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Neuroanatomy > Section 1 > Flashcards

Section 1 Flashcards

1
Q

ganglia

A

nerve cell bodies in PNS

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1
Q

nuclei

A

nerve cell bodies in CNS

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2
Q

how many neurons in the nervous system

A

100 billion (10^11)

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3
Q

how many glial cells in the nervous system

A

1 trillion (10^12)

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4
Q

Santiago Ramon Cajal

A

father of modern neuroscience, used Golgi staining

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5
Q

Golgi staining

A

can see the outline of neurons

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6
Q

dendrites

A

toward cell body

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7
Q

axon

A

away from cell body

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8
Q

multipolar cell examples

A

cerebellar Purkinje
cerebellar granule
inferior olive
spinal cord motor
large pyramidal

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9
Q

olfactory cells are _____ cells

A

bipolar

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10
Q

dorsal root ganglia neuron cell type

A

pseudounipolar

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11
Q

sympathetic: excitatory or inhibitory?

A

excitatory

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12
Q

parasympathetic: excitatory or inhibitory?

A

inhibitory

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13
Q

function of short interneuron

A

both excitatory and inhibitory
spinal cord reflex: connects sensory neuron directly to motor neuron

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14
Q

function of long interneuron

A

project from cerebral cortex to spinal cord

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15
Q

astrocyte function

A

maintain NT levels, ion concentration, metabolic support, BBB

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16
Q

most abundant glial cell

A

astrocyte

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17
Q

perivascular endfeet

A

astrocytes that are tightly associated with the capillary to regulate BBB

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18
Q

BBB restrictions

A

pathogens, certain solutes, peripheral immune factors

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19
Q

neurovascular coupling

A

increased neuronal activity causes astrocytes to induce vasodilation (higher level of activity leads to more oxygen)

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20
Q

satellite glial cells

A

cover the surface of neuron cell bodies in ganglia
like peripheral astrocytes

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21
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

myelinate CNS neurons

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22
Q

Schwann cells

A

myelinate PNS neurons

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23
Q

can neuron be wrapped in Schwann cells and be unmyelinated?

A

yes, they contribute to the microenvironment

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24
Q

tract

A

a bundle of fibers in the nervous system that connects one area to another and usually consists mostly of white matter

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25
Q

commissure

A

a type of white matter tract that cross the midline, connecting the same cortical area in opposite hemispheres

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26
Q

quiescent vs reactive microglia

A

regulatory state vs immune state

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27
Q

ependymal cells

A

glial cells that line the walls of the ventricles and produce CSF
regulate the transfer of fluid and ions between CSF and neurons

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28
Q

medial longitudinal fissue

A

separates the two hemispheres

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29
Q

central sulcus

A

separates frontal and parietal lobe

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30
Q

lateral sulcus

A

separates frontal/parietal from temporal lobe

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31
Q

how to find central sulcus

A

the gyri on either side project inferiorly whereas the other gyri project in various directions

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32
Q

insula

A

forms in early brain development
can be seen if frontal and parietal lobe are separated from temporal lobe

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33
Q

parieto-occipital sulcus

A

separates parietal and occipital lobe

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34
Q

corpus callosum

A

white matter that connects the cerebral hemispheres

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35
Q

limbic lobe

A

outside of the corpus callosum

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36
Q

which ventricle is the diencephalon located

A

third ventricle

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37
Q

internal carotids

A

provides 80% of blood supply, most of telencephalon and diencephalon

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38
Q

vertebral arteries

A

supply brainstem and cerebellum

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39
Q

circle of Willis

A

internal carotid
anterior cerebral
anterior communicating
middle cerebral
posterior communicating
posterior cerebral

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40
Q

posterior cerebral artery projects to …

A

the primary visual cortex

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41
Q

occlusion of anterior cerebral artery

A

affects leg and hip regions

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42
Q

occlusion of middle cerebral artery

A

affects arms and facial regions

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43
Q

ischemic stroke

A

build up of material in the artery

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44
Q

intracerebral hemorrhage

A

arterial rupture leads to explosion of blood in head

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45
Q

which week of development does the nervous system arise?

