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From Flashcardlet > Scotty's SkyWest CRJ Flash Cards > Flashcards

Scotty's SkyWest CRJ Flash Cards

Last Update 11/08/2015 Large study set specific to SkyWest CRJ-200/700/900 Including: - AQP Study Packet Questions - AQP Oral Questions - CRJ Limitations - CRJ SkyWest EMI Please forward any comments or corrections... Enjoy!

0
Q

CRJ-200 Normal Hydraulic Pressure Range?

A

2950-3050 PSI

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1
Q

CRJ-200 What is the wingspan?

A

68 Feet 8 Inches

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2
Q

When will the Seatbelt sign come on in Auto Mode?

A

Cabin Altitude > 10,000 feet or Flaps > 0

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3
Q

When Emergency Lights Switch is in Auto, when will they Illuminate?

A

Loss of EITHER AC or DC Essential Bus

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4
Q

If Galley Water System Overheats what Indication do you get in Flight Deck?

A

None

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5
Q

Time limit for Recog Taxi and LandingLights?

A

10 minutes if Stationary

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6
Q

How do you Determine Emergency Flashlights are properly Charged?

A

Red Flash every 5 Seconds

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7
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Normal Hydraulic pressure?

A

3000 PSI

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8
Q

CRJ-200 Normal Hydraulic level?

A

45% - 85 %

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9
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Normal Hydraulic level?

A

45% - 85%

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10
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Minimum spoiler speed?

A

Approach Speed + 10 knots

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11
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Continuous Thrust ITT?

A

874 C

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12
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Maximum Continuous Thrust ITT?

A

927 C

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13
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum start ITT?

A

900 C

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14
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Maximum start ITT?

A

815 C

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15
Q

Can you take the thrust levers out of idle if oil pressure has not yet returned to normal range after engine start?

A

No

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16
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum fuel imbalance?

A

800 lbs

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17
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum glide slope angle?

A

3.5 degrees or less

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18
Q

CRJ-700 What is the lowest you can turn off the auto-pilot on a precision approach that is 3.5 degrees or less?

A

80 feet AGL

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19
Q

CRJ-900 What is the lowest you can turn off the auto-pilot on a precision approach that is 3.5 degrees or less?

A

80 feet AGL

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20
Q

CRJ-700 What is the lowest you can turn off the auto-pilot on a precision approach that is between 3.5 and 4.0 degrees at a airport elevation less the 4000 feet?

A

120 feet AGL

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21
Q

CRJ-700 What is the lowest you can turn off the auto-pilot on a precision approach that is between 3.5 and 4.0 degrees at a airport elevation more then 4000 feet?

A

Prohibited

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22
Q

Maximum Continuous APU EGT?

A

743 C

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23
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 minimum crew oxygen for dispatch?

A

960 PSI

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24
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 What is the lowest you can turn off the auto-pilot on a precision approach that is more then 4.0 degrees ?

A

Not authorized

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25
Q

Can you takeoff or land with braking action reported as poor?

A

Yes if crosswind is less then 10 knots

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26
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind?

A

27 knots

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27
Q

CRJ-200 Where are circuit breaker panels 1 - 4 located?

A

CBP1 is Behind Captain
CBP2 is Behind First Officer
CBP3 is Captain footwell
CBP4 is First Officer footwell

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28
Q

CRJ-200 Minimum fuel?

A

1500 lbs

*Enough for 1 go-around and a 10 mile final to landing plus 30 minutes

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29
Q

CRJ-700 Minimum fuel?

A

2100 lbs

*Enough for 1 go-around and a 10 mile final to landing plus 30 minutes

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30
Q

CRJ-900 Minimum fuel?

A

2150 lbs

*Enough for 1 go-around and a 10 mile final to landing plus 30 minutes

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31
Q

CRJ-200 Emergency Fuel?

A

1050 lbs

*30 minutes

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32
Q

CRJ-900 Emergency Fuel?

A

1550 lbs

*30 minutes

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33
Q

CRJ-700 Emergency Fuel?

A

1500 lbs

*30 minutes

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34
Q

What is the danger area in front of the aircraft with the radar operating?

A

2 feet

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35
Q

CRJ-200 How many emergency exits?

A

4 + 1 Flight Crew escape hatch

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36
Q

CRJ-200 What is the maximum steering angle with the tiller?

A

70 degrees

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37
Q

How many degrees of steering do you get from the rudder pedals?

A

5 degrees

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38
Q

CRJ-200 How many potable water tanks are serviceable?

A

2

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39
Q

How are the water tanks protected from freezing?

A

ECU controls tank heaters, pumps, and water level indications

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40
Q

What do you see when an FMA mode goes from armed to active?

A

Mode will flash 5 times, then steady green

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41
Q

What is Auto Pilot ROLL mode?

A

If less than 5 degrees bank will hold wings level, If more than 5 degrees it will hold bank, Its automatically selected if no lateral mode is armed

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42
Q

Pressing the SPEED button on the FCP once does what?

A

Generates commands to maintain airspeed reference value and IAS reference is set to current speed

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43
Q

What is the difference between ALTS and ALT?

A

ALTS = Altitude Selected

ALT = Altitude Hold

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44
Q

What is the difference between IAS mode and CLB or DES mode?

A

Climb and descend mode will maintain a pitch attitude consistent with selected airspeed and throttle setting.

Indicated airspeed will command pitch changes based on thrust settings

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45
Q

How do I select CLB or DES mode?

A

By pressing speed button once on the FCP

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46
Q

What do the witness lights on the FCP mean?

A

FCC agrees with conditions for current mode. Left light for FCC 1 and Right light for FCC 2

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47
Q

What happens when you climb through 31,600 feet?

A

Auto changeover between IAS and Mach. Half bank is also automatically activated

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48
Q

What does the Sync button do on the control yoke?

A

Syncs flight director to vertical and lateral conditions

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49
Q

Pushing TOGA on go-around does what?

A

Activates vertical and lateral go around modes, flight director pitches to 10 degrees and disconnects the autopilot

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50
Q

What does the Auto Pilot Tranfer push button do?

A

Pilot selected has active flight director

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51
Q

What is the APU LCV interlock?

A

Prevents the load control valve from opening if a L 10th stage bleed is open. Prevents compressor stall and surge protection.

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52
Q

When do the APU gauges appear on ED2?

A

Upon selection of the APU power/fuel switch

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53
Q

CRJ-200 What is the maximum altitude at which the APU can be started?

A

30,000 feet

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54
Q

CRJ-200 What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used to provide 10th stage bleed air?

A

15,000 feet

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55
Q

CRJ-200 What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used for an engine start?

A

13,000 feet

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56
Q

CRJ-200 Should the APU XFLOW pump fail, how will the APU be supplied fuel?

A

Through a negative gravity valve from the right engine fuel line

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57
Q

CRJ-200 To prolong APU life, the SOP recommends waiting how many minutes prior to applying bleed air load after APU start?

A

2 minutes

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58
Q

If the EICAS DOOR position shows amber dashes, what does that mean?

A

The ECU is confused about the APU door position

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59
Q

How does the APU maintain 100% RPM?

A

Through variable geometry diffusors

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60
Q

What is the purpose of the Back-up Tuning Unit?

A

Ability to use COM 1 or NAV 1 in event of AC power loss

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61
Q

If RTU 1 screen fails, how do you tune COM 1/NAV 1 ?

A

1/2 button on RTU 2

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62
Q

What is the EMER switch for on the ACP 1?

A

Isolates Com 1 and Nav 1 using separate wiring

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63
Q

What is the VOICE/BOTH switch for on the ACP?

A

VOICE = voice only

BOTH = voice + MORSE code

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64
Q

CRJ-200 What does the EMER switchlight on the Flight Attendant call panel do?

A

Amber light + 1 chime

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65
Q

What does the MECH CALL switchlight do?

A

Signals to maintenance that communication is desired with the cockpit

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66
Q

What does the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch do?

A

Inhibits remote tuning of the FMS

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67
Q

What is the purpose of the FDR EVENT button?

A

Tags time on FDR

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68
Q

Which doors are not displayed on the doors synoptic page?

A

flight deck escape hatch and aft equipment bay

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69
Q

What is the maximum load capacity of the Main Cabin Door?

A

4 people or 1000 lbs

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70
Q

What is the purpose of the pressurization vent flap in the main cabin door?

A

Equalize pressure before opening main cabin door

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71
Q

What are the possible sources of AC power?

A

Generators, APU, ADG or External AC Cart

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72
Q

CRJ-200 What are the sources of DC power?

A

2 batteries, 5 TRU’s or External DC power

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73
Q

CRJ-200 What is the job of the TRU?

A

Take 100 volt AC and convert it to 28 volt DC

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74
Q

What is a CSD/IDG?

A

CSD = Constant Speed Drive IDG = Integrated Drive Generator

Creates a constant 12,000 rpm versus variable speed from the engine. Can be manually or automatically disconnected

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75
Q

An IDG fault is generated by?

A

Low oil pressure or high oil temperature

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76
Q

When will an IDG auto disconnect?

A

High case temperature or over torque

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77
Q

Can you get back a disconnected IDG?

A

No

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78
Q

CRJ-200 Failure of AC BUS1 or AC BUS2 results in the loss of which TRU?

A

AC BUS1 = TRU1, Essential TRU1

AC Bus 2 = TRU 2, Service TRU2, and Essential TRU2

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79
Q

ADG powers what electrical BUS?

A

AC Essential BUS

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80
Q

What happens when you pull the ADG handle?

A

Connects APU battery and MAIN battery to the battery bus

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81
Q

What does the ADG PWR TXFR OVERRIDE switch do?

A

Returns AC ESS bus and HYD PUMP 3B to normal logic

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82
Q

CRJ-200 under normal conditions IDG 1 powers what BUS’s?

A

AC BUS1, AC UTIL BUS1, and AC ESS BUS

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83
Q

CRJ-200 TRU1 fails, what power source has priority backing it up?

A

SERV TRU … TIE1 will automatically close

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84
Q

CRJ-200 What system charges the batteries?

A

Main Battery charged by AC
UTIL BUS1

APU Battery is charged by AC UTIL BUS2

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85
Q

CRJ-200 What has occurred if the AUTO XFER FAIL switch light has illuminated?

