67
Q

Environmental/Temperature limits?

For takeoff and landing?

A
  • -80C up to 43100´
  • Minimum TAT -52C

Takeoff & landing
- 2000’ to 12500’
- SL -54C to +55C

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68
Q

Minimum runway width (SAS)

A

45m

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69
Q

Minimum taxiway width (SAS)

A

22m

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70
Q

MAX x-wind for T/O?
- Dry and wet
- RWYCC 4, 3, 2, 1

A

35kts

27/20/20/15kts

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71
Q

MAXIMUM x-wind landing
- Dry and wet
- RWYCC 4, 3, 2, 1

A

40 kts

27/20/20/15 kts

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72
Q

What is the MAXIMUM tailwind for T/O and Landing?

A

15kts for T/O, 10kts for landing

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73
Q

MAX wind for pax door operation?

At what wind speed should operation be suspended (OM-A)?

A

40kts

60kts

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74
Q

MAXIMUM windspeed for cargo door operation?

A

40kts (close before 60kts)

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75
Q

MAX GEAR extended and operating speed (Vle/lo)

A

250kts/M.55

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76
Q

MAX GEAR gravity extension SPEED?

A

220kts/M.48

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77
Q

MAXIMUM tire speed:

A

204kts

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78
Q

What is the MAXIMUM airspeed with wipers on?

A

230kts

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79
Q

Low TAKEOFF WEIGHT restrictions for the A350

Below 175T? Below 160T?

A

Below 175T and CONF 3: no FLEX.

Below 160T with crosswind more than 25 kts: D12, D16, D20 or D24 mandatory

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80
Q

When may you engage the AUTOPILOT after takeoff?

A

At least 5 sec after lift-off

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81
Q

Minimum AUTOPILOT height after manual G/A

A

100 feet

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82
Q

Minimum autopilot height F-G/S, Final APP, APP-DES, V/S or FPA

A

200 feet

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83
Q

Minimum autopilot height APPR 1

A

160 feet

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84
Q

Minimum autopilot height LAND 1,2,3

A

0 (80´ manual landing)

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85
Q

Minimum autopilot height Circling

A

500 feet

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86
Q

Minimum RNP with GPS primary
- ENROUTE,
- TERMINAL AREA,
- ON APPROACH

A

ENROUTE 1 NM
TERMINAL AREA 0,5 NM
ON APPROACH 0,3 NM

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87
Q

What is the maximum wind for an AUTOLAND
HEADWIND/CROSSWIND/TAILWIND?

A

40/30/10kts

Based on the surface wind reported by the tower

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88
Q

MINIMUM AUTOLAND weight?

MAXIMUM?

A

140T

Depending on the situation up to MTOW

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89
Q

AUTOLAND G/S angle?

Maximum elevation?

A

2,5-3,5

9200’

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90
Q

With one Engine Inop, the AUTOLAND FLAP Configuration is?

A

3 or FULL

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91
Q

LAND 3 DUAL alert height

A

200 feet

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92
Q

MINIMUM Glide Path height over Threshold GHT?

A

43’

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93
Q

How long may you operate with APU OIL LVL LO

A

MAX 20 hrs

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94
Q

Maximum APU start attempts

A

MAX 3 consecutive start attempts followed by 60 minutes before new attempt

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95
Q

Maximum altitude for APU BLEED engine start?

A

25000`

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96
Q

Max altitude APU Single PACK

A

25000´

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97
Q

Maximum altitude APU Dual PACK operation

A

22500´

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98
Q

MINIMUM ENG OIL

A

13 qts

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99
Q

Maximum Engine continuous starter operation is 5 min, but how do you count it?

Cool down after that?

A
  • Two consecutive cycles of 3 min maximum, plus one additional cycle of 1 min, with a run down to zero N3 and wait 30 s between each cycle, or
  • One 5 min cycle

Wait 30 min after the last cycle to allow the starter to cool

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100
Q

Engine warm-up before Takeoff

A

5 min (2 min if shut down 90 min or less)

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101
Q

MAX Engine time in FZFG before T/O?

A

1 C > OAT => -9 C: 120 min.
OAT < -9C: 80 min

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102
Q

MAXIMUM altitude with Flaps/Slats extended?

A

20000´

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103
Q

The Fuel positive temperature limit is +55 C (same as the aircraft max operating temperature).

Negative temperature limit JET A, A1 and TS-1?

A

+55 C

-40 C for JET A
-47 C for JET A1
-50 C for TS-1

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104
Q

MAXIMUM Fuel imbalance

A

3000 kgs

In abnormal conditions (e.g. fuel system failures) the above-mentioned maximum fuel imbalance values may be exceeded without significantly affecting the aircraft handling qualities. The aircraft remains fully controllable in all phases of the flight.

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105
Q

Maximum brake temperature for takeoff

A

300C

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106
Q

Minimum Cockpit OXYGEN pressure

A

750 psi (1050 if 3 occupants on FO or CDR side)

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107
Q

Runway slope limit

A

+/- 2 %

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108
Q

Vmo / Mmo

A

340 kts / M .89

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109
Q

What is Vmc (approximately) during landing?

During takeoff?

A

122 Kias

131 Kias at SL for all configurations

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110
Q

What is the Max taxi weight?

Max takeoff weight?

A

268,9 T

268 T

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111
Q

What is the Max landing weight?

Max zero fuel weight?

A

205 T

192 T

112
Q

Minimum takeoff weight?

Minimum weight in flight (landing)?

A

144 T

127 T

113
Q

The ram air inlet only opens, if the differential pressure is?

A

Below 2 PSI

114
Q

APPROACH BASED ON RADIO NAVAIDS and F-APP + RAW displayed on FMA.

You must?

A
  • Tune and monitor nav-aid during the approach
  • Check crossing altitudes on the glide path
115
Q

Where do you find a list of equipment, not monitored by the FG, but required to perform an ILS CAT II or CAT III approach with autoland?

A

QRH OPS

FCOM/LIM/AFS

116
Q

May you start the APU during fueling?

A

Yes, but not permitted if the APU has failed to start or an automatic shutdown has occurred.

A normal APU shutdown must be completed if a fuel spill has occurred during the refuel/defuel procedure

117
Q

May you use the HF radio during fueling?