A

third week

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46
Q

neural plate

A

longitudinal band of ectoderm that thickens during third week to form the neural plate

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47
Q

neural groove

A

folding of neural plate

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48
Q

neural tube

A

next step in development after neural groove

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49
Q

closure of cranial neuropore

A

day 25
18-20 somites

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50
Q

closure of caudal neuropore

A

day 27
25 somites

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51
Q

notochord

A

transient axial mesodermal structure
eventually becomes part of intervertebral discs

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52
Q

somites

A

mesoderm-derived
form vertebral column and segmental units of muscle and dermis

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53
Q

when are primary vesicles apparent

A

day 24

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54
Q

cranioarchischisis

A

open spinal cord and spine
CNS open on dorsal surface

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55
Q

anencephaly

A

failure of rostral end to close

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56
Q

spina bifida

A

failure of caudal end to close
cord and meninges are displaced into a cavity on the back
no vertebrate over lesion

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57
Q

cephalic flexure

A

in mesencephalon

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58
Q

cervical flexure

A

between spinal cord and rhombencephalon

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59
Q

lamina terminalis

A

divides two sides of telencephalon

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60
Q

secondary vesicles of prosencephalon

A

telencephalon
diencephalon

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61
Q

secondary vesicle of mesencephalon

A

mesencephalon

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62
Q

secondary vesicles of rhombencephalon

A

metencephalon and myelencephalon

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63
Q

pontine flexure

A

in the metencephalon

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64
Q

derivative of telencephalon

A

cerebrum

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65
Q

derivatives of diencephalon

A

thalamus
hypothalamus
retina
midbrain structures

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66
Q

mesencephalon

A

midbrain

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67
Q

metencephalon

A

pons
cerebellum

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68
Q

myelencephalon

A

medulla

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69
Q

when do the telencephalon and diencephalon fuse?

A

by the third month

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70
Q

when does the basal ganglia experience downward folding?

A

in the 2nd month

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71
Q

how does the lateral ventricle get its C-shape?

A

the cerebral hemispheres grow in a C-shaped manner

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72
Q

week 3 major developments

A

neural groove and folds
primary vesicles
cervical and cephalic flexures
motor neurons

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73
Q

week 4 major developments

A

neural tube closures (day 22-26)
neural crest cells migrate
secondary neurulation starts
motor nerves

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74
Q

week 5 major developments

A

pontine flexure
secondary vesicles
sulcus limitans
sensory ganglia
sensory nerves
basal ganglia begins

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75
Q

week 6-7 major developments

A

enlarged telencephalon
prominent basal ganglia
secondary neurulation complete
cerebellum and optic nerve begin
choroid plexus
insula

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76
Q

week 8-12 major developments

A

neural proliferation and migration
cerebral and cerebellar cortex begin
reflexes

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77
Q

week 12-16 major developments

A

neuronal proliferation and migration
glial differentiation
corpus callosum

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78
Q

week 16-40 major developments

A

neuronal migration
cortical sulci
glial proliferation
myelination
synapse formation

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79
Q

neural crest

A

transient migratory population of cells that emerges from the edges of the neural folds as the neural tube separates from the ectoderm

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80
Q

neural crest cells give rise to…

A

sensory neurons (posterior root ganglia, cranial nerves)
post-ganglionic neurons of ANS
adrenal medulla
Schwann cells
pigmented skin cells

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81
Q

cranial neural crest cells

A

cartilage and bone
connective tissue
neurons and glia in CNS

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82
Q

trunk neural crest cells

A

pigment cells
sensory neurons and glia
Scwann cells

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83
Q

CN I

A

olfactory

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84
Q

CN II

A

optic

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85
Q

CN III

A

oculomotor

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86
Q

CN IV

A

trochlear

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87
Q

CN V

A

trigeminal

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88
Q

CN VI

A

abducens

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89
Q

CN VII

A

facial

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90
Q

CN VIII

A

vestibulocochlear

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91
Q

CN IX

A

glossopharyngeal

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92
Q

CN X

A

vagus

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93
Q

CN XI

A

spinal accessory

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94
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal

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95
Q

sulcus limitans

A

divides neural tube into dorsal alar plate and ventral basal plate

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96
Q

alar plate gives rise to …

A

sensory area of brain and spinal cord

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97
Q

basal plate gives rise to…

A

motor area of brain and spinal cord

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98
Q

marginal zone of the spinal cord

A

outer layer where differentiating neurons accumulate
contains post-mitotic neurons

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99
Q

ventricular zone of spinal cord

A

inner layer containing dividing progenitors

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100
Q

dorsal root ganglia

A

contains sensory input from the periphery that connects to the spinal cord

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101
Q

Pax2 labels…

A

interneurons

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102
Q

Isl1 labels…

A

motorneurons

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103
Q

dorsal horn of spinal cord receives…

A

nociceptors
mechanoreceptors
proprioceptors

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104
Q

ventral horn of spinal cord receives…

A

proprioceptors

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105
Q

lateral motor column

A

innervates limbs

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106
Q

medial motor column

A

innervates axial muscles

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107
Q

sonic hedgehog (SHH)

A

released from mesoderm and notochord signals cells to form basal plate

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108
Q

bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs)

A

released from ectoderm signals cells to form the alar plate

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109
Q

wingless/int-related proteins (Wnts)

A

released from ectoderm signals cells to form alar plate

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110
Q

morphogens

A

SHH, BMPs, Wnts
called this becuase they can pattern tissue in a concentration-dependent fashion

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111
Q

holoprosencephaly

A

partial or complete failure of the prosencephalon to separate into the diencephalon and telencephalon
(too little SHH)

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112
Q

cyclopia

A

extreme holoprosencephaly
single brain vesicle
one large eye
too little SHH

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113
Q

how does cell division change as neurogenesis proceeds?

A

the cleavage plane changes

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114
Q

early neurogenesis

A

vertical cleavage plane
2 symmetrical progenitor daughter cell

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115
Q

late neurogenesis

A

horizontal cleavage plane
basal daughter cell is postmitotic

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116
Q

how is the cerebral cortex developped?

A

new neurons migrate along a radial glial fiber supplied by a neural progenitor to the cortical layer from the ventricular layer

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117
Q

bergmann glia

A

radial fiber

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118
Q

more superficial layers of the cortex are born first

A

false
deeper layers are born first and the superficial layers have to migrate past the deeper layers

119
Q

how are inhibitory neurons born?

A

they arise from the ganglionic eminence in the ventral telencephalon and have to migrate long distances

120
Q

organizer region

A

in the mid-hindbrain junction
also called the MHB
expresses signalling molecules and DNA binding transcription factors that specify the adjacent regions of the brain

121
Q

Hox gene

A

transcription factor along chromosomes
expression is conserved from flies to humans

122
Q

rhombomeres

A

morphologically distinct segments of the hindbrain
each defined by a unique “bar code” including Hox genes

123
Q

which rhombomeres have cell bodies of motor ganglia

A

even-numbered ones

124
Q

how do cranial ganglia form?

A

from the intermixing of migrating neural crest cells interacting with ectodermal thickenings (placodes)

125
Q

how do cranial nerves form?

A

each rhombomere expresses unique transcription factors
neural crest cells migrate from them in a patterned manner

126
Q

how many spinal segments?

A

31 total
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

127
Q

how many vertebral segments?

A

33 total
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
4 coccygeal

128
Q

foramen magnum

A

space that the spinal cord passes through to connect to the brainstem

129
Q

which cervical nerves pass above respective vertebrae?

A

C1-C7

130
Q

where does C8 (cervical nerve) pass?

A

above T1 vertebra

131
Q

which cervical nerves pass below respective vertebrae?

A

T1- the rest

132
Q

where do the coccygeal nerves pass?

A

below the first coccygeal vertebra

133
Q

cervical spinal segments are responsible for…

A

arms and head

134
Q

thoracic spinal segments are responsible for…

A

trunk

135
Q

which spinal segments control the legs?