A

A BUS fault or generated overcurrent. Associated AC BUS cannot be powered by APU or offside generator

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86
Q

What does the AC ESS ALTN status message mean?

A

AC Essential Bus is not being powered by AC BUS1

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87
Q

The AC ESS BUS is normally powered by?

A

AC BUS1

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88
Q

What is the speed limit for a deployed ADG?

A

CRJ2
Wet = 250 Knots
Dry = Vmo/Mmo

  • CRJ7 & CRJ9 fleet is Dry = Vmo
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89
Q

What happens when a PACK HITEMP caution message is displayed?

A

Temperature is over 85 degrees C, fault light comes on, pack may be restored when temperature drops

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90
Q

How many pressure controllers do we have?

A

Two… CPAM 1 & CPAM 2

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91
Q

How do you switch between pressure controllers?

A

Does it automatically 3 minutes after wheels on weight or you can press PRESS CONT switch twice

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92
Q

What is Flight Abort mode?

A

When the aircraft has maintained 6000 feet or lower for ten minutes and has initiated a decent at 1000 feet per minute the system will them assume the landing elevation for the departure airport regardless of what is selected

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93
Q

Explain pre-pressure mode?

A

When thrust is advanced for Takeoff, aircraft is pressurizing to -150 cabin pressure altitude at 300 feet per minute for passenger comfort

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94
Q

What is a normal cabin pressure climb/descent rate?

A

500 feet per minute in climb and 300 feet per minute in decent

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95
Q

What does a BLEED MISCONFIG caution message indicate?

A

Both 10th and 14th stage engine bleeds are on during critical phase of flight ( flaps >0 )

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96
Q

How do you control the cabin in manual mode?

A

Manual button pushed, toggle up to raise cabin pressure and down to reduce cabin pressure

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97
Q

Which side of the plane has 3 Passenger O2 masks?

A

Right or starboard side

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98
Q

CRJ-200 The 14th stage system provides pressure for what systems?

A

Wing/Cowl anti-ice and thrust reversers

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99
Q

CRJ-200 Do the 14th stage bleed valves fail open or closed?

A

Open so you can use anti-ice in the event of failure

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100
Q

Automatic switching of the cabin pressure controller occurs when?

A

3 minutes after weight on wheels

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101
Q

What areas do I have fire detection vs detection and extinguishing?

A

Detection = main landing gear wheel wells, engine nacelles, LAV

Detection and Extinguishing = Engines, APU, LAV waste basket and cargo compartments

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102
Q

What happens when you push an ENG FIRE push light?

A

Arms both fire bottle squibs, fuel shutoff valve closes, bleed air shutoff valve closes, hydraulic shutoff valve closes, engine driven generator shuts off

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103
Q

CRJ-200 How does the smoke detection and fire extinguishing system work in the lav?

A

Ceiling mounted smoke detectors go off, creates smoke toilet Caution message and smoke aural, message. Fire extinguisher bottle mounted in waste bin capsule melts, releasing halon

  • Both systems are completely independent from each other
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104
Q

What happens when a cargo fire is detected?

A

You get a smoke aural warning message, cargo smoke warning CAS message, and cargo smoke push lights are illuminated.

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105
Q

What is a PCU runaway? How do I know I have one?

A

It is an uncommand displacement of an aileron PCU. SECU sends and advisory message and illuminates a green role SEL light on who should take control

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106
Q

What is an Aileron Jam? How do I know I have one?

A

One pilot side is jammed/won’t move. Pulling role disconnect handle separates control interconnect via torque tube. Cross side aileron spoiler relationship is established. SECU commands ROLL SEL amber lights illuminate. Pilot with unjammed aileron pushes to get cross-side/both spoileron

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107
Q

What step must be taken first in the event of an aileron control jam?

A

Pull the ROLL DISC handle

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108
Q

What message would be displayed if one of the flap power drive unit motors failed?

A

Flaps half speed

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109
Q

What is the purpose of the aileron flutter dampers?

A

Provides extra gust lock protection on the ground and shock absorbs when all hydraulic fluid is lost

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110
Q

What does the ROLL/PITCH DISC handle do?

A

Disconnects interconnecting torque tube

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111
Q

What is the purpose of the yaw damper?

A

Improve directional stability, prevents Dutch roll

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112
Q

What is Mach Trim?

A

Adjusts the stabilizer as center of pressure shifts aft along wing

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113
Q

If the GLDs fail to deploy on landing, how do I deploy them manually?

A

Select GLD switch to GLD MAN ARM

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114
Q

What is monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system?

A

Flaps, flight spoilers, parking break, autopilot, aileron trim, rudder trim, horizontal stabilizer trim

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115
Q

What are the aural/visual/tactile elements of the stall protection system?

A

Stick shaker, stick pusher, stall switch light illuminate, continuous ignition, warbler sounds

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116
Q

If a PFD fails, how do I put my PFD on my MFD?

A

Select PFD on the DRP (display reversionary panel)

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117
Q

On the speed tape, what is the green line?

A

Slow Speed Awareness
1.27 Vsi

  • Most accurate in landing configuration
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118
Q

What are the checkerboards?

A

Top of the checkerboard is Vmo, Mmo, cue changes with flap selection. Bottom of checker board indicates stall speed

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119
Q

When is my radar alt displayed?

A

From -20 to 2500 feet

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120
Q

What is the trend vector, how does it work?

A

It predicts the speed of the aircraft in the next ten seconds, accounting for changes in acceleration and deceleration.

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121
Q

If your DCP fails, how can you still control what is displayed on your MFD?

A

The DSPL CONT knob on the SSP permits operable DCP to control both EFIS displays

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122
Q

Where are the standby pitot and static ports?

A

Standby pitot tube is on the captains side. Standby static is on both captain and FO side

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123
Q

How do I get the advisory VNAV snowflake to appear and what does it represent?

A

Enable on PERF MENU page on FMS. It provides vertical guidance at a 3 degree angle of decent

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124
Q

When does the PFD declutter?

A

When an aircraft pitch exceeds +30 or -20 degrees or roll exceeds 65 degrees only the following information will be displayed: altitude, airspeed, vertical speed, and compass

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125
Q

When windshear information is activated on the PFD, what does the Alpha Margin Indicator represent?

A

Maximum pitch allowed before the stick shaker is activated

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126
Q

What are ejectors and how do they work?

A

Provide motive flow. Based off Bernoullis principle with no moving parts

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127
Q

Purpose of the Main Ejectors?

A

Provide positive pressure to engine driven pump

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128
Q

Purpose of Transfer Ejectors?

A

Transfer fuel from center to main tanks

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129
Q

Purpose of Scavenge Ejectors?

A

Transfer fuel from wing tanks to collector tanks

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130
Q

What are the backups if the main ejectors fail?

A

Boost pumps

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131
Q

How does the aircraft balance fuel between the wing tanks?

A

When an imbalance of more than 200 lbs exists, XFLOW pump is energized and XFLOW valve in lower tank is opened and the tank is replenished and balanced to 50 lbs more then low tank

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132
Q

How does fuel get from the center tank into the wing tanks?

A

Through Transfer Ejectors when the wing tank is below 94% fuel is transferred to 100% wing capacity

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133
Q

What is the purpose of the electrical boost pumps?

A

DC pumps move fuel from collector tanks to engines and back up main ejectors for engine start or main ejector failure

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134
Q

Can the ejectors/boost pumps supply enough fuel pressure to keep engines running in the event of a EDP failure?

A

No, if you lose EDP, you lose engine

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135
Q

What is the purpose of the collector tanks?

A

Collects all fuel to supply uninterrupted fuel to the engines through the main ejectors

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136
Q

If Boost Pumps are pressed in, when will the pumps turn on, which ones will turn on?

A

Both will turn on when computer detects low fuel pressure in either manifold

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137
Q

CRJ-200 How do I get fuel to the APU?

A

Fuel is fed evenly from both wing tanks with the APU crossflow pump. Negative Gravity relief supplies fuel from right fuel line if pump fails

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138
Q

During automatic cross flow the low tank will be filled to what level?

A

50 lbs greater than the other tank

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139
Q

When will a FUEL IMBALANCE caution message be generated?

A

When an imbalance of greater than 800 lbs exists

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140
Q

When would we use the gravity cross flow, and how does it work?

A

When power fuel XFLOW pump does not operate or is unable to correct fuel imbalance. Pressing Gravity XFLOW switch opens valve and transfer takes place by gravity or slipping the aircraft

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141
Q

How do you manually transfer/balance fuel in flight?

A

By pressing XFLOW AUTO OVERRIDE switch then selecting the low tank

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142
Q

How do you use the magnetic fuel level indicators?

A

Pull them down and read readings to Maintenence control along with the pitch bubble behind FOs seat

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143
Q

How is the fuel heated prior to going into the engine?

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger, fuel is heated with hot engine oil

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144
Q

Which hydraulic systems is the largest?

A

System 3

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145
Q

How is hydraulic system 1/2/3 cooled?

A

hydraulics 1 & 2 use ram air and air oil heat exchanger. System 3 has no provision for cooling since it is not located near any significant heat source

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146
Q

With hydraulic switches set to auto, when do the ACMPs come on?

A

When flaps are >0 and cross-side IDG logic

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147
Q

What is the primary power source (in flight) for hydraulic ACMP 1 and 2 respectively?

A

When respective gen is operating and bus is powered

1B = GEN2 
2B = GEN1
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148
Q

What is the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator?

A

Store hydraulic pressure to satisfy instantaneous demand of systems and dampens out pressure surges

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149
Q

How can you shut off the flow of hydraulic fluid to an Engine Driven Pump?

A

On the CRJ-200 shut down the engine. The 700/900 has a designated hydraulic disconnect switch

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150
Q

Which hydraulic pump is powered in the event of a total electrical failure? How?

A

Hydraulic pump 3B, powered by the ADG

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151
Q

CRJ-200 What systems would you lose if you lost hydraulic system #3?

A
  1. Nose wheel steering 2. Nose door 3. Landing Gear 4. Inboard brakes
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152
Q

CRJ-200 Explain hydraulic cross-side logic:

A

IDG 1 runs hydraulic pump 1A EDP, and pump 2B ACMP. IDG 2 runs hydraulic pump 2A EDP, and pump 1B ACMP

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153
Q

How do the ice detectors work?