A

No

118
Q

Time and EGT limits for TOGA?

A

5 min AEO,

10 min OEI and Max 900 C EGT

119
Q

EGT limits for ENGINE starting? MCT and Engine starting in flight?

A

Starting 700 C

850 C for MCT and starting in flight

120
Q

Engine Oil temp limits?

A

Max +180C
Min for start -40C
Min for takeoff +50C

121
Q

Minimum Engine Oil pressure?

A

25 psi

122
Q

When is the use of reverse thrust prohibited?

A
  • Prohibited in flight and for backing the aircraft.

Maximum reverse should not be used below 70 kt (or when the indication starts to fluctuate). Idle reverse is allowed down to aircraft stop.

123
Q

When may you use rain repellant?

A

Only in heavy rain

124
Q

Restrictions for Taxiing on deflated tires?

A
  • Maximum taxi speed 3 kt
  • Maximum NWS angle 30 °
  • Maximum one flat tire pr. axle (nose and main fwd/aft).

If tire damage is suspected, the flight crew must ask for an aircraft inspection prior to vacate the runway or taxi

125
Q

Backup Steering Function (BSF) must not be used?

A
  • On contaminated runways,
  • For turns more than 90 °,
  • To perform more than 2 turns.
126
Q

The use of the airport moving map is not authorized on?

A

PF display during takeoff

127
Q

TRUE reference must be selected

A
  • North of 82 ° North
  • North of 73 ° North between 90 ° and 120 ° West (magnetic polar region)
  • South of 60 ° South.
128
Q

Using BTV for landing on a contaminated runway, the flight crew must set the LDG PERF CODE?

A

At or below 4, regardless of the available airport reports (e.g. Pilot Report or Estimated Surface Friction = Good).

129
Q

ROW/ROP is certified for?

A
  • Thrust reversers available,
  • No failure affecting landing performance (Vapp speed addition)
  • Dry, wet and contaminated runways,
130
Q

In exceptional conditions (in-flight turnback or diversion), an immediate landing at a weight above maximum landing weight is permitted…

A

… provided that the flight crew follows the overweight landing procedure (even autoland)

131
Q

Can you use bleed air from the APU BLEED and from the HP Air Start Unit at the same time?

A

No

132
Q

In order to prevent any adverse effect on the Air Conditioning system:

A
  • Do not use conditioned air from the packs and from the LP air conditioning unit at the same time
  • Do not set the AIR FLOW selector to HI if an LP air conditioning unit is used and the aircraft is electrically powered.
133
Q

ILS CAT I automatic landing can be performed on ILS CAT I airport installation, or on CAT II/III airport installation when Low Visibility Procedure (LVP) are not applicable, provided:

A
  • ILS beam quality, and terrain profile must be evaluated by the company.
  • LOC or G/S beam fluctuations may occur.
  • Be prepared to immediately disconnect the autopilot.
  • At least LAND2 capability is displayed and CAT II/III procedures used.
  • Visual references at DH for ILS CAT I approach.
134
Q

FLEX TEMP cannot be:

A
  • Higher than ISA + 60.
  • Lower than the flat rating temperature (TREF = ISA+15 for PA below 2000’)
  • Lower than the actual OAT.
135
Q

Considerations when using Derated thrust:

A
  • Selecting TOGA thrust only permitted for abnormal or emergency procedures AND above F-Speed.
  • Derated and FLEX may not be used together
  • Permitted on Dry and contaminated runway.
  • Review F Speed during takeoff briefing
136
Q

The use of GA SOFT mode is prohibited…

A

… with one engine inoperative.

137
Q

During ground fueling operations, you are only permitted to use these exterior lights:

A
  • Navigation lights (NAV sw),
  • Logo lights (LOGO sw),
  • Wing and engine scan lights (WING sw).
138
Q

The ROW/ROP may be inhibited for specific approach procedures which have previously been identified as potentially producing undue ROW alerts.

How do you do this?

A
  • The ROW/ROP pb-sw on the SURV overhead panel, or
  • The TERR SYS button on the MFD SURV page, if the ROW/ROP pb-sw is not installed (only when aircraft position is less than 15 NM from the airfield)
139
Q

The terrain display is intended to serve as a situational awareness tool only, and may not provide the accuracy on which to solely base terrain avoidance maneuvering.The TAWS function should be inhibited (TERR SYS button set to OFF on the MFD SURV/CONTROLS page):

A
  • For operations from/to runways not incorporated into the TAWS database
  • For specific approach procedures, which have previously been identified as potentially producing false terrain alerts.

The TAWS should be inhibited when the aircraft position is less than 15 NM from the airfield.

140
Q

The performance of the ROLL OUT mode is demonstrated on dry and wet runways (performance on contaminated runways has not been demonstrated). If the flight crew keeps the AP engaged during rollout on a contaminated runway, they must apply the following:

A
  • Use most restrictive maximum crosswind limit (man or auto)
  • Be ready to disengage the AP and take over manually.
141
Q

Using APU Air for Wing anti-ICE is

A

Prohibited

142
Q

What does AP IN PROT on the FMA mean?

A

The aircraft is out of the normal flight envelope) while the AP is engaged.

When the AP is in protection mode:
- The AP IN PROT message appears on the FMA, below the lateral and vertical modes
- The FMA displays an amber flashing box around the vertical mode, if the AP is not able to maintain the vertical guidance
- A triple click sounds.

143
Q

What Flight envelope protections exist in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

All protections are indicated as lost. However some protections are still available but, depending on the failure, may not be as efficient as in normal laws.

The OVERSPEED and STALL warnings remain available.

144
Q

What are the biggest differences between ALTERNATE and DIRECT LAW?

A
  • A direct relationship between the sidestick position and the elevator position.
  • No autotrim (Pitch trim using the PITCH TRIM sw)
  • No FLIGHT DIRECTOR and AUTOPILOT
145
Q

When does ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW activate?

A
  • Pitch attitude above 50 ° nose up or 30 ° nose down
  • Bank angle above 120 °
  • Angle-of-attack above 37.5 °
  • Speed above 420 kt or below 70 kt
  • Mach above M 0.98 or below M 0.11.
146
Q

How is BACKUP CONTROL activated and how does it work?

