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Screening questions, Pediatrics > Screening questions > Flashcards

Screening questions Flashcards

1
Q

Imaging modality of choice when evaluating a child for infantile hypertrophic pyloric
stenosis

A

Ultrasonography

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2
Q

Typical age of intussusception in infants

A

3 months - 3 years

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3
Q

What are the two typical anamnestic features of acute appendicitis?

A

First epigastrial and paraumbilical pain, later the pain is localized on the RLQ

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4
Q

Imaging study of the polytraumatized patient

A

Acute CT

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5
Q

Most common cause of acute abdomen in children

A

Appendicitis

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6
Q

What is the first test in case of bloody stool?

A

DRE

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7
Q

What is two-stage splenic rupture?

A

Splenic rupture occurs in two stages. Initial
subcapsular haematoma formation may have only mild symptoms.
Later a second stage may occur after hours or days, and is usually characterised by the rapid development
of shock, as the spleen and mesentery tend to bleed rapidly and copiously.

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8
Q

What is the most common cause of strangulation ileus?

A

Incarcerated hernia

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9
Q

The most common cause of transfusion-requiring hematochezia, without abdominal pain and without diarrhea

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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10
Q

You find a high GGT in a patient with UC, what should you think about?

A

Sclerosing cholangitis

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11
Q

What are the features of the perianal fissures in a patient with Crohn’s disease?

A

Not in the midline, deep, not painful.

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12
Q

What is the first therapeutic choice in Crohn’s diseaese?

A

Exclusive enteral nutrition

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13
Q

What kind of gas is insufflated during laparoscopy?

A

CO2

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14
Q

What is the official name of the spring-loaded insufflation needle used to create pneumoperitoneum for laparoscopic surgery?

A

Veres-needle

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15
Q

In case of thoracic empyema after drainage or thoracoscopy, what kind of method is used in
order to dissolve the thick, highly viscous pleural fluid (pus)?

A

Fibrinolysis/urokinase/streptokinase

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16
Q

What are the two most frequent chest deformities?

A

Pectus excavatum and carinatum

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17
Q

What are typical signs of bacterial otitis externa?

A

Pain and/or sensitivity of the tragus

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18
Q

What are the 4 most important indication of adenotomy?

A 
- Infection of the upper
respiratory tract
- Otitis media
- Inhibition of nasal breathing
- Obstructive sleeping apnoe
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19
Q

The most frequent pathogen of sinusitis and otitis media?

A

S. pneumonia

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20
Q

In which case of inflammatory disease of the middle ear can we suggest tympanostomy
tubes (Grommet)?

A

Chronic serous otitis media and/or chronic dysfunction of the Eustachian tube

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21
Q

Most frequent pathogen in UTIs

A

E. coli

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22
Q

What can we find in the urine, in the case of glomerulonephritis?

A

RBC and RBC cylinders. Proteinuria can also appear.

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23
Q

What is the most frequent cause of hypertension before the adolescent age?

A

Kidney disease

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24
Q

Most frequent type of glomerulonephritis

A

IgA nephropathy

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25
Q

What kind of antihypertensiv drug would you recommend in hyperkinetic hypertension?

A

Beta-blocker

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26
Q

What is the prognosis of West-syndrome or infantile spasm?

A

Usually poor

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27
Q

What is the essential criterion of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Non-progressive, residual brain injury

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28
Q

Which pathogen does cause most commonly typical pneumonia?

A

S. pneumonia

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29
Q

What are the two main components of the home treatment of pseudocroup?

A
  • Rectal steroid

- Inhalation of (fresh) cool air

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of acute cough

A

Viral infection

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31
Q

What is the significance of the Holzknecht sign?

A

Airway foreign body aspiration

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32
Q

What is the most common cause of coughing, which has been presenting since birth and
occuring always during feeding?

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

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33
Q

How much part of the mortality is caused by accidents in the children older than 1 year, in
Hungary?

A

36-40%, this is the main cause of death in children older than 1 year

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34
Q

What is the prognosis of juvenile absence epilepsy?

A

Usually particularly favorable

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35
Q

What is the indication of ACTH as an anticonvulsant drug?

A

West syndrome/infantile

spasm/BNS epilepsy

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36
Q

What can prevent coronary artery disease (aneurysm) in Kawasaki syndrome?