A

Probe vibrates at a high frequency. Ice accumulation on the probe will dampen out the frequency and DCUs will generate visual and aural indications of ice

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154
Q

What does the Ice caution message indicate? What does the Advisory message indicate?

A

ICE caution signifies ice is detected with the anti-ice off.

ICE advisory signifies ice detected with anti-ice selected on

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155
Q

CRJ-200 What does the amber arc on the N2 gauge indicate?

A

When wing anti-ice is selected on, amber arc between 0-77.9 to remind pilot that core N2 rpms might not be sufficient for anti-ice system

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156
Q

Describe the NORM operation of the wing anti-ice?

A

Anti-ice valves modulate to maintain a constant leading edge temperature higher then STBY operation

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157
Q

Describe the STBY operation of the wing anti-ice?

A

STBY bypasses temp controller and either fully opens or fully closes anti-ice valves to maintain a lower leading edge temperatures then NORM Wing anti-ice

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158
Q

What surfaces are anti-iced with bleed air?

A

Engine cowls and wing leading edge

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159
Q

What does the WING OVHT warning message indicate?

A

Sensors on the leading edge of the wing sense overheat and generates a signal to the DCUs to create EICAS message

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160
Q

What does an ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message indicate?

A

Bleed air leak in the left or right fuselage, or wing anti-ice ducts

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161
Q

CRJ-200 What happens to your wing/cowl anti-ice during reverse thrust operations?

A

Wing anti-ice valves will close

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162
Q

CRJ-200 What does CMD indicate on the Anti-ice synoptic page?

A

Valves are in commanded position

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163
Q

CRJ-200 What is the function of the pressure relief valve in the engine cowl?

A

If pressure regulation fails and there is over pressure in the 14th stage…the valve will open

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164
Q

How are the EICAS screens cooled?

A

DC powered screens are cooled by 3 AC fans. Three separate fans for redundancy. Also pack conditions air is used in flight

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165
Q

What are the 4 different kinds of messages displayed on EICAS?

A

Warning, Caution, Advisory, Status

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166
Q

What accompanies each type of EICAS message?

A

Warning = triple chime, fire bell, aural, master warning

Caution = single chime, caution light

Advisory = green EICAS message

Status = white EICAS message

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167
Q

Which messages can be boxed?

A

Status via the STAT key

Caution via the CAS key

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168
Q

If ED 2 fails, how can I get a status page?

A

By selecting EICAS on the DRP

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169
Q

Pushing the master warning switch light does what?

A

Extinguishes warning light on both sides, silences certain aural messages, resets system for future warnings

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170
Q

What 4 buttons are always active on the ECP?

A

PRI, STAT, STEP, CAS

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171
Q

What is the purpose of the AUDIO WARNING DISABLE switches on the First Officers side console?

A

Silences warning messages of a malfunctioning DCU

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172
Q

Are some EICAS Messages inhibited during certain phases of flight?

A

Yes. Take off (0-100 knots) and (to 400 feet) and landing (below 2400 feet)

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173
Q

How do we stop rotation of the nose gear and main gear after takeoff?

A

Nose gear hits rubber stops. Hydraulic pressure from the nose gear retraction is routed to main landing gear brakes to stop rotation

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174
Q

CRJ-200 Landing gear manual release handle does what?

A

If hydraulic pressure is lost, pulling the red handle releases the door and three landing gear uplocks allowing the gear to free fall. Hydraulic system 2 assists in the downlock

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175
Q

Which combination Hydraulic failure is worst case, and why?

A

System 2 & 3… System 2 runs Outboard brakes and System 3 actuates Inboard brakes and landing gear

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176
Q

How does anti-skid work?

A

It controls the breaking at each wheel by modulating the hydraulic pressure. Data is transmitted to the ASCU

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177
Q

How do I test the anti-skid system?

A

Select parking brake off, turn off anti-skid… then turn back on and ensure all messages extinguish. Any failure will be displayed on the EICAS

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178
Q

When does anti-skid become active? When does it turn off?

A

Enabled at wheel spin up to 35 knots or wheels on weight plus a 5 second delay. Turns off at a speed less than 10 knots

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179
Q

What is BTMS? How does it work? What are the color logic ranges?

A

Monitors each break with an individual thermo-coupler reading that reads to the EICAS. Green is 0-5. White is 6-12. Red 13-20. Each number represents 35 degrees C

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180
Q

How many degrees Celsius does each number represent in the BTMS system ?

A

35 C

Example: BTMS 5 = Brakes at 175 C

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181
Q

What are tire fusible plugs?

A

Tire plugs designed to melt and deflate the tire before a high BTMS could potentially result in a tire explosion

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182
Q

What hydraulic system must be powered in order to open the nose gear door?

A

Hydraulic system 3

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183
Q

When fully charged, the brake accumulator will provide brake applications when what hydraulic system is inop? How many brake applications?

A

Hydraulic system 3… provides up to six brake applications

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184
Q

What does the MLG BAY OVHT warning message indicate?

A

The single loop in the main gear bay senses overheat

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185
Q

When must all landing and taxi lights be turned off?

A

Landing lights must be turned off when clear of the runway. Taxi and landing lights must be turned off when stationary for more than 10 minutes

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186
Q

The emergency lights will provide approximately how many minutes of illumination when the batteries are properly charged?

A

15 minutes

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187
Q

Why are there two nav bulbs in each wingtip? How many are required for flight?

A

Redundancy. One is required for flight

CRJ 200 = Both always on

CRJ 7/9 = 1 main and 1 backup one on at a time

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188
Q

How many VOR/DME inputs can the FMS utilize?

A

2 VOR and 6 DME

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189
Q

How does the EGPWS know what the terrain is around you?

A

Through a database that compares aircraft position to database

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190
Q

How can I overlay radar and terrain together over the MFD?

A

They cannot overlay. Terrain will appear automatically if there is a threat

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191
Q

At what altitude are windshear advisories enabled/disabled?

A

From 10 feet to 1500 feet.

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192
Q

What will I see with a windshear warning on the PFD?

A

VSI will appear on both PFDs, flight director escape guidance, Eyebrows for shaker awareness and WINDSHEAR on PFD

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193
Q

If you get a TCAS Resolution Advisory, what indications will you have?

A

Aural alert and VSI providing vertical correction

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194
Q

How do I display bearing pointers?

A

BRG button on DCP

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195
Q

How do passenger oxygen generators work?

A

Pulling masks starts a chemical reaction to start oxygen for 13 minutes.

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196
Q

How are the passenger oxygen generators chemical reaction activated?

A

When the passenger pulls the mask down

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197
Q

How long will Passenger oxygen generators last after the chemical reaction is started?

A

About 13 minutes

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198
Q

When do I get the CABIN ALT caution/warning message?

A 
Caution = 8,500 ft CPA
Warning = 10,000 ft CPA
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199
Q

Passenger O2 masks will deploy when?

A

CPAM detects cabin altitude at or above 14,000 feet

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200
Q

CRJ-200 How many PBEs are installed?

A

Three… Flightdeck behind Captain seat and 2 in the cabin next to each extinguisher

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201
Q

CRJ-200 When does OXY LO PRESS caution illuminate?

A

Crew O2 bottles less than 1410 PSI

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202
Q

What is the purpose of the SOP Appendix A: oxygen masks chart?

A

It allows aircraft to be dispatched with less than 1410 psi if there is sufficient oxygen for planned route

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203
Q

On the crew O2 masks, what is the function of the Normal, 100%, Emergency Flow switch?

A

Normal is a mix of ambient air and oxygen. 100% provides 100% on demand. Emergency flow is continuous flow 100% oxygen

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204
Q

When does the ATS normally cutout?

A

55% n2

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205
Q

CRJ-200 Do we have APR on the Go-Around?

A

No

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206
Q

CRJ-200 How is the APR activated?

A

Speed switches must be on and N1 above 79%, loss of RPM on one engine

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207
Q

CRJ-200 You gain an additional __% or __lbs thrust with APR?

A

Approximately 2% or 500 lbs

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208
Q

CRJ-200 What do the engine speed switches do?

A

Below 79% engines are on hydro-mechanical control (N2). With Engine Speed Switches on, above 79% Engine is controlled electronically (N1)

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209
Q

CRJ-200 What would happen if the right engine speed switch was selected OFF during climb out?

A

Rapid increase in thrust and ITT as the thrust lever reverts to hydro-mechanical (N2) control

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210
Q

When will continuous ignition be automatically activated?

A

Based on angle of attack data by the stall warning computer

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211
Q

When does the thrust level auto-retard?

A

Upon inadvertent deployment of thrust reverser in flight

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212
Q

What does the UNLK light mean on the Thrust Reverser panel?

A

Illuminates to indicate respective thrust reverser is unlocked

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213
Q

L/R REV UNSAFE caution message means?

A

Reverser is unsafe to arm in flight. Switches have failed in the deploy position

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214
Q

Normal N1 thrust is displayed on ED1 in what color? Flex thrust?

A

Cyan (blue) = Normal

Magenta (red) = Flex

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215
Q

When do we check engine oil, how much oil can you add?

A

Oil is checked on every engine shutdown within three minutes to two hours. Maximum of 2 quarts can be added

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216
Q

If needed, when can you add oil?

A

Within 15 minutes to two hours of shutdown

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217
Q

When do you have to dry motor after adding oil?

A

If system had to be replenished to max capacity or more then 2 quarts

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218
Q

CRJ-200 Vb Speed?

A

280 knots

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219
Q

CRJ-200 When must WAI be selected on for taxi?

A

When OAT is 5c or below for final taxi

  • N/A when Type II or IV fluid has been applied
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220
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Landing Elevation?

A

10,000 Feet

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221
Q

CRJ-200 10th stage uses?

A
  1. Pressurization 2. Air conditioning 3. Avionics cooling 4. Engine starting via the ATS
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222
Q

CRJ-200 Vfe Flaps 45?

A

170 knots

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223
Q

CRJ-200 Minimum crew oxygen level for International and Domestic

A

Domestic = 1410 PSI International = 1650 PSI

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224
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum SkyWest Altitude?

A

35,000 feet

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225
Q

CRJ-200 What happens if you are down to 1 Generator in flight?