A
  • At the loss of all flight control computers

A backup generator supplied by yellow hyd. pressure, electrically powers inner AILERONS, RUDDER and ELEVATOR TRIM.

147
Q

What is the length and width of the A350-900?

A

Length 67m
Width 65m

148
Q

What is limiting in a minimum turn on the ground and what is the radius?

A

The wing and minimum turn is 47 m

149
Q

Minimum runway width for a 180˚ turn (Dry runway)?

A

53 m

150
Q

At what CABIN altitude does the “CABIN PRESS EXCESS CAB ALT” come on?

A

9550’

151
Q

What rate of CLIMB does GO-AROUND SOFT aim for?

A

2300 FPM. Provides TOGA thrust if less than that.

152
Q

How is MANAGED approach speed calculated (G/S mini add-on)?

A

Vapp speed + 0.3 * (present headwind - Tower headwind)

Minimum Vapp - maximum VFE next (VFE-5 if flaps FULL)

153
Q

What does the SRS mode assure you?

A
  • A positive rate of climb
  • A pitch angle protection to reduce the nose-up (Max 15 ° pitch)
  • A speed protection, that ensures the aircraft does not exceed VFE.
154
Q

What is the SPEED target in SRS takeoff mode?

If an Engine fails?

A
  • On ground: V2
  • Airborne: V2+10 kt
  • OEI = current aircraft speed at the engine failure, limited to a speed between V2 and V2+15 kt
155
Q

What does the AUTO EMERG DESCENT mode provide?

A
  • Auto Emergency Descent to FL 100 or MORA + 3-6000’
  • The FDs engage, if not engaged
  • The A/THR activates, if not active
  • The AP engages, if EMER DES was automatically armed
  • The speed brakes fully extend, if EMER DES was automatically armed
  • Automatic RA during descent
  • The XPDR automatically squawks 7700
  • The TCAS display mode is automatically set to BLW.
156
Q

The AUTO EMER DESCENT function arms automatically:

A
  • Auto cabin pressure: cabin alt predicted > 14 000 ft in the next 15 s, or
  • Manual cabin pressure: cabin alt predicted > 16 000 ft in the next 15 s.
157
Q

How can you manually ARM and DISARM AUTO EMERG DESCENT?

How do you initiate descent?

A
  • Push the ARM button once to arm (steady light) and once to disarm.
  • If flashing (AUTO ARMED) push once to arm and once to disarm.

Initiate descent by extending the SPEED BRAKE lever 1/3 or more or wait for the 15 sec count down.

158
Q

What HDG/TRK does AUTO EMERG DESCENT fly during descent (HDG/TRK versus NAV mode)?

A
  • If in HDG/TRK mode before the AUTO EMERG DESCENT, the autopilot continues on that heading.
  • If in NAV mode before the AUTO EMERG DESCENT, the autopilot reverts to HDG and guides laterally to reach an approximate offset of 3 NM right of current FMS FLT PLN leg.
159
Q

The LAND mode tracks the LOC and G/S beams from?

A

400 ft RA to approximately 60 ft RA.

160
Q

What does THR LK on the FMA mean?

A
  • A/THR involuntary disconnected.
  • Engines maintain the thrust they had before disconnect, until the flight crew moves the thrust levers.
161
Q

How can you permanently disconnect A/THR (including A FLOOR) for the rest of the Flight?

A

Press and holds one A/THR instinctive disconnect pushbutton for more than 15 seconds

162
Q

The FPV(VV) indicates TRK and FPA with respect to the ground. When does it change from FPV to VV?

A
  • With TRK-FPA flying reference, the symbol is larger and is called FPV.
  • With the HDG-V/S flying reference, the symbol is smaller and is called VV (blackbird).

To display the VV, you must press the VV pb on the EFIS CP.

163
Q

When flying a FD-approach with TRK/FPA selected, you get a symbol know as Flight Path Vector (hPFD).

What do the chevrons on the sides indicate?

What does the stick symbol above/below the left Wing indicate?

A
  • Chevrons indicate speed trend with current thrust setting.
  • Stick symbol indicates speed relative to desired.
    • 1 full stick above wing = + 10 kts
    • 2 Sticks 20 kts.
    • Dashed sticks above 20
164
Q

When does the AUTOLAND light flash?

A

When the aircraft is in autoland below 200 ft RA, and the required conditions to perform an autoland are no longer applicable:

  • The last AP disengages,
  • LOC transmitter failure or excess deviation 200-15’
  • GS transmitter failure or excess deviation 200-100’
  • RA failure (diff on remaining 2 RA >15’)
  • Long flare
  • A/THR failure
  • A-floor condition occurs
165
Q

When does the LOC deviation scale flash?

A

Below 1000 feet during an LS approach:
- If the LOC deviation is more than one quarter dot for more than two seconds (above 15 ft RA).

166
Q

When does the GS deviation scale flash?

A

Below 1000 feet during an LS approach:
- If the GS deviation is more than one dot for more than two seconds (above 100 ft RA).

167
Q

The FMS Optimum Flight Level is the flight level at which the?

What is it based on?

A

Fuel consumption is the lowest.

It is based on:
- The aircraft gross weight
- The FMS speed mode (ECON(CI)/LRC)
- The temperature and winds
- Engine and wing anti-ice off
- A minimum cruise time of 5 min at the OPT FL.

168
Q

The FMS computes the Recommended Maximum Flight Level. At the REC MAX FL, the aircraft:

A
  • Can fly at a speed between GDOT and VMO/MMO
  • Can keep a thrust rating less than the maximum thrust for cruise
  • Has a buffeting margin of 0.3 g.
  • Minimum vertical speed of 300 ft/min at max CLB thrust.
169
Q

When the aircraft reaches 90 kt, the Takeoff Monitoring Function TOM compares the real distance covered with the distance corresponding to nominal performance. It warns if?

A

Aircraft performance is degraded > 15 % and triggers the T.O ACCELERATION DEGRADED ECAM alert.

170
Q

The FMS computes the runway length available for takeoff, and the liftoff distance and compares it to available runway length. How and when would it warn you?

A

If the calculated liftoff distance is more than the available runway length:
- The FMS message T.O RWY TOO SHORT CHECK TOW & T.O DATA is deplayed
- T.O RWY TOO SHORT alert, when the flight crew presses the T.O CONFIG pb
- T.O RWY TOO SHORT alert, when the engines are set to takeoff power.