A

lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal

136
Q

dermatome

A

area of skin whose sensory information project via certain spinal nerves

137
Q

most ventral aspect of the vertebra

A

vertebral body

138
Q

parts of the vertebra

A

vertebral body
spinous processes
vertebral foramen
superior and inferior articular process
intervertebral foramen
intervertebral disc
facet joint

139
Q

function of superior and inferior articular process

A

help connect vertebrae to one another via the facet joint

140
Q

function of intervertebral foramen

A

space that spinal nerves pass through the vertebrae

141
Q

function of intervertebral and facet joint

A

cartilaginous joint
movement of spine
ligaments to hold vertebrae together
shock absorbers

142
Q

spinal cord arteries

A

anterior spinal artery
two posterior spinal arteries
segmental arteries that branch off into radicular arteries and run along the dorsal and ventral nerve roots

143
Q

arachnoid mater

A

important for CSF circulation and blood vessel supply

144
Q

denticulate ligaments

A

extensions of the pia mater that anchor the spinal cord to the dura mater
located between spinal nerves

145
Q

lumbar cistern

A

space in vertebral column after spinal cord ends
filled with CSF
ideal for lumbar punctures

146
Q

conus medullaris

A

tapering of the spinal cord located around L1

147
Q

filum terminale

A

extension of pia mater that helps anchor spinal cord to vertebral canal
internum: strictly pia mater
externum: fuses with dura mater

148
Q

cauda equina

A

bundle of spinal nerves after spinal cord ends

149
Q

spinal dorsal roots

A

sensory axons that enter the spinal cord

150
Q

dorsal root ganglia

A

cells bodies of sensory neurons (outside spinal cord)

151
Q

ventral root of spinal cord

A

motor axons that leave the spinal cord

152
Q

spinal nerve

A

contains both motor and sensory axons leaving and entering the spinal cord

153
Q

ventral ramus

A

motor and sensory axons innervating the ventral portion of the body (wrap around the trunk)

154
Q

dorsal ramus

A

motor and sensory axons innervating dorsal portion of the body (stays near spinal cord)

155
Q

sympathetic ganglia

A

located near the intervertebral foramen at each spinal segment
contain afferent and efferent cell bodies responsible for sympathetic

156
Q

white matter of spinal cord

A

exterior portion (axons)

157
Q

gray matter of spinal cord

A

interior portion (cell bodies)

158
Q

dorsal horn of spinal cord

A

mostly interneuron cell bodies for sensory integration

159
Q

ventral horn of spinal cord

A

mostly cell bodies of motor neurons, and interneurons

160
Q

Lissauer’s tract

A

ascending and descending small fibres that terminate in the substantia gelatinosa
pain, temp, light touch

161
Q

substantia gelatinosa

A

cells that receive direct input from the dorsal roots
pain, temp, light touch

162
Q

nucleus proprius

A

cells that receive direct input from the dorsal roots
pain, temp, light touch
more ventral and medial than the substantia gelatinosa

163
Q

spinal cord sulci

A

posterior (dorsal) median
posterior intermediate
posterolateral
anterolateral
anterior (ventral) median

164
Q

quantity of white matter ________ from rostral to caudal segments of spinal cord

A

decreases

165
Q

quantity of gray matter ______ from rostral to caudal segments of spinal cord

A

increases

166
Q

cervical enlargement

A

responsible for upper limbs

167
Q

lumbar enlargement

A

responsible for lower limbs

168
Q

stretch reflex

A

purely spinal
activation of stretch receptors in a muscle then activates motor neurons there
monosynaptic

169
Q

reciprocal inhibition

A

inhibition of antagonistic muscles
disynaptic

170
Q

flexor reflex

A

purely spinal
activation of pain receptors activates motor neurons of flexor muscles
polysynaptic

171
Q

crosses reflexes

A

during the flexor reflex, pain signals from one leg cross to the other leg to activate extensor muscles
polysynaptic
maintains balance during flexor reflex

172
Q

sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are segregated in the spinal cord

A

true

173
Q

where are sympathetic neurons located?

A

sympathetic ganglia of the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord (outside)

174
Q

where are parasympathetic neurons located?

A

directly inside the brainstem and sacral spinal cord

175
Q

where is rhythmic locomotion generated?