A

You will shed AC UTIL BUS1 and AC UTIL BUS2

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226
Q

CRJ-200 APU maximum engine start altitude?

A

13,000 feet

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227
Q

CRJ-200 What fuel pumps can supply the APU?

A
  1. Crossflow APU pump 2. Boost Pumps 3. Right main jet pump
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228
Q

CRJ-200 APU Maximum start altitude

A

Flight Level Three Zero Zero

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229
Q

CRJ-200 ground engine starter limits?

A
  1. 60 sec on then 10 sec off 2. 60 sec on then 10 sec off 3. 60 sec on then 5 min off 4. 60 sec on then 5 min off
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230
Q

Flaps 30 Vfe?

A

185 knots

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231
Q

CRJ-200 Engine Type?

A

CF34-3B1

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232
Q

CRJ-200 N2 Idle range?

A

56.5 - 68.0 %

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233
Q

CRJ-200 Single Pack Maximum Altitude?

A

25,000 feet

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234
Q

CRJ-200 APR Arm requirements?

A
  1. APR arm 2. Speed switched on 3. N1 79% 4. Wheels on Weight 5. Need two DCUs and 2 ECUs
    * Armed for 5 min
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235
Q

CRJ-200 usable fuel?

A 
Mains = 4760 lbs
Center = 4998 lbs
Total = 14,518 lbs
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236
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Landing Weight?

A

47,000 lbs

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237
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Cargo Weight?

A

3500 lbs

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238
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Takeoff Weight?

A

53,000 lbs

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239
Q

CRJ-200 APU Maximum Altitude for Bleed Use?

A

15,000 feet

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240
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

44,000 lbs

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241
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Wiper Speed?

A

220 Knots

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242
Q

CRJ-200 Pack Overheat Temperature

A

88 degrees Celsius

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243
Q

CRJ-200 When will you get Pack Overpressure?

A

Greater than 53 PSI

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244
Q

CRJ-200 Minimum Reduced Thrust N1 for 3B1 engine?

A

83.5 %

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245
Q

Minimum Spoiler Altitude?

A

1000 AGL

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246
Q

CRJ-200 Minimum Spoiler Speed

A

Approach Speed +20

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247
Q

CRJ-200 Minimum fuel for Go-Around per wing?

A

450 lbs

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248
Q

CRJ-200 Max Fuel Imbalance for Takeoff?

A

800 lbs

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249
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Ramp Weight

A

53,250 lbs

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250
Q

Minimum Runway Width?

A

100 Feet

251
Q

CRJ-200 Minimum Flight Weight

A

30,000 lbs

252
Q

Maximum crosswind for 1800 RVR CAT 1 and TDZ or CL lights out of service?

A

15 knots

253
Q

What takeoff separation is needed for Heavy or a B757?

A

5 miles or 2 minutes

254
Q

What takeoff separation is needed for A380?

A

8 miles

255
Q

Icing conditions on the ground exist when?

A

When OAT is 10 C or less and visible moisture below 400 ft exists or runway is wet or contaminated

256
Q

Which RVR is controlling for straight in Cat 1 Approach?

A

TDZ RVR… However MID may be substituted if TDZ RVR unavailable

257
Q

What is the lowest RVR for CAT 1?

A

1800 RVR

258
Q

Can you fly a CAT 1 Approach to 1800 RVR if the Touchdown zone or Center Line lights are Out of Service?

A

Yes if the approach is coupled to the Flight Director and there are no notes prohibiting it

  • This can be hand flown as long as its coupled
259
Q

What are the critical surfaces of the CRJ?

A
  • Wing upper surface
  • Leading Edge
  • Horizontal and Vertical Tail
  • Engine inlets
  • Upper surface of the CRJ200
260
Q

When will 1B and 2B Hydraulic pumps run when the switch is in AUTO?

A
  1. Respective Bus is Powered 2. Off Side Generator 3. Flaps > 0
261
Q

How are the engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps cooled?

A

Hydraulic Fluid

262
Q

ADG powers what BUS and Hydraulic Pump?

A

ESS BUS and Hydraulic Pump 3B

263
Q

What Color is the Hydraulic Fluid on the CRJ?

A

Purple

264
Q

Maximum Crosswind for CAT II approach?

A

15 knots

265
Q

NTSBO

A

Nature, Time, Evac Signal, Brace, Other

266
Q

Lower then standard takeoff minimums?

A
  1. 1600 with CL or RCLM or HIRL or Adequate visual Reference 2. TDZ1200, MID1200 ROLL1000 with RCLM or HIRL or CL 3. TDZ1000, MID1000, ROLL1000 with CL or HIRL and RCLM 4. TDZ600, MID600, ROLL600 with HIRL and CL
267
Q

PRM Breakout Maneuver should not exceed _____ feet per minute

A

1000 feet per minute

268
Q

CRJ-200 What is the only way to isolate Hydraulic Pumps 1A and 2A

A

Engine Fire Button or shut down engine

269
Q

A and B ignition Battery bus?

A 
A = AC Batt Bus 
B = Battery Bus
270
Q

What is the purpose of the bungee breakout?

A

Transfer spoiler on to good control wheel side

271
Q

APU time limit between start attempts?

A

2 minutes

272
Q

Maximum slats or flaps altitude?

A

15,000 feet

273
Q

What are the two ways to get fuel to the collector tank?

A
  1. Scavenger jet pump from mains 2. Gravity flow to collector tank
274
Q

What does the ADG require to auto deploy?

A
  1. Wheels off Weight
  2. Parking brake off
  3. Last AC power source was internal
275
Q

What is a TRU?

A

Transformer rectifier unit, converts AC to DC

276
Q

CRJ-200 What does the BLEED MISCONFIG mean?

A

10th and 14th opened at the same time during critical phase of flight

( Flaps > 0 )

277
Q

When do you get the CABIN ALT caution/warning MSG

A

Caution = 8500 Warning = 10000

278
Q

What Hydrailic system powers outboard brakes?

A

2

279
Q

AC BUS power priority

A
  1. On side GEN
  2. APU
  3. Offside GEN
  4. External
280
Q

What does the Auto Pilot need to work?

A
  1. 2 FD
  2. 2 AHRS
  3. 1 ADC
  4. 1 Stab Trim
  5. 1 Yaw Damp
  6. No instability
281
Q

Purpose of Brake accumulator?

A

Store energy in case of Hydraulic 2 and 3 failure. Approximately 6 applications

282
Q

What does the IDG disconnect light mean?

A

There is difference in N2 and IDG speed

283
Q

N1 limitation after engine start?

A

75% N1 for 2 minutes

284
Q

APU start DC External Time Limits

A

2 x 15 seconds ON … 20 minutes OFF

2 x 15 seconds ON … 40 minutes OFF

285
Q

Maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing?

A

10 knots

286
Q

CRJ-200 What Bus TIE’s are Automatic or Manual?

A

Auto: BUS TIE 1, BUS TIE 2

Manual: BUS TIE 1, BUS TIE 2, ESS TIE

287
Q

CRJ-200 Thrust Reverser Arm Requirements?

A
  1. Weight on Wheels
  2. Wheel Speed >16kts
  3. Idle
  4. 14 Stage Bleed
  5. TRs Armed
288
Q

What Prevents APU Bleed Air Backflow?

A

APU ECU LCV Interlock Protection

289
Q

How may Generators can power a single bus?

A

1

290
Q

CRJ-200 What is the DC Service Switch function and purpose?

A
  • Connects DC serv to APU BATT DIR Bus
  • For Maintenance/Cleaning
  • Next to Battery Master
291
Q

Maximum Pressure Differential

A

8.7 PSI

292
Q

When will fuel transfer from center to main tanks occur?

A

When main tanks are 94% or less…center tank will transfer until main tanks are 100%

293
Q

What EICAS msgs can you box?

A
  1. Cautions

2. Status

294
Q

When do you get the OXY LO Caution message?

A

1410 psi or below

295
Q

How are the Emergency Lights powered and how long do they last?

A

Four 28 volt DC rechargeable Batteries that are independent of normal lights. Lasts 15 minutes at full charge

296
Q

Auto Pilot controls what Primary Control Surfaces?

A

Left Elevator and Right Aileron

297
Q

What MFD modes can you overlay TCAS and radar?

A

Radar, FMS Map, NAV Sector, TCAS

298
Q

How do you fly a Resolution Advisory ?

A

Fly the VSI not the FD

  • AP will not fly the RA
299
Q

Maximum First Officer Crosswind landing limitation

A

20 kts

  • Need to include gust factor
300
Q

When do you need a second landing alternate?

A

When the destination and the 1st alternate are marginal

Marginal = Weather forecast at ETA equal to the lowest authorized landing minimums

301
Q

If you only have TDZ RVR What is the min RVR for CAT II?

A

1600 RVR

302
Q

CAT II Maximum demonstrated Headwind?

A

16 knots

303
Q

Maximum freezing drizzle allows for landing or Takeoff?

A

Moderate Freezing Drizzle (Heavy Freezing Drizzle Not Authorized)

304
Q

Maximum freezing rain allowed for landing or Takeoff?

A

Light Freezing Rain (No moderate or heavy Authorized)

305
Q

What is the Maximum known icing that you can be dispatched or flown through?

A

Moderate (No Severe Icing)

306
Q

When may a Aircraft be dispatched to an airport reporting freezing drizzle or freezing rain?

A

Must have an Alternate

307
Q

Takeoff and landing are prohibited with what braking action?

A
  1. Nil 2. Poor with 10 knots crosswind or greater
308
Q

LAHSO Limitations?

A
  1. No wet Runways 2. Need Electronic or visible guidance 3. Not Authorized If windshear has been reported within 20 minutes 4. No more then 3 knot tailwind 5. 1,500 feet and no less than 5 statute miles visability
309
Q

What precipitation conditions can you not Takeoff in?

A
  1. Snow Pellets 2. Ice crystals 3. Heavy Snow in CRJ-200 4. Hail 5. Moderate or greater freezing rain
310
Q

CRJ-900 What is the approximate turning radius ?

A

75 feet

311
Q

Can you land or Takeoff where hail is actually occurring?

A

No

312
Q

Pilots must not vacate aircraft control seat below what Altitude?

A

10,000 Feet

313
Q

Headsets must be worn below what Altitude ?