171
Q

In the emergency electrical configuration the emergency busses are powered by?

A
  • The RAT provides 230 V AC
  • Two emergency transformer units (ATU EMER 1 & 2) provide 115 V AC power from 230 V
  • One DC Static Inverter (STAT INV) can also provide some AC 115 V power from DC 28 V battery power
172
Q

Each battery has a capacity of 50 Ah. Their essential purpose is?

A
  • To ensure No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) function
  • To start the APU when no AC power available
  • To energize the DC network for ground operations (refuel, maintenance, and towing).
173
Q

What is the difference between selecting SIDE 1&2 ISOL ON and selecting BUS TIE OFF?

A

SIDE 1&2 ISOL (SMOKE procedure):
- The side 1 & 2 busbars are disconnected from each other (remain connected on side)

BUS TIE OFF (EMERG CONFIG proc.):
- The normal AC and DC busbars are disconnected (AC 1A, 1B, 2A & 2B, DC 1 & 2)

In both cases the emergency busbars remain connected.

174
Q

Where do we have Fire and overheat detection?

Smoke detection?

Fire extinguishing?

A

Fire and overheat detection:
- The engines
- The APU
- The Main Landing Gear (MLG) bay

Smoke detection
- The cargo compartments
- The lavatories
- The FCRC and CCRC
- The avionics, IFE and BBAND bay

Fire extinguishing
- The engines
- The APU
- The cargo compartments
- The lavatories

175
Q

What happens when you push the ENG FIRE P/B?

A

When pressed, the system:
- Stops the aural fire warning
- Arms the squibs on the fire extinguishers = bottles ready to discharge.
- Closes the low-pressure fuel valve
- Closes the hydraulic fire shutoff valve
- Closes the engine bleed valve
- Closes the pack flow control valve
- Shuts off the FADEC power supply.

176
Q

How do the CARGO FIRE bottles discharge?

A
  • Bottle 1 first discharges extinguisher agent in the affected cargo compartment. This takes approximately 1 min.
  • Bottle 2 then slowly discharges extinguisher agent, to provide sufficient extinguisher agent concentration in the affected cargo compartment for at least 195 min
177
Q

What do PRIMs do?

A
  • Compute control laws and characteristic speeds.
  • Command the flight control surfaces.
  • Compute the Load Alleviation Function (LAF) law
  • Host the autopilot, flight director and autothrust functions.
  • Host the flight envelope protection
  • Host functions like BTV and ROW/ROP.
  • The inhibition function of the thrust reversers (Third line of defense
178
Q

When do the SPEED BRAKES AUTO RETRACT?

A
  • Alpha protection activated (not sure if they mean AOA or A-FLOOR?)
  • A go-around initiated.
179
Q

When do the GROUND SPOILERS extend during an RTO:

A

Armed: TLs at IDLE and speed above 72 kts

Not armed: Reversers selected and speed above 72 kts

180
Q

The WTBs mechanically lock the slats(flaps) transmission shaft when?

How do you know if the WTBs are engaged?

A

Both SLAT(FLAP) CTL detect:
- A runaway
- Asymmetry
- An overspeed.

The “LOCKED” text on the slat/flap display

181
Q

The Automatic Retraction System (ARS) automatically retracts the flaps, when?

A

The aircraft reaches a speed of 210 kt, and still in CONF 1+F.

182
Q

The Automatic Extension System (AES) automatically extends the flaps, when?

A

The aircraft speed goes below 203 kt, if still in CONF 1.

183
Q

Flap Load Relief System (FLRS) limits the loads on the flaps, in the case of a VFE exceedance (available in CONF 2, 3, or FULL) by?

A
  • Retracts the flaps at VFE + 2.5 kt (before the overspeed warning at VFE + 4 kt) to the next position
  • Pulsing F RELIEF on Slat/Flap display
  • The PFD still indicates the VFE that corresponds to the selected position
  • The FWS triggers an overspeed warning, if the speed exceeds VFE of the actual slats/flaps configuration + 4 kt (does not consider the selected lever position).
  • When the VFE is no longer exceeded, the flaps automatically extend again
184
Q

What does a pulsing A. LOCK message on the Flap/Slat display of the PFD mean?

A

Alpha/speed lock function inhibits retraction of the slats when:
- AOA is above 10.6 °, or
- The speed is less than 140 kt.

185
Q

The slats/flaps cruise baulk function will maintain the slats and flaps in their fully retracted position in case the?

A

FLAPS lever is inadvertently moved from 0 to 1 during cruise

The ECAM will trigger the F/CTL FLAP LVR NOT ZERO warning.

186
Q

Automatic refueling up to 45T should leave fuel only in?

A

The Wing tanks

187
Q

How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?

A

Through heat exchangers in the wing fuel tank

188
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the forward brakes, nose wheel steering, nose gear retraction?

AFT brakes and main gear retraction?

A

YELLOW system

GREEN system

189
Q

Is the tail (stabilizer and rudder) anti-iced?

A

No

190
Q

If the PFD/ND display fails, it is automatically reconfigured to?

The ECAM screen?

A

The OIS screen

The MFD screen

191
Q

What does the DISPLAY CYCLE AVAIL mean?

A

You can cycle through Pages after an Automatic reconfiguration

192
Q

What does BKUP SPD, ISIS SPD and a red SPD LIM on the speed tape mean?

A

BKUP: Speed scale showing speed data from FADECs

ISIS: Speed scale showing speed data from the ISIS

SPD LIM: Vls and Vmax limits lost

193
Q

What does a level 3 ECAM indicate?

A

An emergency situation that requires immediate flight crew action, because:
- The aircraft is in a dangerous configuration, or in a limiting flight condition
- A failure of a system affects the safety of the flight.

194
Q

What does a level 2 ECAM indicate?

A

An abnormal situation that the flight crew should be aware of, but does not require immediate action, because the failure does not immediately affect the flight.

195
Q

A level 1 ECAM indicates?

A

A situation that requires the flight crew to be informed (crew awareness), and may require flight crew action (e.g. redundancy loss, or system degradation).

196
Q

What is a PRIMARY ECAM failure (amber box around item)?