A

IVIG

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37
Q

What is the most serious complication of neonatal lupus erythematosus?

A

Congenital heart

block - third-degree (complete) atrioventricular heart block.

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38
Q

Which muscles are affected in juvenile polymyositis?

A

Proximal muscles of the limbs.

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39
Q

What is typical for the embryonic form of extrahepatic biliary atresia?

A

Usually other

malformations are associated (situs inversus, polysplenia, etc).

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40
Q

When can we expect the onset of symptoms in Wilson disease?

A

After 4-5 years of age.

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41
Q

Where in the liver is the CFTR protein expressed?

A

In the biliary ducts.

42
Q

What is the typical feature of stool in biliary atresia?

A

Clay-colored (acholic)

43
Q

What is the most serious complication of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Macrophage activation syndrome (MAS)

44
Q

What kind of diseases are included in atopic march and in which order?

A

Food allergy -

atopic dermatitis - asthma bronchiale - allergic rhinitis

45
Q

What is the frequency of food allergy in childhood according to the parents and in the reality
(after elimination and re-challenge)?

A

Approx. 7-10%, and 1-2 %, respectively.

46
Q

How to diagnose food allergy - how reliable is allergen-specific IgE testing?

A

Allergen-specific IgE is not totally reliable. Elimination diet, and after the symptoms disappear,
allergen re-challenge is the suggested method of diagnosis

47
Q

How much is the minimal serum IgA concentration, when the tissue-transglutaminase
(TTG) antibody or the endomysial anibody (EMA) can be positive in celiac disease?

A

0.2 g/l

48
Q

Which 3 criteria are required in order to avoid biopsy in a child with suspected celiac
disease?

A
  1. Positive clinical signs and symptoms
  2. Positive tissue-transglutaminase
    (TTG) antibodyAND endomysial antibody (EMA)
  3. Positive genetic results (HLADQ2 and -DQ8).
49
Q

What is the diagnostic basis of endocarditis?

A

Haemaculture and echocardiography

50
Q

What are the upper airway infections that should be treated with antibiotics?

A

Streptococcus

angina, acute otitis media and acute bacterial sinusitis.

51
Q

What is te diagnostic basis of erythema migrans?

A

The fact of tick bite and the clinical

picture: growing erythema, which is more than 5 cm in diameter

52
Q

What is the ideal age for closing the soft palate defect?

A

Between 9-18 months

53
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in the following case: patient with polyuria, polydypsia
with positive urine glucose and acetone test?

A

Diabetes mellitus

54
Q

Patient with typical symptoms has a 18,2 mmol/l blood sugar level in the afternoon. What is
to be done?

A

Direct the child to a pediatric diabetic center immediately.

55
Q

What kind of hormonal changes are seen in the salt wasting form of congenital adrenal
hyperplasia due to deficiency of 21-hydroxylase?

A

Insufficient glucocorticoid and

mineralocorticoid secretion, excessive androgen secretion.

56
Q

How does the mother iodine deficiency influence the newborn’s thyroid function?

A

It results in temporary primary hypothyroidism.

57
Q

Which is the most common adrenocortical enzyme defect?

A

21-hydroxylase

58
Q

You experience low blood sugar level in an infant, who has normal temperature and hepatomegaly, what disease do you think of?

A

Type I. glycogenosis - von Gierke disease

59
Q

What are the most typical histologic findings in ulcerative colitis?

A

Crypt abscesses

60
Q

Name at least 5 extra-intestinal abnormalities in celiac disease

A
  • Hepatitis
  • Osteoporosis
  • Arthritis
  • Isolated iron deficiency
  • Duhring-disease (dermatitis herpetiformis)
61
Q

What is the definition of “graft versus leukaemia”?

A

Immunologic attack of donor cells against patient’s leukaemic cells

62
Q

What is haploidentical trasplant?

A 
Half matched (HLA antigene) stem cell transplant
(usually from a family member)
63
Q

What does allogeneic stem cell transplant mean?

A

The patient (recipient) gets haemopoetic stem cells from another person (donor)

64
Q

What glucose levels are diagnostic for diabetes mellitus?

A

Blood glucose level higher then 7 mmol/l in any time, or more than 11.1 mmol/l during oral glucose tolerance test
(OGTT)

65
Q

Which are the 4 presenting symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Polyuria, polydypsia, loss of weight beside good appetite, fatigue, weakness.