A

Below 18,000 feet

314
Q

What are the Critical Phase of flight ?

A

Takeoff climbing to 10,000 feet and landing descending below 18,000 feet

315
Q

Standard IFR Takeoff Minimums?

A

1 mile or 5000 RVR for 2 engine or less

316
Q

What missing elements in a weather report can you not depart without?

A
  1. Wind speed or direction 2. Visibility 3. Sky condition if required by SID/DP
317
Q

When must you declare a fuel emergency?

A

Less than 30min of fuel at landing

318
Q

When do you need a Landing Alternate?

A

During the time 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated arrival time
Ceiling less than 2,000 feet
and Visibility less than 3 miles

319
Q

When is a Takeoff Alternate Required?

A

When the weather at the departure airport is below lowest usable landing minimums

320
Q

CRJ-200 Maximum Fuel Imbalance?

A

800 lbs

321
Q

Bulk Fuel Freezing Point?

A

-40 Degrees C

322
Q

When do the glare shield amber Roll Select switch lights illuminate?

A

When the roll disconnect handle has been pulled +20 seconds

323
Q

CRJ-200 If main jet pump fails … What other pump fails?

A

Onside transfer pump ( Uses motive flow from Main Jet Pumps )

324
Q

How are the fuel tanks vented?

A

NACA Scoops

325
Q

CRJ-200 What is the normal fuel supply for the APU?

A

Both main wing tanks

326
Q

What are the standard Alternate Weather minimums for a Airport with one approach navigation facility?

A

+ 400 HAT and + 1 mile Visibility

327
Q

What are the standard Alternate weather minimums for a Airport with two approach navigation facilities ?

A

Add 200 HAT and 1/2 mile Visibility

328
Q

Definition of a contaminated Runway?

A

more then 25% is covered by more then 1/8 inch standing water, slush or snow

329
Q

Maximum oil refill without dry motering

A

2 quarts

330
Q

When is reduced thrust prohibited?

A
  1. Anti Ice on 2. Contaminated Rwy 3. Tailwind > 5 knots 4. Windshear or downdrafts reported 5. Antiskid inop 6. Behind a heavy
331
Q

CRJ-200 Emergency Memory Item for Stab Trim Runaway?

A
  1. Control Wheel … Assume manual control and override runaway 2. Stab Trim Disconnect … Press, Hold then Release 3. Airplane Control … Transfer to Captain Side 4. STAB CH1 and STAB CH2 Circuits 2F5 and 4A1 … Open
332
Q

CRJ-200 Emergency Memory Item for Double Engine Failure

A
  1. Continuos Ignition…. On 2. Airspeed not less then 240 Knots
333
Q

CRJ-200 Emergency Memory Item for Hot/Interrupted start?

A
  1. Affected Engine thrust lever… Shutoff 2. Ignition…. Off 3. Dry motor until ITT is below 120 c respecting started time limits
334
Q

Emergency Memory Item for Asymmetric / loss of braking?

A
  1. Wheel Brakes… Release momentarily 2.Anti skid….off 3. Wheel brakes…… Reapply as required
335
Q

Minimum Takeoff Temperature?

A

-40 c

336
Q

What condition would you get a IDG fault light?

A

High oil temp or low oil pressure

337
Q

When will the APU auto shutdown anytime?

A
  1. Loss of ECU 2. Loss of RPM 3. Overspeed 4. Fire 5. DC Powerloss 6. Slow Start
338
Q

When is half bank mode auto selected?

A

Through 31,600 feet

339
Q

RVSM requirements

A
  1. Both primary altimeters operational 2. Transponder on side of pilot flying 3. Altitude alerter operational 4. Altitude within 200 feet
340
Q

When will the IDG auto disconnect

A
  1. High case temp 2. Over Torque
341
Q

What is the control priority of the horizontal stab trim?

A
  1. Pilot 2. Copilot 3. Autopilot 4. Auto trim 5. Mach Trim
342
Q

On the ground what prevents a gear up selection?

A

A solenoid lock

343
Q

How long do you have to wait after rejected takeoff if BTMS is working?

A

15 minutes

344
Q

When do hydraulic B pumps operate normally?

A
  1. When flaps are greater then zero 2. OFF side IDG logic
345
Q

Maximum APU start attempts in 1 hour?

A

3

346
Q

If a pilot oxygen is on diluter when will it become 100%?

A

30,000 feet

347
Q

What are the 3 ways to transfer fuel?

A
  1. Auto crossflow 2. Manual crossflow 3. Gravity crossflow
348
Q

CRJ-200 When does the auto fuel crossflow pump start?

A

When their is 200 lbs difference in main tanks activates until less than 50 lbs difference

349
Q

CRJ-200 Autopilot ILS Minimum disengage altitude

A

80 feet AGL

350
Q

Autopilot minimum engage Altitude?

A

600 feet

351
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Land Temperature?

A

ISA +35 degrees Celsius

352
Q

CRJ-200 M mo

A

Mach .85

353
Q

Captain Emergency Memory Item for Emergency Evacuation?

A
  1. Parking Brake … On 2. Evacuation or Expedited? … Assess 3. Flight Attendant … Assess and wait for my command 4. GND Lift Dumping … Manual Disarm 5. Thrust Levers … Shutoff 6. Evacuation/Deplaning … initiate 7. APU, Left and Right Engine Fire Pushlights … Select 8. Battery Master … Off
354
Q

EGPWS escape maneuver?

A
  1. AP Disconnect and Set max thrust 2. Flaps 8 3. Positive Rate Gear Up 4. Flaps up when clear of terrain
355
Q

Wind sheer escape maneuver?

A
  1. Press TOGA buttons 2. Set max thrust 3. Follow flight director 4. No configuration changes
356
Q

First Officer crosswind landing limitation?

A

20 Knots

357
Q

Maximum N2 difference at ground idle?

A

2%

358
Q

Minimum fuel temperature for takeoff

A

5 Celsius

359
Q

Maximum reverse thrust prohibited below what speed?

A

75 knots and must be idle by 60 Knots (less then 30% N1)

360
Q

When do you need continuous ignition?

A
  1. Contaminated runway 2. Crosswind greater than 10 knots on the CRJ-200 3. Moderate or heavier rain 4. Moderate or heavier turbulence 5. In vicinity of thunderstorms
361
Q

CRJ-200 Vtire

A

182 Knots groundspeed

362
Q

Bulk Fuel Temperature Takeoff Limit

A

-30 degrees Celsius

363
Q

Antiskid is off below what wheel Speed?

A

10 knots

364
Q

When is antiskid on upon landing?

A

Greater than 35 knots or wheels on weight for 5 seconds

365
Q

What is V1MBE

A

Max Speed That Brake Energy will be sufficient to stop the airplane

366
Q

Where can the Brake Cooling Requirment Charts be found?

A

QRH Volume 1

367
Q

CRJ-200 What indication would you get if the crew oxygen system over pressurized ?

A

The Green Oxygen overpressure plug on right forward fuselage would be missing

368
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 What indication would you get if the Crew oxygen system over pressurized ?

A

The Green oxygen overpressure plug on left forward fuselage would be missing

369
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 In the event of a cowl system overpressure what features have been designed to be clearly noticeable during an external walkaround?

A

None

370
Q

CRJ-700 What is the approximate turning radius ?

A

75 feet

371
Q

If the faucet in the lavatory starts to overflow because of a plugged drain where is the shutoff valve located?

A

Beneath the sink in the service compartment

372
Q

What warning messages are not accompanied by an aural/voice alert?

A

AFCS MSGS FAIL, EMER PWR ONLY, ENGINE OVERSPD

373
Q

In the event of ECP failure what four buttons remain active?

A

PRI, CAS, STAT, and STEP

374
Q

When the fault light is illuminated on the IDG switch light on the electrical panel what condition exists?

A

High oil temperature or low oil pressure

375
Q

According to the MEL if an IDG is deferred in the CRJ 200 the flight altitude will be limited to what?

A

29,000 feet

376
Q

When is the low speed awareness cue (green line) most accurate?

A

When flaps are at 45

377
Q

In the event of complete AC power failure the Backup Tuning Unit (BTU) allows crewmembers to…

A

Have COMM 1 and NAV 1

378
Q

If the First Officer selects the EMER function on the Audio Control Panel what communication functions will be available?

A

Receive and Transmit Comm2 and Receive Nav2

379
Q

What six items are required on the dispatch release?

A
  1. ID of aircraft 2. Trip number 3. Departure, destination, and alternate airports 4. IFR or VFR 5. MINTO Fuel 6. Latest weather forecasts/reports available
380
Q

Does an aircraft returns to the airport from which it departed to resolve a mechanical issue need a new Release?

A

Yes

381
Q

If at any point enroute the PIC determines that a landing cant be made with at least a _____minute supply of fuel he/she will declare an EMERGENCY.

A

30 minutes

382
Q

The actual QNH must be no more than ____ HG below the PQNH on a takeoff and landing report

A

0.1 HG

383
Q

When executing a GPS approach what message must be displayed on the PFD left of the HSI?

A

GPS APPR

384
Q

The typical diameter of a microburst is

A

1 mile

385
Q

Microburst downdrafts can be as strong as?

A

6,000 feet per minute

386
Q

During a microburst horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as?

A

45 knots

387
Q

An individual microburst seldom last more than?

A

15 minutes

388
Q

What weather time do we put on the Manual manifest?

A

TAF at destination

389
Q

How often is that TAF generated?

A

Four times a day, or every 6 hrs

390
Q

When does continuos ignition come on automatically?

A

during a high angle of attack or stall

391
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Emergency Memory Item for Double Engine Failure

A
  1. Continuos Ignition… On 2. (If N2<40%) Thrust Levers… Shutoff 3. ADG… Pull 4. STAB CH2… Engage 5. Airspeed… Establish ( .70 above FL340 or 240 Knots below)
392
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Emergency Memory Item for Hot Start Abort Message

A
  1. Affected Engine Thrust Lever…Shutoff 2. Dry Motor untill ITT below 120 C respecting starter time limit 3.Affected ENG STOP…Stop
393
Q

CRJ-700 Emergency Memory Item for Stab Trim Runaway

A
  1. Control Wheel…Assume Manual Control and Override Runaway 2. Stab Trim Disc…Select
394
Q

CRJ-700 Ground Engine Start Time Limits

A
  1. 90 seconds ON…10 seconds OFF 2. 90 seconds ON…10 seconds OFF 3. 90 seconds ON…5 minutes OFF 4. 90 seconds ON…5 minutes OFF 5. 90 seconds ON…5 minutes OFF
395
Q

CRJ-700 Max Zero Fuel Weight?