A

A failure that affects a system, and causes the loss or the degradation of other systems.

197
Q

What happens when you push the EMER CANC button?

A
  • Cancels audio and MASTER WARN light (remains displayed on the WD. Warning can be triggered again)
  • Cancels single chime and MASTER CAUT light (Cancelled for the remainder of the flight. Appears in CANCELLED CAUTION - STATUS MORE page)
  • Cancels audio indicators and aural alerts (Can trigger again)
  • Deactivates an activated not-sensed procedure (not recommended)
198
Q

When is the A-SKID not available?

A
  • In alternate braking mode with accu pressure < 1 600 PSI
  • In emergency and parking brake modes.
  • At low speed (below 10 kt).
199
Q

Explain the alternate braking mode

A
  • Accumulator pressure (braking performance degraded)
  • A-SKID available if accu pressure > 1 600 PSI
  • A/BRK available if at least one BRAKE CTL is operative and accu pressure > 1 600 PSI
  • Pedal braking available.
  • Nose-high braking law is active (limits braking force on MLG to avoid a hard touchdown of the NLG.
  • Automatic retraction braking not available
  • Backup steering function available (diff. braking) if GREEN hydraulic system not affected.
200
Q

Explain the EMERGENCY BRAKE mode

A
  • Accumulator power (perf. degraded)
  • Only manual braking.
  • The brake pressure limited to 1 130 PSI
  • 6 brake pedal applications (still pressure for parking brake)
201
Q

The Backup Steering Function (BSF) permits the flight crew to steer the aircraft when?

How does it work?

A
  • Nose Wheel Steering (NWS) failed and the nose wheel is free to swivel, or if the yellow hydraulic circuit is lost.
  • Uses differential braking using tiller or rudder pedals
202
Q

What does an arc over a BRAKE temp indicate?

A

The hottest BRAKE (only above 100˚)

203
Q

With the LOGO LT in auto, the lights come on?

A

On Ground or

In Flight with slats extended

204
Q

The cabin emergency lights can be controlled by?

Come on automatically when?

A

Controlled by:
- The flight crew - EMER EXIT LT sw
- The cabin crew - EMER pb-sw on FAPs.

Come on AUTOMATICALLY when either:
- 115 V AC power for general lighting not available or
- The DC power or DC EMER power supply no longer available.

205
Q

The Fasten Seat Belt and the Return To Seat signs automatically come on in the cabin when?

A

At least one engine is running and:
- The slats are extended, or
- The landing gear is extended.

206
Q

What is the FMS default RNP limit value for

  • En route and oceanic
  • Terminal and takeoff
  • Approach
A

En route and oceanic: 2 NM
Terminal and takeoff: 1 NM
Approach: GPS and RNAV 0.3 NM
Other cases 0.5 NM

207
Q

With the AIR DATA selector on CAPT ON BKUP you get?

A

FADEC Air data to the captains side via the PRIMs

208
Q

The TAWS database contains the following data?

A
  • A terrain and obstacle database (man-made > 100 ft)
  • An aircraft performance database (to compute climb capability - modulated to avoid nuisance errors)
  • A runway database with all hard surface runways 3 500 ft or more (including orientation, elevation, and slope)
209
Q

When is the PWS function available?

A

WXR/PWS AUTO or WXR ON and:
- During takeoff up to 100 kts
- In flight from 50 to 1500 ft AGL.

210
Q

PWS alerts are inhibited (takeoff & landing)?

A
  • At takeoff from speed above 100 kt and up to 50 ft.
  • At landing below 50 ft

Visual and aural warnings are downgraded to cautions from 370 ft AGL to 50 ft AGL, and range from 0.5 NM to 1.5 NM.

211
Q

What does the ROW/ROP function do?

A
  • Calculates and monitors landing distance.
  • Predicts and warns of possible overrun.
  • Orders max braking when BRK MED or BTV is active)

Note:
In the case of a failure affecting the landing performance, the ROW line on the ANF is not displayed and the ROW/ROP remains armed. Alerts may be triggered based on the landing distance computed without failure.

212
Q

When do the passenger oxygen masks deploy?

A
  • Pushing MAN MASK button or
  • CABIN altitude above 13800’
213
Q

How is the Engine Oil cooled?

A

Fuel Oil heat exchanger

214
Q

When does the FADEC use both igniters?

A
  • After a failed Automatic start or
  • During a manual start
  • After detecting a possible flame-out
215
Q

When is an Engine Quick relight a possibility?

A starter assisted relight nescessary?

A
  • When N3 is above 10%
  • When N3 below 6% or airspeed below 250 kts
216
Q

What is the maximum altitude for GA mode activation?

A

2500 feet RA

217
Q

A triple​ RA​ failure means a revertion to ALTN law​. What happens when the landing gear is selected down?

A

Reversion to DIRECT law = USE​ MAN​ PITCH ​TRIM​ message is displayed on the PFD​

218
Q

What is the purpose and content of a NITS briefing?

A

NITS is the primary communication tool in stressed situations when communicating with the Cabin Crew, ground crew, ATC, passengers or internally on flight deck.

“ARE YOU READY FOR NITS BRIEFING?”

N – Nature of the situation.

I – Intentions. What the CDR/crew intend to do about it.

T – Time available (from now and ex. 12:40)

S – Special instructions. Ex. Prepare cabin for emergency landing (also cue to ask co-pilot for input)

Ensure closed loop communication (readback)

CDR should wait with the passenger announcement until after the purser has briefed the cabin crew.
Tip: Ask purser to get back, when done.

219
Q

During an Emergency landing, how and when do you warn the CABIN Crew that landing is imminent?

A

Approximately 2 min before landing:
“ATTENTION CREW - 2 MINUTES TO LDG”.

Approximately 1 min before landing:
“BEND DOWN - STAY DOWN” and/or by repeatedly flashing fasten seat belt sign

220
Q

What does the term “Golden rules” entail (in GEPARD)?

A

Fly - Fly the aircraft (GEAR UP, trim, autopilot ON, BIRD ON if no FD available)

Nav - Nav procedure (Tracking Engine out procedure, turns)

Communicate - Call ATC (MAYDAY, immediate vectors?)

221
Q

The ECAM in GEPARD represents?