A

in the spinal cord

176
Q

central pattern generator (CPG)

A

collection of interneurons in the spinal cord responsible for driving rhythm of locomotion and pattern of motor neuron activity

177
Q

CPG is modulated by…

A

visual system
vestibular system
proprioceptive and sensory systems

178
Q

what initiates locomotion?

A

brain and brainstem

179
Q

what maintains locomotion?

A

spinal cord

180
Q

what modulates locomotion?

A

many systems

181
Q

nonencapsulated cutaneous receptors

A

root hair plexus
Merkel cells
free nerve endings

182
Q

root hair plexus

A

touch receptors that wrap around hairs to detect their movements

182
Q

Merkel cells

A

sensory cells located below the epidermis and connect to nerve endings of the skin (touch)

182
Q

free nerve endings

A

branching sensory nerve terminals with no complex structures
in the skin
touch, pain, temp, itch

183
Q

encapsulated cutaneous receptors

A

Meissner corpuscles
Pacinian corpuscles
Ruffini endings

184
Q

Meissner corpuscles

A

located below the epidermis and responsible for detecting fine touch and pressure

185
Q

Pacinian corpuscles

A

deeper sensory receptors for vibration and deep pressure
proprioception

186
Q

Ruffini endings

A

located below the epidermis and responsible for detecting skin stretch, pressure, joint movements, and temperature

187
Q

muscle spindles

A

wrap around intrafusal muscle fibres
detect muscle stretch and velocity

188
Q

Golgi tendon organs

A

comprised of free endings that are wrapped in between collagen fibers
detect muscle tension
located within the tendons

189
Q

where do small sensory fibres enter spinal cord?

A

in Lissauer’s tract to terminate in substantia gelatinosa and nucleus proprius

190
Q

where do large sensory fibres enter the spinal cord?

A

medial to Lissauer’s tract

191
Q

ascending tracts are usually ______

A

polysynaptic

192
Q

where are first order neurons of ascending tracts?

A

dorsal root ganglia

193
Q

fasciculus gracilis

A

transmits conscious sensory information from below T6 segment

194
Q

fasciculus cuneatus

A

transmits conscious sensory information from above T6 segments

195
Q

posterior medial-lemniscus system

A

fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus
first order neuron: DRG
second: medulla oblongata
third: thalamus
crossing at the medial lemniscus in the brainstem

196
Q

conscious tracts

A

medial-lemniscus
spinothalamic

197
Q

conscious spinothalamic tracts

A

form anterolateral system
lateral and anterior tracts
first order neuron: DRG
second: nucleus proprius
third: thalamus
information crossing in the spinal cord before entering tracts

198
Q

lateral spinothalamic tract

A

responsible for pain and temperature

199
Q

anterior spinothalamic tract

A

responsible for crude touch and pressure

200
Q

projections of conscious sensory tracts are ______

A

contralateral

201
Q

unconscious tracts

A

spinocerebellar (ventral and dorsal)
first order: DRG
second: in spinal cord
ipsilateral

202
Q

dorsal spinocerebellar tract

A

sends proprioceptive information to the cerebellar
(what is actually occurring)

203
Q

ventral spinocerebellar tract

A

sends locomotor-related interneuronal information to the cerebellum
(this is what I want to occur)

204
Q

does the dorsal spinocerebellar tract cross?

A

no

205
Q

does the ventral spinocerebellar tract cross?

A

double cross, first in spinal cord then again in brain stem

206
Q

lateral corticospinal tract

A

voluntary motor
90% of the corticospinal tract
upper motor neurons are in the motor cortex and lower are in the spinal cord
information crosses at the medulla oblongata
arms and limbs

207
Q

anterior corticospinal tract

A

voluntary motor
10% of the corticospinal tract
upper motor neurons are in the motor cortex and lower are in the spinal cord
information crosses in the spinal cord
trunk muscles

208
Q

vestibulospinal tract

A

drives locomotor reflexes and behaviour to maintain balance

209
Q

tectospinal tract

A

head and eye movement
directs body towards sights and sounds
terminates in the cervical spinal cord

210
Q

reticulospinal tract

A

postural control and locomotion

211
Q

rubrospinal tract

A

locomotion
terminates in cervical and thoracic spinal segments
responsible for trunk and upper limb movements

212
Q

how much does brain weigh?