A

62,300 lbs

396
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Usable Fuel?

A

Mains = 7,492lbs Center = 4,610lbs Total = 19,594lbs

397
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Ground Dry Motoring Time limit?

A
  1. 90 seconds on…5 minutes off 2. 30 seconds on…5 minutes off
398
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 APU Maximum Altitude Bleed Use?

A

25,000 feet

399
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Takeoff Weight for Delta and Alaska?

A

74,999 lbs

400
Q

Standard CRJ-700 Maximum Takeoff Weight?

A

75,000 lbs

401
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Cargo Weight?

A

3,740 lbs AFT 1,000 FWD

402
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Landing Weight

A

67,000 lbs

403
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum aft Cargo Weight for Alaska?

A

4,375 lbs

404
Q

CRJ-700 Single Pack Operations?

A

31,000 feet

405
Q

CRJ-700 Maximim Zero Fuel Weight?

A

42,000 lbs

406
Q

CRJ-700 Engine Type?

A

GE CF34-8C1

407
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 N2 Idle range?

A

55% - 65%

408
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Vfe Flaps 30

A

185 knots

409
Q

CRJ-700 APU Maximum start Altitude?

A

37,000 feet

410
Q

CRJ-700 APU maximum engine start Altitude

A

Flight Level two one zero

411
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Altitude

A

Flight Level three nine zero

412
Q

CRJ-700 Vfe Flaps 45

A

170 Knots

413
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Landing Elevation?

A

9,600 feet

414
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Ramp Weight

A

75,250 lbs

415
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Minimum fuel for Go-Around per wing?

A

600 lbs

416
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Maximum Runway Slope

A

2%

417
Q

CRJ-700 Vmo

A

335 knots

418
Q

CRJ-700 Mmo?

A

.85 mach or .83 mach in RVSM

419
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff?

A

300 lbs

420
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Vfe Flap 1

A

230 knots

421
Q

CRJ-700 Flaps 20 Vfe

A

230 knots

422
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Vlo extension?

A

220 knots

423
Q

CRJ-700 Vlo retract

A

200 knots

424
Q

CRJ-700 Vtire

A

182 Knots Ground Speed

425
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Vadg deploy maximum airspeed

A

Vmo / Mmo

426
Q

CRJ-700 Maximum Fuel Imbalance

A

800 lbs

427
Q

CRJ-700 Main Generator KVA output to 41,000 ft

A

40 KVA

428
Q

CRJ-700 APU Generator KVA output to 41,000 ft?

A

40 KVA

429
Q

CRJ-700 What AFCS Mode is Prohibited for VOR Approaches?

A

APPR Mode

430
Q

CRJ-700 Max Differential Pressure

A

8.7 PSI

431
Q

Maximum Negative Differential Pressure?

A

Negative 0.5 PSI

432
Q

A ____ delay must be observed between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU drainage.

A

A two minute delay must be observed between cranking attempts to allow for cooling of starter and starter contactor and for APU drainage.

433
Q

Oil level must be checked within what time limit after shutdown?

A

Oil level must be checked within 3 minutes to 2 hours after every engine shutdown.

434
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Emergency Memory Item for Hot Start Abort Message?

A
  1. Affected Engine Thrust Lever…Shutoff 2. Dry Motor untill ITT below 120 c respecting starter time limit 3.Affected ENG STOP…Stop
435
Q

CRJ-700 CRJ-900 Ground Engine Start Time?

A
  1. 90 seconds ON…10 seconds OFF 2. 90 seconds ON…10 seconds OFF 3. 90 seconds ON…5 minutes OFF 4. 90 seconds ON…5 minutes OFF 5. 90 seconds ON…5 minutes OFF
436
Q

CRJ-900 Maximum Zero Fuel Weight?

A

70,750 lbs

437
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Maximum Wiper Speed?

A

250 knots

438
Q

CRJ-900 Maximum Takeoff Weight?

A

84,500 lbs

439
Q

CRJ-900 Maximum Cargo Weight

A

3,740 lbs AFT 1,700 lbs FWD

440
Q

CRJ-900 Maximum Landing Weight?

A

75,100 lbs

441
Q

CRJ-900 Single Pack maximum altitude

A

Flight Level two five zero

442
Q

CRJ-900 Maximum Aft Cargo Weight for WiFi Equipped aircraft?

A

3,650 lbs

443
Q

CRJ-900 Engine Type?

A

CF34-8C5

444
Q

CRJ-900 Maximum Ramp Weight?

A

85,000 lbs

445
Q

Minimum temperature for takeoff and landing?

A

-40 Celcius

446
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Vlo extension

A

220 knots

447
Q

CRJ-900 Vlo retract?

A

200 knots

448
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Vb

A

280 knots

449
Q

CRJ-900 M b

A

.75 Mach

450
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Aircraft with Photo Luminescent Lighting need to be Charged how often?

A

15 minutes everyday with Bright Cabin Lighting

451
Q

What is the Backup Tuning Unit for?

A

Access to COM1 and NAV1 in the Event of AC Power Loss

452
Q

You can only Transmit with the Backup Tuning Unit on which Mic?

A

The Handheld Mic

453
Q

Each Navigation Radio has how many DME Channels?

A

3

2 Are used for position and 1 for DME Hold

454
Q

How many Transponder Antennas on the CRJ?

A

4

2 for each Installed

455
Q

TCAS Range?

A

40 Nautical Miles

456
Q

MFD Range Settings for TCAS in the Terminal Area?

A

Range set to 5 or 10 Nautical Miles

457
Q

TCAS required to be displayed below what Altitude?

A

Below 18,000 feet the PM should have TCAS Displayed

458
Q

What is a PAC Alert?

A

Path Attenuation Correction….Warning that the Radar Beam is being completely absorbed by Heavy Precip. Shown as a Yellow Band on Radar Display

459
Q

What does SEC Button do on Radar Panel?

A

Limits Scan to 60 Degrees vs Normal 120 Degrees. This accomplishes a faster Radar update.

460
Q

What does STAB Button do on Radar Panel?

A

Antenna Stabilization…. Keeps Antenna horizontal during turns

461
Q

During a Windshear CAUTION… Escape guidance will only be provided if you press what Button?

A

TOGA

462
Q

The Auto Pilot will Disengage Automatically how many seconds after a Windshear Warning?

A

2 Seconds

463
Q

The APU ECU is powered by?

A

DC Power

464
Q

If the APU ECU fails will the APU shutdown?

A

Yes

465
Q

APU will auto shut down on the ground if:

A
  1. ECU Failure 2. DC PWR Loss 3. High Oil Temp 4. Low Oil Pressure 5. EGT Signal Loss 6. APU Fire 7. Overtemp 8. Overspeed 9. Slow Speed Start 10. Loss of Speed Signal 11. Door Position Error 12. Over Current
466
Q

CRJ-700 What is the wingspan?

A

76 Feet 3 inches

467
Q

How much time can you plan on the Crew Oxygen system lasting in the event of a depressurization and the oxygen level was at least at limitation?

A

10 minutes

468
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 When Emergency Flaps are selected, what position will the Slats and Flaps move to?

A

Slats to 20 degrees and Flaps to 20 degrees

469
Q

CRJ-900 What is the wingspan?

A

81 feet 7 inches

470
Q

CRJ-200 How much fuel does the APU burn an hour?

A

120 pounds per hour

471
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 How much fuel does the APU burn an hour?

A

260 pounds per hour

472
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 where does the APU draw fuel?

A

Directly from the Left Collector Tank via a dedicated APU pump

473
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 When gravity refueling what is the capacity of the center tank?

A

Cannot be gravity fueled

474
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 How many smoke detecters in the forward cargo bay need to activate in order to present a warning?

A

2 of the 3 smoke detectors

475
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 What are the sources of DC power?

A

4 TRU’s, 1 APU Battery and 1 Main Battery

476
Q

If pitch and roll red disc handles pulled, can they be restowed?

A

Yes

477
Q

What minimum speed should you maintain in a duel engine failure and why?

A

At least 240 knots… to prevent core lock and keep 1800 PSI hydraulic pressure

478
Q

What does it mean when you see the AC ESS XFER Switch-light?

A

The AC ESS BUS is seeking power from somewhere other than AC BUS 1. If illuminated white ALTN then AC ESSENTIAL BUS is not powered by AC BUS 1. The AC ESS BUS may or may not actually be powered, you need to check the synoptic page. May press manually if automatic feature fails or you want to power the AC ESS BUS from another source

479
Q

Does APU LCV Fail Open or Closed?

A

Fails Closed

480
Q

What is RAM air used for?

A
  1. Heat exchanger cooling for left and right PACKS (Cools 10TH stage manifold)
  2. RAM AIR is used when Both PACKS have failed and Supplies air to the LEFT manifold
  3. Hydraulic system 1 and 2
481
Q

When should the PIC communicate with the Dispatcher en-route?

A
  1. ETA excedes 15 minutes 2. Cruise altitude varies by 4,000 3. Exceed 100 miles from flight plan
482
Q

When must the PIC consult with dispatcher about release fuel?

A
  1. Any Fuel increase 2. More then a decrease of 200lbs or 50% contingency
483
Q

When do you need a new release?

A
  1. Change in aircraft 2. One hour or more delay 3. Return to field 4. Unscheduled landing
484
Q

Minimum required Marshalers for arrival?

A

One but two are preferred

485
Q

CRJ-200 What is the APU hazard area?

A

15 feet behind exhaust

486
Q

Describe the design of the CF34 engine?

A

Dual rotor free turbine engine. N1 fan driven by 4 low pressure turbines. N2 compressor with 14 stages driven by 2 high pressure turbines

487
Q

What are we checking on the FFOD fuel feed check valve test?

A

Fuel pumps are turned off to ensure the operating engine’s motive flow will not feed fuel to the inoperative engine and cause an imbalance. One pump from shutdown engine could feed to good engine, and good engine return lines running to good side tank could cause imbalance

488
Q

Range of the TCAS system?