A

ECAM ACTIONS
- Action lines
- Secondary failures
- Normal checklists or computer resets
- Status

222
Q

What actions fall under Procedures (GEPARD)?

A

Procedures called under ECAM
- ABN - Not-sensed procedures
- Fuel penalties,
- LDC calculation
- Any summeries

223
Q

How do you assure common AWARENESS (GEPARD)?

A

PM briefs on:
- What happened
- How does it affect us
- Status of procedures and deferred

PF briefs on:
- Where are we and ATC clearance

CDR briefs:
- ATC
- CABIN CREW
- Passengers

224
Q

Ready for APPROACH (GEPARD) means?

A

“Your controls”:
- Approach programming and briefing
- Communicate plan to ATC

225
Q

Deferred items (GEPARD) are found where?

A

DEFRD pb on ECP…

226
Q

Predictive Windshear (PWS) function
- Detects windshears
- Triggers alerts

How far in advance does it warn?

A
  • At least 10 s before a possible encounter
  • Between 0.5 NM and 5 NM in front of the aircraft
227
Q

What does a flashing amber OPEN light on the CKPT DOOR panel (flashing green LED on the access panel) mean?

If you deny access (Switch to LOCK). How long does it stay locked?

A

Emergency acces code has been entered and door unlocks after 5 seconds (ECAM: DOOR - CKPT DOOR EMER OPENING IN PROGRESS)

5 minutes

228
Q

How is Vapp calculated?

A

VAPP = VLS Landing Conf + (5 ≤ Wind Correction ≤ 15)

Wind correction = 1/3 of the Tower Headwind, but LW below 160 t when VMCL limits VLS, the wind correction may be less than 1/3 of the Tower Headwind.

229
Q

When you check the loadsheet TOCG vs. the ECAM GWCG, what is the normal maximum difference?

What do you do, if not within limits?

A

If the difference is less than 1 %, no further action is required. Rely on ECAM GWCG.

If there is more than 1 % difference, check that the ZFW and the ZFWCG are correctly entered in the FMS, then rely on ECAM GWCG.

230
Q

What are the allowed changes on an LMC?

A

± 5 passengers, and

± 500 kg baggage/cargo

A combination of passengers and load may not exceed 500 kg

231
Q

What items do you check in the LOGBOOK?

A
  • Performance and Idle Factor to agree with ACFT STATUS page.
  • Fuel Factor agrees with OFP.
  • OEBs affecting the flight (OEB-reminders)
  • Open MEL and DDL list.
  • Open remarks which may affect the flight.
  • Maintenance Release signed (No CRS in the ELB)
232
Q

On RWY WET (RWYCC5) or contaminated runways the flight crew may select REV IDLE if:

A

A landing distance assessment shows landing distance is within the LDA without credit for reversers.

233
Q

How do you modify the GO-AROUND gradient for an LDC?

A
  • Find half of (minima + GA altitude)
    (ex. 600+5000/2=2800)
  • Modify runway in FlySmart LDC GA GRADIENT AT that altitude.
234
Q

If LW is limited by the GA CLB gradient, the SID/ENG FAIL procedure for the same RWY may be followed if?

A

A TODC using the same CONF as in the GA shows that the MTOW is above the LW.

235
Q

Can you fly a VOR or NDB approach (FLS) if the navaid is u/s?

A

No. SAS does not have an operational approval to fly an approach with an unserviceable navaid or airborne radio equipment

236
Q

What are the requirements for planning without a destination alternate?

A
  • The duration of the planned flight does not exceed six hours (4 hrs for in-flight replanning)
  • Two separate runways with separate navaids are available and usable. If one runway is blocked it must not prevent operations on the other runway.
  • Weather reports/forecasts indicate that at ETA +/- 1hr the ceiling will be at least 2000 ft or circling height +500 ft, whichever is greater, and visibility at least 5 km.
  • 15 minute holding fuel at 1500 ft above the aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
237
Q

What is the minimum number of CABIN CREW for boarding?

For Flight? During cruise?

A

5 for boarding with the following restrictions:
- MAX 50 for each CC
- At least one CC without boarding position who can move around in the cabin.
- No Fueling while reduced
- Late arriving CC’s briefed by SCC before any remaining passengers board.

Minimum 8 (4 during cruise - not including CC under training)

238
Q

FPN shall not pilot the aircraft during take-off and landing when?

A
  • X-wind component exceeds 15 kt.
  • RWYCC/FC/BA is less than 3/0.30/medium
  • WX is reported below 300 ft/1000 m (valid for SCT, BKN or OVC)
239
Q

Flight crew shall seek the advice of the Authority or an Authorized Medical Examiner when they:

A
  • Have undergone a surgical operation or invasive procedure;
  • Have commenced the regular use of any medication;
  • Have suffered any significant personal injury or any significant illness involving incapacity to function as a member of the flight crew;
  • Are pregnant;
  • Have been admitted to hospital or medical clinic;
  • First time requiring corrective lenses.
240
Q

Alcohol use before Flight Duty is restricted by?

How about after an occurrence?

A
  • 24 hours and 8 hours prior to duty - use cautiously observed
  • 0.02% alcohol in the blood or less at the latest 8 hours prior to duty
  • Consumption less than 8 hours prior to duty not permitted
    After an occurrence:
  • No alcohol, drugs or anaesthetics may be consumed the first 6 hours after the flight duty period (or until the blood test has been taken)
241
Q

Commanders discretion: Modifying the limits on flight duty, duty and rest periods by the commander in the case of unforeseen circumstances in flight operations, which start at or after the reporting time, shall comply with the following:

A
  • Max increased by 2 hours (augmented Crew - 3 hours) based on FDP without extension.
  • If on the final sector and exceeded because of unforeseen circumstances after take-off, the flight may continue to the planned destination or alternate.
  • The rest period following the FDP may be reduced but can never be less than 10 hours.
  • Increase of an FDP or reduction of a rest period exceeding 1 hour, a copy of the report, to which the operator shall add its comments, shall be sent by the operator to the competent authority not later than 28 days after the event.
  • Decision to use, or not to use, Commanders Discretion rests solely with the CDR.
  • Should be avoided for flights starting from home base
242
Q

Minimum Grid Altitude (MGA) represents the lowest safe altitude which can be flown off-track. How is it calculated?