A

1500g in air
50g in CSF

213
Q

dura mater layers

A

periosteal (outer)
meningeal (inner, only around the brain, not present around spinal cord)

214
Q

falx cerebri

A

meningeal layer of dura mater goes between the two cerebral hemispheres

215
Q

tentorium cerebelli

A

meningeal layer of dura mater goes between occipital lobe and cerebellum

216
Q

arachnoid mater

A

adhered to inner surface of dura
CSF flows through

217
Q

pia mater

A

tightly adhered to the surface of the brain (goes into the sulci)

218
Q

sinus

A

separation of the two dura mater layers
where venous blood drains from cerebrum and CSF from arachnoid space

219
Q

arachnoid trabeculae

A

“spidery” extensions within the arachnoid layer that allow the CSF to flow through

220
Q

epidural space

A

potential space between skull and dura

221
Q

subdural space

A

potential space between meningeal dura and arachnoid

222
Q

subarachnoid space

A

true space between arachnoid and pia, filled with CSF

223
Q

cisterns

A

true space between two layers of dura filled with cerebral magna

224
Q

bridging vein

A

drains venous blood into the superior sagittal sinus

225
Q

epidural hematoma

A

from getting hit really hard leading to laceration of the middle meningeal artery
blood collects between dura and periosteum

226
Q

chronic subdural hematoma

A

rupture of bridging veins
usually becuase atrophy allows brain to move freely

227
Q

acute subdural hematona

A

rupture of bridging vein immediately after high velocity impact

228
Q

interventricular foramen

A

connection between lateral and third ventricles

229
Q

cerebral aqueduct

A

connection between third and fourth ventricles

230
Q

parenchyma

A

30% of CSF production
cells in the brain

231
Q

choroid plexus

A

70% of CSF production

232
Q

CSF characteristics

A

500mL per day
total volume is 90-140mL
low protein content <0.45g/l
clear, colourless and sterile
presence of WBC indicates infection

233
Q

function of ventricles

A

removes metabolites from CNS
stabilizes ionic composition of CNS
cushion to dampen effect of trauma

234
Q

arachnoid granulations

A

extensions of arachnoid that protrude into the sinus and release CSF into the blood

235
Q

non-obstructive hydrocephalus

A

impairment of arachnoid granulations

236
Q

obstructive hydrocephalus

A

CSF-flow obstruction of the portals that it normally flows through

236
Q

pontomesencephalic junction

A

between midbrain and pons

237
Q

which cranial nerves have nuclei in the brainstem

A

CN III to CN XII

237
Q

pyramids

A

conduit for descending motor (corticospinal tract)
in medulla

237
Q

cerebral peduncles

A

conduit for descending white matter in the midbrain

237
Q

anterior median fissure

A

separates the pyramids

238
Q

anterolateral sulcus

A

separation of the olives (inferior olivary nuclei)

239
Q

roof of fourth ventricle

A

superior cerebellar peduncle and superior medullary velum

240
Q

name the cranial nerves

A

I: olfactory
II: optic
III: oculomotor
IV: trochlear
V: trigeminal
VI: abducens
VII: facial
VIII: vestibulocochlear
IX: glossopharyngeal
X: vagus
XI: accessory
XII: hypoglossal

241
Q

where are motor roots located in the brainstem?

A

along the midline

242
Q

CN with pure motor function

A

3, 4, 6, 11, 12

243
Q

where do axons of CN exit the brainstem?

A

ventral side
except for CN IV (trochlear)

244
Q

autonomic function of cranial nerves

A

always parasympathetic

245
Q

oculomotor nerve function

A

all extraocular eye muscles except lateral rectus and superior oblique
levator palpebrae superiosis
autonomic: pupillary constriction

246
Q

trochlear nerve function

A

superior oblique
depresses and abducts

247
Q

abducens nerve function

A

lateral rectus
abducts

248
Q

hypoglossal nerve function

A

all intrinsic and most of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue
(tongue movement)

249
Q

pathway of hypoglossal nerve

A

upper motoneuron: corticobulbar neuron
corticobulbar tract
hypoglossal nucleus
hypoglossal nerve
intrinsic tongue muscles