66
Q

What are the most common associated diseases in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A

Celiac disease and Hashimoto thyreoiditis

67
Q

What is the most modern therapeutic method of type one diabetes?

A

Insulin pump with an

integrated glucose sensor.

68
Q

How much is the insulin dose in diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

0.05-0.1 U/kg/h

69
Q

Since the introduction of expanded screening, how many congenital metabolic diseases are
screened routinely?

A

26

70
Q

The final therapy of biliary atresia is liver transplantation. There is a surgical bridge therapy until transplantation. What is the name of this operation?

A

Kasai porto-enterostomy

71
Q

How often should a baby be breastfed?

A

On-demand

72
Q

When is it suggested to give cow’s milk for children?

A

After 12 months of age

73
Q

How does the breast milk’s protein content relate to the cow’s milk protein content?

A

One third

74
Q

For how long do the primitive reflexes exist normally?

A

Until 9 months of age

75
Q

What are the diseases which can be easily diagnosed and followed up by cranial ultrasound?

A

Brain hemorrhage and hydrocephalus

76
Q

For how long can we see the shadow of the thymus on the thoracic X-ray?

A

Till 3 years of age

77
Q

How can be the airway foreign body diagnosed? (At least two methods!)

A

Expiratory and inspiratory chest radiograph or fluoroscopy (real-time moving images).

78
Q

What radiological examinations can be done to diagnose VUR? (Name three!)

A
  • MCUG
  • Sonocystography
  • Dynamic kidney-scintigraphy
79
Q

How can you diagnose perforation in a critically ill baby suffered from necrotising enterocolitis if you can not move him/her in the incubator?

A

Horizontal X-ray from side position while the baby is lying on the back.

80
Q

In which part of the bone does osteomyelitis start?

A

Metaphysis

81
Q

How can be defecation ensured in the case of high (proximal) anus atresia?

A

With the creation of a sigmoidostoma.

82
Q

How long to wait after surgery before bathing?

A

7-8 dayse

83
Q

What is the reactivation of chicken pox (varicella)?

A

Herpes zoster

84
Q

What is the sixth disease?

A

Exanthema subitum, roseola infantum.

85
Q

Which is that contagious disease that causes severe fetal injuries in 80 percent of the cases?

A

Rubella

86
Q

Name at least five examples, where pulsoxymetry is not informative!

A
  • Carbon-dioxide intoxication
  • Methaemoglobinaemia
  • Severe anaemia
  • Cardiac failure
  • Cold extremities.
87
Q

Define the matter of paradoxical breathing!/Define paradoxical breathing!

A

The chest moves inward and the abdomen moves outward during inhalation, and vice versa.

88
Q

How do we give oxygen to a conscious patient who is breathing spontaneously?

A

Through a face mask with reservoir, with high flow oxygen (10-15 l/min).

89
Q

How (..) change the concentrations of protein and glucose in the liquor?

A

Protein concentration is elevated and the glucose content is decreased

90
Q

What are the two most frequent pathogens causing neonatal meningitis?

A

S. agalactiae, E. coli

91
Q

What influences decisively the sensitivity of hamoculture?

A

The quantity of blood sample taken in 24 hours following the fever episodes.

92
Q

What is the name of that funcional disorders, which is characterised by crying following with straining for 10 minutes.

A

Infantile dyschezia.

93
Q

Which bacterium causing neonatal infection could be identified from the vaginal sample?

A

GBS

94
Q

How much is the quantity the fluid bolus which is necessary for the management of septic shock?

A

20 ml/kg body weight

95
Q

What is the most frequently occuring endocrinological disorder causing growth retardation?

A

Hypothyroidism

96
Q

How can we define premature puberty?

A

Onset of secondary sexual character starts

before 8 years

97
Q

What can be found in the urinary sediment in typical pyelonephritis?

A

Leukocytes and bacteria

98
Q

At which chromosomal abnormality is frequent the occurance of duodenal atresia?

A

Trisomy 21

99
Q

What is the radiological sign of duodenal atresia?

A

Double bubble

100
Q

What is the most important question, which we have to ask at functional gastroenterological complaints in infancy?

A

How is the infant developing? If the infant’s

somatic development is good, organic causes of the complaints is not probable.

Screening questions, Pediatrics (1 decks)

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