A

Rounding up the elevation of the highest obstruction within the respective grid area to the next 100 ft and adding an increment of:

  • 1000 ft for terrain or obstructions up to 6000 ft; or
  • 2000 ft for terrain or obstructions above 6000 ft.

Lowest indicated MGA is 2000 ft (also for terrain and obstacles that would result in an MGA below 2000 ft).

243
Q

How far from the departure airport can your takeoff alternate be located?

A
  • One hour hour flying time at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed in still air standard conditions based on the actual take-off weight; or
  • Two hours flying time or the approved ETOPS diversion time, subject to any MEL restriction, whichever is less, at the one-engine inoperative cruising speed in still air standard conditions, for aircraft and crew authorized for ETOPS.

Note:
One engine out requirements and restrictions for using CAT II/III shall be applied, both for the aerodrome of departure and for the take-off alternate aerodrome.

244
Q

Conversion of Visibility to RVR/CMV may not be used for?

A
  • Take-off minima;
  • Continuation below 1000 ft above the aerodrome of an approach in LVO;
  • To establish an approach/landing RVR less than 800 meters.

For flight planning purposes, a factor of 1.0 shall be used.

245
Q

What is the alternate planning minima (not US) with two approaches with DH <250 ft (Type B) to two separate runways?

Just one approach as described above ?

A

Use the higher DH/MDH and RVR/VIS of the two approaches:

DH +100’ and RVR +300m

One approach:

DH +150’ and RVR +450m (+50%)

246
Q

What is the alternate​ WX planning minima in the USA?

A

At least one​ operational navigational​ facility ​ providing​ a​ straight-in non-​precision approach procedure,​ ​ ​or, ​ ​Category​ I​ precision​ approach,​ ​or, when applicable, a​ circling​ ​maneuver​ from​ an​ IAP:
- DH/MDA +400 and visibility +1 statute mile (1600m)

Two of the above approaches:
- DH/MDA +200 and visibility +1/2 statute mile (800m)

One​ useable authorized​ Category​ ​II ILS IAP:
- DH/MDA +300 and visibility +3/4 statute mile (RVR 4000ft)

One​ useable authorized​ Category​ ​III ILS IAP.:
- DH/MDA +200 and visibility +1/2 statute mile (RVR 1800ft)

247
Q

What is additional fuel used for?

A

Critical Fuel Scenario and RCF planning. It shall include an amount of fuel that allows the aircraft to proceed, in the event of:

  • An engine failure or
  • Loss of pressurisation,

From the most critical point to an adequate alternate aerodrome, hold there for 15 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome in standard conditions, make an approach, and land.

248
Q

What is Contingency fuel?

A

The fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors such as deviations in fuel consumption, winds and from planned routings or cruising levels.

The contingency fuel shall be higher of:
- 3% of planned trip fuel (in-flight re-planning, 3% of remaining trip fuel) provided that a fuel enroute alternate is available or
- 20-minute flying time based on the planned trip fuel or
- 5 minutes holding at 1500 ft above the destination aerodrome in standard conditions.

249
Q

What is discretionary fuel?

A

‘Fuel at the sole discretion of the commander’ (PIC).

The commander’s discretion over the amount of fuel to be carried is independent and cannot be encouraged or discouraged.

250
Q

The loadsheet may be manually corrected by the CDR and a signed copy must be filed at the station. What is the procedure?

A
  • Print a copy of the loadsheet and make corrections manually.
  • 100 kg for each passenger (including cabin baggage) and 15 kg for each checked baggage may be used.
  • Actual weight for cargo and mail must be used.
  • Sign the copy and give it and a new balance calculation to the gate personel.
251
Q

Extra items to check on a manual and other than DCS loadsheets?

A
  • Dry Operating Weight (DOW) and Dry Operating Index (DOI).
  • Actual take-off, landing and zero fuel weight to be equal to or below max.
  • Center of gravity within limits.
252
Q

When the CDR suspects a loading error, or when the longitudinal stability of the aircraft is impaired, the following items shall be completed airborne?

On the ground?

A

In flight
- Contact concerned station and inform that a load weight check has to be performed upon landing.
- Note actual passenger seating per seat row.

On ground
- Ensure in co-operation with ground staff that a proper load weight check is performed including:
- A check that the compartment loads is separated and net positions noted.
- The actual position of the load in each compartment is noted.
- The actual weight of load in each compartment is noted.
- Compare the actual load in each compartment with the load according to the loadsheet and note any difference.
- Attach a copy of the loadsheet together with the figures noted above to the occurrence report.

253
Q

Deviations (in speed and time) from filed flight plan shall be reported to ATS as soon as practicable:

A

If average true airspeed varies by 5% or more from that given in flight plan.

If any estimated time given is in error by more than 2 minutes.

254
Q

When making an entry in the technical log:

A
  • check that the backing sheet is inserted in front of the next original (white) sheet
  • use a black (preferable) or blue ballpoint pen when making entries
  • ensure a readable print on the original and all copies by applying considerable amount of pressure on the pen
  • write all entries in CAPITAL BLOCK LETTERS
  • write all entries in American English
  • do not use abbreviations that are not self explanatory or commonly used
255
Q

What do you do if the Commander’s Signature is missing on the Complaint Slip or in the Flight Log?

A
  • Contact the CDR of previous flight. If he confirms no remarks, fill in and sign a complaint slip on Commander’s behalf.

If unable to obtain the Commander’s signature or statement:

  • Obtain a statement from another flight deck crew member concerning the technical status of the aircraft and authorize completion of the complaint slip after consultation with Flight Operations (STOOF)
256
Q

A complete fuel calculation on the Flight Log must be performed if:

A

ACARS is inoperative or if fuel release is not possible when in ACARS coverage.

Planned uplift, actual uplift and available before flight (remaining after previous flight + uplifted) is recorded before flight.

257
Q

The net engine-out takeoff flight path, after engine failure at Vef, must clear all obstacles within the horizontal sector by?

A

35 feet for Dry runway
15 feet for Wet or Contaminated runway
50 feet if > 15˚ bank required

258
Q

What is the minimum gradient of climb in still air for 2nd, 3rd and FINAL segments?