A

40 nautical miles

489
Q

If Backup Tuning Unit is set to Auto, what frequency will it display?

A

Backup Tuning Unit will mimic RTU COM 1 frequency

490
Q

Inflight during a GND PROX warning what Aural and Visual cues will be displayed?

A
  1. Caution Terrain aural 2. Amber GND PROX switchlight 3. MFD Range is automatically selected to 10 4. Terrain is highlighted on MFD
491
Q

What is time to terrain impact with a Amber GND PROX Warning?

A

60 seconds

492
Q

What is time to terrain impact with a Red PULL UP/GND PROX Warning?

A

30 seconds

493
Q

Windshear Warnings take priority over what other audio warnings?

A

All except Stall Audio

494
Q

Approximate Tire Pressure and Hydroplane speed?

A

180 PSI means a Hydroplane of about 120 knots

495
Q

What are considered the most accurate runway braking reports?

A

PIREPS

496
Q

Difference between TAT and SAT?

A

Total Air Temperature probe is designed to bring the air to rest relative to the aircraft. As the air is brought to rest, kinetic energy is converted to internal energy. The air is compressed and experiences an increase in temperature. Therefore TAT is higher than the Static Air Temperature.

497
Q

How many knots does the speed bug represent?

A

10 knots or 5 knots on each side

498
Q

When will your mach information display of the PFD?

A

Accelerating through mach .45 or decelerating through mach .40

499
Q

CRJ-200 When must Wing anti-ice be ON for Taxi?

A

On your final taxi anytime the temperature is below 5 degrees C

500
Q

CRJ-200 When must Wing anti-ice be on for Takeoff?

A

OAT below 5 degrees C and any of the following: 1. Wet or Contaminated Runways 2. Any precipitation 3. Visible moisture in any form including clouds, fog or mist below 400 AGL

501
Q

CRJ-200 When must Cowl anti-ice be ON for Taxi?

A

OAT < 10 degrees C and 1. Visible moisture 2. Fog less then 1 mile visibility 3. Runway Contaminated

502
Q

CRJ-200 When must Cowl anti-ice be on for Takeoff?

A

OAT at or below 10 degress C and any of the following? 1. Wet or Contaminated Runways 2. Any precipitation 3. Visible moisture in any form including clouds, fog or mist below 400 AGL

503
Q

What is the definition of Final Taxi?

A

The period after 2nd engine start or two minutes prior to takeoff

504
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 When must Wing anti-ice be ON for Takeoff?

A

OAT < 5 degrees C and 1. Visible moisture 2. Fog less then 1 mile visibility 3. Runway Contaminated

505
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 Can you be dispatched with 1 Thrust Reverser with contaminated runways?

A

No

506
Q

When is De-ice fluid considered failed?

A

When it can no longer absurd frozen precipitation. Will appear to have a dull crystalline appearence

507
Q

Aircraft time order of priority?

A
  1. CAPTAIN’S CLOCK
  2. GPS
  3. FO’S CLOCK
508
Q

What are the 3 hot Busses?

A

APU BATT DIR BUS, BATT DIR BUS, and the DC EMER BUS

509
Q

When do the Oil pressure gauges dissapear?

A
  1. Both engines running 2. Oil pressure normal 3. N2 split within 2%. After these requirements are met gauges change to N1 Fan vibration
510
Q

CRJ-200 Engine Start Sequence?

A
  1. Air Turbine Starter valve opens on engine that is being started 2. All 10TH stage valves open Left, Right, and ISOL 3. At 55% N2 ENGINE START CUTOUT and ATS closes
511
Q

Define V2 Speed?

A

Takeoff safety speed or 1.2 Vs

512
Q

What is the first indication of impending stall?

A
  1. Continuous ignition activates 2. Stick shaker 3. Stick pusher
513
Q

What do you need to descend below MDA/DA?

A
  1. In a continues position to make a landing in the touchdown zone using normal maneuvers.
  2. Flight visibility equal to or greater then that prescribed in the IAP.
  3. The runway environment in sight. i.e. VASI, ALS, REIL, etc.
514
Q

To descend below 100’ above TDZE on a approach requires?

A

Red terminating bars or Red side row bars are visible and any of the following:

  1. Threshold markings or lights
  2. Runway markings or light bars
  3. Touchdown zone, markings or lights
  4. REIL
  5. VASI
515
Q

How are the emergency lights charged?

A

Chargers connected to the DC ESS bus.

516
Q

With just the battery master on, will the ALTN light illuminate?

A

Yes, since AC ESS BUS is not being powered by AC BUS 1.

517
Q

How many ice detector probes are on the CRJ?

A

2

518
Q

CRJ-200vYou lose the right engine. Which hydraulic pumps are unavailable?

A

1B and 2A

519
Q

What hydraulic systems are used to extend and retract the landing gear?

A

Hydraulic system 3 under normal conditions. System 2 will assist in MLG extension during a manual gear extension.

520
Q

How is a stick shaker deactivated?

A

Only by lowering AOA.

521
Q

For the stall pusher to be armed, what switches must be on?

A

Both Stall PTCT switches on.

522
Q

When does the AUTO XFLOW INHIBIT status message appear?

A

When the refuel/defuel panel is powered.

523
Q

If the main fuel gravity caps are removed with the main tanks full, what will happen?

A

Fuel will spill out until about 4400 lbs.

524
Q

Loop A is shorted, and loop B is detecting fire what message will you get?

A

Fire

525
Q

During normal duel loop operations, what indications will you receive if loop A is in a normal condition and loop B is detecting a fire?

A

Fire fail

526
Q

How does ACARS communicate?

A

VHF on Com3

527
Q

What causes a pack to automatically shutdown?

A

Overtemp or overpressure.

528
Q

CRJ-200 What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve?

A

So both wing anti-ice systems can be operated from one engine.

529
Q

CRJ-200 What happens to the anti-ice system during thrust reverse deployment?

A

Disabled until thrust reversers are stowed + 5 seconds

530
Q

What controls all spoilers?

A

Spoiler Electronic Control Unit (SECU).

531
Q

How is the stick pusher momentarily disconnected? Permanently?

A

Momentarily by pushing AP/SP DISC switch, lowering AOA. Permanently by turning stall PTCT switch off

532
Q

Can we still shoot a Cat II with 1200/0/0?

A

Yes, mid RVR/RO for a Cat II is advisory only

533
Q

What is the maximum distance for a takeoff alternate in the CRJ?

A

One hour in still air with one engine inoperative. Approximately 250 nautical miles in CRJ-200 and 300 nautical miles in CRJ-700 and CRJ-900

534
Q

If you depart VFR, when must you obtain an IFR clearance?

A

As soon as practical within 50 nautical miles

535
Q

What is marginal weather for the destination airport? Alternate?

A

For destination- when the visibility is equal to the lowest approach minimums. For alternate- when the visibility and ceiling are equal to the lowest approach minimums.

536
Q

What is exemption 3585?

A

Allows relief from conditional language in a forecast provided the conditional visibility is not less than ½ the approach minimums at the destination and the visibility and ceiling is not less than ½ the alternate minimums. If exemption 3585 is used, a second alternate is required and must be at or above alternate minimums including conditional language.

537
Q

What are the limitations for a high minimums First Officer?

A
  1. Cannot takeoff or land at special airports 2. Crosswind > 15 knots 3. Braking action less than good 4. Visibilty < 4000 RVR or 3/4 miles 5. windshear reported in the area 6. PIC’s discretion.
538
Q

Minimum CAT II RVR

A

TDZ 1200 MID 600 Rollout 300 all are contoling

  1. The TDZ RVR report is required and controlling for all CAT II operations.
  2. Mid RVR reports, if available, are controlling.
  3. The rollout RVR report is required and controlling for all CAT II operations below 1600 RVR
  4. If only TDZ RVR is available: 1600 RVR minimum
539
Q

Standard CAT II Approach Lighting Requirements?

A
  1. Required runway lights: HIRL, TDZ lighting, and CL lighting
  2. Required approach lights: ALSF-1 or ALSF-2
540
Q

Skywest circling to land weather minimums?

A
  1. The reported ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the visibility is at least 3 statute miles
  2. The reported weather is at least equal to the charted circling landing minimums for the approach to be used, whichever is higher.
541
Q

What do you need to descend below MDA/DH?

A

Aircraft is in a position from which a normal approach to the runway of intended landing can be made and at least one of the following:

  1. Runway, runway markings, or runway lights.
  2. Approach light system
  3. Touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
  4. Visual glidepath indicator (such as VASI or PAPI).
  5. Runway-end identifier lights.
542
Q

Requirements to accept a visual approach ?

A
  1. Within 35 miles
  2. The flight is under the control of Air Traffic Control
  3. Maintain cloud clearance and visability as specified in 91.155
543
Q

The Captain signing the AFL means what ?

A

Captain confirming airworthiness acceptance…

  1. All mechanical irregularities deferred
  2. All MEL/CDL transfered to DMI and Release
544
Q

What are the high minimums captain requirments ?

A
  1. Add 100 feet and 1/2 mile to MDA and Visability
  2. No CAT 2 approaches
  3. No 3585 exemption
  4. Approaches can never be less then 1 mile and 300 feet
545
Q

Whats is the definition of a high minimums Captain ?

A

A Captain that has not served 100 hours of PIC after IOE

546
Q

Whats is the definition of a high minimums First Officer ?

A

A First Officer that has not served 100 hours of SIC including IOE

547
Q

What are the high minimums First Officer requirments ?

A
  1. No approaches at or below 4000 RVR or 3/4 mile
  2. No contaminated runways
  3. No braking action less then good
  4. Crosswind greater then 15 knots
  5. Wind-shear
  6. Captain Discretion
548
Q

What are the FAR117 flight time limits?

A 
Daily limit in table B and :
1000 hours in 365 days
100 hours in 672 hours
190 FDP in 672 hours
60 FDP in 168 hours
549
Q

What does the DCU audio disable not silence?

A
  1. Gear Horn
  2. EGPWS
  3. TCAS
550
Q

If Prox Sensors (PSEU) are unpowered what do they default to?

A

weight off wheels (DC Powered)

551
Q

When can you not box caution messages?