250
Q

right CN XII palsy

A

tongue deviates to the right

251
Q

eye adduction

A

medial rectus, CN III

252
Q

eye abduction

A

lateral rectus, CN VI

253
Q

eye elevation

A

superior rectus, CN III
inferior oblique, CN III

254
Q

eye depression

A

inferior rectus, CN III
superior oblique, CN IV

255
Q

lifting eyelid

A

levator palpebrae superiosis, CN III

256
Q

how to test superior rectus

A

look laterally and upward

257
Q

how to test inferior rectus

A

look laterally and downward

258
Q

how to test lateral rectus

A

look laterally

259
Q

how to test medial rectus

A

look medially

260
Q

how to test inferior oblique

A

look medially and upward

261
Q

how to test superior oblique

A

look medially and downward

262
Q

right CN VI palsy

A

prevent from looking laterally with right eye

263
Q

left CN IV palsy

A

prevent looking down and medially with right eye

264
Q

nucleus of edinger westphal

A

rostral midbrain
source of preganglionic parasympathetics carried by CN III to the ciliary ganglia (pupil constriction)

265
Q

miosis

A

constriction of the pupil by the sphincter pupillae which is innervated by the postganglionic parasympathetics

266
Q

lesion to right CN III

A

right eyelid is shut (ptosis)
can’t look up or medially
pupil is dilated

267
Q

lesion to left CN VI

A

left eye cannot look laterally

268
Q

branches of trigeminal nerve

A

ophthalmic branch (V1)
maxillary branch (V2)
mandibular branch (V3)

269
Q

which branch of trigeminal nerve has motor function?

A

mandibular branch

270
Q

muscles of mastication

A

temporalis
masseter
medial and lateral pterygoids

271
Q

pathway of motor control of pterygoids

A

UMN in precentral gyrus of motor cortex
projects to motor nucleus CN V
LMN innervates muscle

272
Q

functions of tensor tympani

A

reduce auditory sounds (chewing, speech)
activates in response to very loud noises

273
Q

modality of spinal trigeminal nucleus

A

pain and temp (face)

274
Q

modality of main sensory nucleus (CN V)

A

discriminative touch and proprioception (face)

275
Q

modality of mesencephalic nucleus (CN V)

A

stretch reflex associated jaw muscle of mastication

276
Q

rules of CN V

A
  • 1st order sensory neurons located in trigeminal ganglion
  • 2nd order sensory neurons located in distinct subnucleus of CN V
  • 2nd order neurons project to 3rd order neurons in the contralateral VPM of thalamus
  • 3rd order neurons project to the “face region” of the postcentral gyrus
  • lower motor neurons innervating muscles of mastication located on the trigeminal motor nucleus
277
Q

which area of the pons does the trigeminal nerve pass through?

A

lateral area of pons

278
Q

second order neuron of pain begins in…

A

the spinal nucleus

279
Q

second order neuron of proprioception begins in…

A

the chief sensory nucleus of CN V

280
Q

pain tract for the face (sensory)

A

trigemino-thalamic

281
Q

proprioception tract for the face (sensory)

A

trigeminal lemniscus

282
Q

third order neuron of pain begins in…

A

VPM

283
Q

third order neuron of proprioception begins in…

A

VPL

284
Q

clinical disorders associated with CN V

A

loss of face sensation
trigeminal neuralgia
loss of corneal reflex (afferent limb is CN V)
paralysis of muscles of mastication
deviation of jaw to weak side
loss of lacrimal reflex (afferent)
loss of jaw jerk reflex

285
Q

trigeminal neuralgia

A

sharp stabbing pain on one side of face
caused by virus (herpes) or occlusion of arterial blood flow

286
Q

corneal reflex

A

afferent: CN V
efferent: CN VII
causes both eyes to blink

287
Q

lacrimal reflex

A

afferent: CN V
efferent: CN VII
tear secretion

288
Q

jaw jerk reflex

A

tapping between the chin and lower teeth causes the jaw to jerk shut

289
Q
A

Neuroanatomy (2 decks)

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