A

2nd 2,4%
3rd 1,2%
FINAL 1,2%

(The net gradient is 0,8% lower than above as a safety buffer)

259
Q

What is the required margin for Max Landing Weight vs. runway length for dry, wet and contaminated runways?

A

Dry +60% safety margin
Wet +15% over Dry requirements
Contaminated 15% above calculated minimum for the conditions

260
Q

An UMNR is a child who travels alone and?

Maximum number onboard?

A
  • Has reached his 5th but not his 12th birthday, or
  • Has reached his 12th but not 16th birthday, and requires assistance, or
  • Has reached his 12th but not 18th birthday, and requires assistance when traveling on domestic flights within NO/DK/SE.

8 for all aircraft (not including those age 12-17)

261
Q

Maximum number of Unescorted Deportees per Flight?

A
  • Maximum four (4) DEPU age 16 and above.
  • In addition, own accompanying children (with DEPU status) under the age of 16 may travel on the same flight.

Exceptions may be granted by STOG3

No limits for DEPA

262
Q

Embarkation shall be refused when the passenger?

A
  • Fails to observe, or refuses to obey, safety rules or instructions of the company.
  • Appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs*.
  • Appears or behaves offensive to other passengers.
  • Requires nursing due to medical conditions.
  • Suffers from a contagious disease.
  • Has such a degree of physical infirmity that travel is likely to result in complications.
  • Is equipped with a restraint device already activated at boarding.
  • Does not hold the required travel documents, e.g. visas or necessary vaccination certificates.
  • Is unacceptable for carriage for any reason as decided by the CDR.

(* Not medical patients under proper medical care)

263
Q

RAIM checks shall be done by?

A

Pilots: on short haul flights for approaches with RNP ≥0,3.

CPHOW: for selected approaches with RNP <0,3 and long haul flights.

264
Q

What is the altimeter correction for temperature, wind and low pressure?

A
  • 4% pr. 10 degrees below ISA or chart in eQRH
  • 500’ pr. 10 kts above 30. Max 2000’ correction.
  • 30’ pr. hPa below 1013 when on STD
265
Q

PM call to ATC when following TCAS RA?

When clear of the conflict?

When clearance resumed?

A

“TCAS RA”

“CLEAR of conflict. Returning to…”

“CLEAR of conflict. (ex.) 5000’ RESUMED”

266
Q

Proceeding without Alternate Fuel or Final Reserve Fuel, if usable fuel remaining at the destination aerodrome is less than the required fuel, the CDR must:

A
  • take into account traffic and operational conditions and perform a safe landing with not less than final reserve fuel at any adequate airport.
267
Q

The approach climb requirement is based on which conditions?

What is the minimum required?

And the landing climb requirement?

What is the minimum required?

A

Approach climb:
- One engine inoperative, the remaining engine at go-around thrust,
- Landing gear retracted,
- Approach flap and
- Approach Climb Speed.

Minimum 2,1%

Landing climb:
- All engines at go-around thrust,
- Landing gear extended,
- Landing flaps and
- Landing Climb Speed.

Minimum 3,2%

268
Q

During a pilot turnaround, when do you need to e-mail pictures of documentation to occ@sas.se and stoof.box@sas.se as well as leave a copy to station staff?

A
  • A manual loadsheet and/or a manual NOTOC if such has been issued;
  • The fuel receipt if ACARS fuel release is not transmitted prior to takeoff;
  • The second page copy of Aircraft Technical Log slip (marked “Station copy”) if a complaint has been made.
269
Q

What are the rules for planning with an RNP approach on destination/alternate?

When is a RAIM check required?

A

A conventional approach (non-RNP) must be available at either the destination or alternate aerodrome.

Does not apply for:
- Planning without a destination alternate.
- Take-off and en-route alternates

A RAIM check is required (availability 15 min before ETA until 15 min after ETA) during planning when:

  • A flight is planned with an RNP approach at the destination or alternate aerodromes, or;
  • The intention is to fly an RNP(AR) approach with RNP <0,3 at the destination or alternate aerodromes.
270
Q

A visual climbout may be carried out when the actual cloud base is above the relevant sector altitude and surrounding terrain is clearly visible, provided?

A
  • Clearance to deviate from SID/CLP is obtained from ATC,
  • Noise sensitive areas protected by SID/CLP not overflown,
  • VMC maintained up to a safe altitude.
  • In case of engine failure, the relevant engine-out procedure must be followed. ATC must be informed if procedure deviates from the cleared procedure
271
Q

When do you call “minimum fuel”?

“MAYDAY fuel”?

A
  • When committed to land at a specific aerodrome and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than final reserve fuel.
  • When fuel predicted for landing is less than final reserve fuel
272
Q

What does the Heading Control Function (HCF) do?

A

Aims to mitigate aircraft veering during taxi (speed below 50 kt), by maintaining the aircraft in straight line when the flight crew releases the steering handwheel (compensates for NWS offset, crosswind, taxiway slope.

  • Inhibited for takeoff and landing.
  • Can order a maximum of +/- 3 ° of nosewheel steering.

Note:
HCF is inoperative or disconnected when PEDAL DISC is pushed.

273
Q

When flying in Direct law (No FD available), it is recommended to select the BIRD ON. How do you do that?

What do you push to get GREEN BIRD?

A
  • Push VV button to get BLACK BIRD (Velocity Vector)
  • Push TRK/FPA to get GREEN BIRD (Flight Path Vector)
274
Q

What are the indications of a damaged engine after engine failure?

A
  • Loud Bang
  • Amber X’s on engine display
  • 0 N1, N2 or N3 (engine not windmilling)
275
Q

How does the CC alert FD in case of suspicious activity or a potential threat, when asking for access to the Flight deck?

A

The CC will use either the emergency key code or the interphone and state their name, position and staff number.

Any such request shall be considered as a threat and immediately denied by flight crew until it has been positively established, that no security threat exists.

276
Q

Before taking any medication (while flying), crew must be able to answer ‘yes’ to the following 3 questions:

A
  • Do I feel fit to fly?
  • Do I need to take medication at all?
  • Have I given this particular medication a personal trial on the ground of at least 48 hours to ensure that it will not have any adverse effects on my ability to perform my duties?

SAS Airbus 350 (1 decks)

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