A
  1. More then 1 page of messages

2. On the ground with 1 engine operating

552
Q

CRJ-200 What conditions to be on Electronic Engine Control?

A
  1. Engine speed switches on

2. N1 above 79%

553
Q

What is the Probe on top of the engine inlet called and its purpose?

A

This is the T2 probe… used by the engine to determine temperature and pressure. It is heated by 14th stage bleed air

554
Q

CRJ-200 How long is APR armed and activated for?

A

Armed for 5 minutes and if activated for an additional 5 minutes

555
Q

CRJ-200 When does starter and ignition cut out on an engine start?

A

55% N2

556
Q

CRJ-700 and CRJ-900 When does starter and ignition cut out on an engine start?

A

50% N2

557
Q

CRJ-200 How big is the engine oil system?

A

7 quarts

558
Q

CRJ-200 when will AC Utility Bus disconnect on the ground ?

A
  1. Flaps > 0
  2. On single Generator
  3. Main and Service door closed
559
Q

CRJ-200 when will AC Utility Bus disconnect in flight ?

A

On single generator

560
Q

When would you get amber dashes for fuel flow?

A
  1. Fuel Flow invalid

2. Greater then 5,000 pounds of fuel flow

561
Q

When would you get a low fuel quantity?

A

You won’t … will only get Amber Fuel Quantity if below 900 pounds or less then 450 pounds in either wing.

562
Q

How many and where are the fuel probes?

A

6 in each main and 3 in center

563
Q

Does hydraulic pump 3B have IDG Logic?

A

Yes in Auto mode only requires IDG1 or IDG2. If in on position will operate as long as their is AC power

564
Q

CRJ-200 Pulling the manual landing gear release handle does what?

A
  1. Releases Hydraulic pressure
  2. Releases up-locks
  3. Activates MLG downlink assist actuator
565
Q

When are takeoff configuration warnings active?

A

Above 70% N1

566
Q

How many PCU’s on elevator, rudder and ailerons

A 
Elevator = 3
Rudder = 3
Aileron = 2
567
Q

What message would you get on a duel loop system if one loop is detecting normal and one loop is detecting fire?

A

Fire Fail

568
Q

What message would you get on a duel loop system if one loop is detecting short and one loop is detecting fire?

A

Fire

569
Q

What fire detection systems only have a single loop system

A
  1. MLG Bay

2. 14 Stage Bleed

570
Q

Do 10th stage bleed valves fail open or closed?

A

Fail closed (Electro-pneumatic)

571
Q

Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure requirements found?

A

SOP Appendix A

572
Q

Where is the plug located for DC external power?

A

Under right (number 2) engine

573
Q

What message would you get on a duel loop system if both loops are detecting short?

A

Fire Fail

574
Q

How many Halon bottles and squibs dedicated to the APU?

A

1 Halon bottle and 2 squibs

575
Q

What will shutoff automatically in the case of a cargo fire?

A
  1. Cargo fan
  2. Recirculation SOV
  3. AC SOV
  4. Exhaust SOV
  5. Heater

(3 SOV valves, 1 fan and the heater)

576
Q

Where and how many landing lights?

A

Two in the nose cone and two in each wing for a total of six ( Outboard wing light is also recog light )

577
Q

What are the hot buses in the airplane?

A
  1. APU BATT DIR
  2. MAIN BATTERY DIR
  3. DC EMER BUS - includes fire extinguishers
578
Q

What’s the difference between EMER POWER ONLY and Loss of all AC Power?

A

Loss of all AC Power means the ADG didn’t deploy.

EMER POWER means the ADG deployed

579
Q

We’re at the gate prior to pushback. What hydraulic pumps are operating?

A

3A

580
Q

What is low pressure in the hydraulic system?

A

1800 PSI get Low Pressure caution message

581
Q

How do we ensure that we accurately check the brake wear indicators?

A
  1. Hydraulic System 2 & 3 on

2. Parking brake set

582
Q

Can an open loop detect any sort of fire?

A

Yes, but not in the place where it’s open

583
Q

What does BOTTLE 1 PUSH TO DISCH green light mean?

A

The bottles are armed and have sufficient pressure.

584
Q

When you turn the Cargo switch from COND AIR to FAN, what happens?

A
  1. Heater shuts off
  2. Conditioned Air shuts off
    ( Cargo only gets recirculated exhaust air from the cabin )
585
Q

CRJ-200 What’s does a missing Warning message mean on FFOD fire test?

A

You have an open loop

586
Q

CRJ-200 What’s does a missing FIRE FAIL message mean on FFOD fire test?

A

There is a short in the loop

587
Q

What conditions need to be met for the fuel boost pumps to come on?

A
  1. Pump armed

2. Low pressure onside

588
Q

CRJ-200 If both transfer ejectors fail, can we get fuel out of the center tank?

A

No

589
Q

CRJ-200 If a main ejector failed, how do we get fuel from collector tanks to the engine pumps?

A

DC fuel boost pumps

590
Q

CRJ-200 Where do the scavenge ejectors get their motive flow from?

A

Engine-driven pumps

591
Q

CRJ-200 Where do the transfer ejectors get their motive flow from?

A

Main ejectors

592
Q

CRJ-200 Where do the Main ejectors get their motive flow from?

A

Engine-driven pumps

593
Q

When does the starter cut out on the APU?

A

50% RPM

594
Q

Describe the APU LCV interlock protection?

A

Based on switch position, designed to protect the APU from hot engine bleed air backflowing into it. If you press the L 10th stage bleed, or ISOL/ R 10th bleed,the APU LCV will close.

595
Q

What is the purpose of the APU LCV?

A

It modulates the load being placed on the APU. Balances between electric and bleed air.

596
Q

What items are on the engine accessory gearbox?

A
  1. IDG
  2. Hydraulic pump
  3. Engine-driven fuel pump
  4. Alternator
  5. Oil pump
  6. ATS
597
Q

If we get a HIGH PRESS message from one of the packs and we’re running off the APU, what’s going to happen?

A

Pack will shut down. (PRSOV will close)

598
Q

If we get a HIGH PRESS message from one of the packs and the bleed air source is the engines, what’s going to happen?

A
  1. Pack will shut down (PRSOV closes).
  2. Associated engine 10th bleed air valve closes
  3. 10th stage ISOL valve closes
599
Q

If we had a jammed right aileron, could we re-engage the autopilot?

A

No…. The aileron servo is on the right side

600
Q

If we had a bleed leak detected in the leading edge of the wing, how would we recognize that?

A
  1. ANTI-ICE DUCT Warning appears on EICAS.

2. DUCT FAIL switchlight illuminates

601
Q

What detects a bleed wing leak?

A

Spot detectors…. The anti-ice ducts sit inside a larger tube with pre-drilled holes. If there’s a leak, hot air leaks out of the larger tube and sets off the spot detectors

602
Q

What does the WING OVHT message indicate and what trips that warning?

A

Thermal sensors in the wing root indicate that the wing temperature is exceeding limits.

603
Q

What’s the difference between NORM and STBY for wing anti-ice?

A

NORM: Valves modulate to maintain a higher wing temperature
STBY: Valve switches from fully open to fully closed to maintain a lower wing temperature

604
Q

We select the TO/GA buttons in preparation for takeoff. What pitch will our FD set?

A

12.5 degrees

605
Q

On a go-around, what does the FD pitch for?

A

10 degrees

606
Q

How close is conflicting aircraft if we get a Resolution Advisory?

A

25 seconds from impact

607
Q

Can we silence the SINK RATE warning?

A

No

608
Q

If the PASS OXY light comes on, what does that indicate?

A

Either that CPAM automatically deployed the pax O2 masks at 14,000 cabin pressure altitude or we did it manually.

609
Q

How does the APU ensure it can supply electrical needs?

A

Modulating Bleed LCV to give priority to electrical needs

610
Q

AVAIL light on APU signifies what?

A

Ready to accept bleed air loading

611
Q

What message will you get if there’s a bleed air leak in the pylon?

A

Jet Pipe Overheat

612
Q

How much does a ticketed guitar weigh?

A

Counted as a child in summer 82 lbs or 87 lbs in winter

613
Q

Why do you pull the ADG handle even if the ADG deploys automatically?

A

ADG manual deploy handle must be pulled for BATT Bus to provide power to DC ESS after ADG winds down

614
Q

If ambient temperatures are greater than ____, avoid prolonged ground operations with hydraulic system operating

A

40 degrees C

615
Q

How long can the aircraft be left unattended with APU operating?

A

5 minutes

616
Q

Under normal conditions, When do you start the APU prior to push ?

A

APU start will be delayed until 10 minutes prior to pushback, unless required for extreme environmental conditions

617
Q

Maximum holding speed?

A

Sea Level - 6,000 = 200 knots
6,001 - 14,000 = 230 knots
14,001 - Above = 265 knots

618
Q

When must you be at holding speed when assigned a hold?

A

3 miles prior to hold you must be on speed

619
Q

What do you report to ATC when entering or leaving a hold?

A

P position
T time
A altitude

620
Q

How long must the battery master be on the CRJ 700 to ensure a
successful fire test?

A

30 seconds

621
Q

What does pressing APU FIRE PUSH switchlight accomplish?

A

• Both squibs are armed and the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH
switchlight illuminates
• APU fuel feed shutoff valve closes.
• APU fire shutoff relay is energized to shut down the APU by losing the fuel
solenoid valve.
• APU LCV closes.
• APU generator is tripped off.

622
Q

What are the required flight Items and documents to bring?

A

Pilot Certificate, Medical, corrective lenses, SkyWest ID, Flashlight, Headset (Spare corrective lenses, Passport and FCC Permit if International)

623
Q

When doing the FFOD FIREX Monitor Test on the CRJ 200, what are
you looking for when you move the ENGINE BOTTLES 1 and 2 and APU
switches to TEST?

A

L & R ENG SQUID 1 & 2, APU SQUIB 1 & 2 advisory messages are
displayed on ED-2

624
Q

What happens with an APU fire condition detected in the air?

A

APU will auto shutdown

625
Q

With the autopilot inop, what is your maximum cruise altitude?

A

FL280 due to RVSM airspace

626
Q

During ADG deployment… What DC Bus is powered?

A

ESS TRU1 powers ESS DC BUS and DC BATT BUS off Battery

From Flashcardlet (5 decks)

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